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OPP FINAL > OPP FINAL > Flashcards

OPP FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

muscle hypertonicity, contraction, spasm can be caused by direct irritation of what is ______ the muscle

A

overlying

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2
Q

A kidney stone may cause the _____ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test

A

psoas

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3
Q

Appendicitis may cause the ______ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test

A

psoas

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4
Q

what is the indication of HVLA

A

a distinct, solid barrier

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5
Q

what is the goal of counterstrain

A

to decrease gamma gain

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6
Q

what does the spencer technique utilize

A

muscle energy, articular, lymphatic/myofascial release

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7
Q

lumbar spine will side bend _____ the long leg side and rotate _______ the short leg side

A

toward; toward

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8
Q

what is the most commonly used form of contraction in muscle energy

A

isometric contraction

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9
Q

what is the first part of a physical examination

A

watching the patient move

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10
Q

What does isometric contraction used in muscle energy do?

A

Tenses golgi tendon organs causing areflecx inhibition of the muscle allowing for an increase in muscle length

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11
Q

Translation to the right = sidebending to the ______

A

Left

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12
Q

Where is the anterior Chapman’s point for the pancreas

A

7th intercostal space near sternum on the right side

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13
Q

When you think of pancrease thing

A

Amylase, lipase, blood glucose

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14
Q

A tight piriformis would lead to reduced

A

Hip internal rotation

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15
Q

Where is the coracoid process

A

1” inferiorly from the most distal articulation of the clavicle

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16
Q

What does the terrible triad consist of

A

ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

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17
Q

What zones are more susceptible to somatic dysfunction

A

Transition zones

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18
Q

A ____ ______ for leg length difference may help prevent osteoarthritis in a patient

A

Heel lift

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19
Q

A posterior talus indicates

A

Decreased plantar flexion

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20
Q

An anterior talus indicates

A

Decreased dorsiflexion

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21
Q

If a muscle is torn, should you stretch it

A

No

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22
Q

What does TART stand for

A

Tissue texture changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of motion
Tenderness

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23
Q

What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulu producing patterns of reflect response in segment ally related somatic structures

A

Somatosomatic reflex

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24
Q

What kind of reflex is seen when a rib somatic dysfunction From an innominate dysfunction occurs

A

Somatosomatic reflex

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25
Q

What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulation producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures

A

Somatovisceral

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26
Q

What kind of reflex is involved in an asthma attack is triggered when working on a thoracic spine

A

Somatovisceral

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27
Q

What kind of reflex is localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex reasons in segmentally related somatic structures

A

Viscerosomatic

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28
Q

What kind of reflex is involved in a gall bladder disease affecting musculature

A

Viscerosomatic

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29
Q

What type of reflex is localized visceral stimuli productions patterns of reflexresponse in segmentally related visceral structures

A

Viscerovisceral reflex

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30
Q

What type of reflex is involved when pancreatitis triggers vomiting

A

Viscerovisceral

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31
Q

What are the 5 osteopathic models

A 
Biomechanical 
Neurological
Respiratory/circulatory
Metabolic/nutritional
Behavioral
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32
Q

Orientation of superior facet cervical

A

BUM

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33
Q

Orientation of superior Facet thoracic

A

BUL

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34
Q

Orientation of superior facet Lumbar

A

BM

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35
Q

Orientation of Inferior facet cervical

A

AIL

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36
Q

Orientation of inferior facet thoraccic

A

AIM

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37
Q

Orientation of inferior facets Laumbar

A

AL

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38
Q

Psoas syndrome is typically associated with what kind of somatic dysfunction

A

Non-neutral type II

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39
Q

Where is psoas dysfunction typically located

A

L1-L2

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40
Q

Psoas syndrome causes sacral somatic dysfunction of which axis

A

Oblique (usually side of lumbar side bending)

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41
Q

Psoas syndrome: pelvic shift is to the __________ side of the greatest psoas syndrome

A

Opposite

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42
Q

Psoas syndrome: hypertonicity of the piriformis muscle ________ to the side of greatest psoas spasm

A

Contralateral

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43
Q

Psoas syndrome: sciatic nerve irritation occurs on the _____ of the piriformis spasm

A

Side

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44
Q

Where does the psoas insert on

A

Lesser trochanter of the femur

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45
Q

Psoas syndrome: gluteal muscular and posterior thigh pain does not go past the ______ on the side of the piriformis muscle spasm

A

Knee

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46
Q

HVLA is an example of what kind of OMT

A

Direct/passive

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47
Q

Muscle energy is an example of what kind of OMT

A

Direct/active

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48
Q

Counterstrain is what kind of OMT

A

Indirect/passive

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49
Q

Balanced Ligamentous technique is an example of what kind of OMT

A

Indirect/passive

50
Q

Facilitated positional release (FPR) is what kind of OMT

A

Indirect/passive

51
Q

What is the setup for a direct technique

A

Engage the barrier

52
Q

In an indirect technique, you want to ________ the dysfunction

A

Exaggerate

53
Q

Examples of indirect techniques

A 
Counterstrain
FPR
BLT
Functional technique
Mayofascial release
Cranial 
Still technique
54
Q

Examples of direct tecchniques

A 
Soft tissue 
Articulately
Muscle energy
HVLA
Springing
Myofascial
Cranial
Still
55
Q

What is petrissage

A

Pinching

56
Q

What does counterstrain work on

A

Muscle spindle in parallel

57
Q

What does muscle energy work on?

A

Golgi tendon to change muscle tension

Nociceptors

58
Q

T/F Stiill technique goes from indirect to direct

A

True

59
Q

Lateral epicondylitis is also referred to as

A

Tennis elbow

60
Q

Medial epicondylitis is also referred to as

A

Golfers elbow

61
Q

Counterstrain point for subscapularis

A

Extension, IR, and slight abduction of humerus

62
Q

Counter Strain points for levator scapulae

A

IR of arm/shoulder traction with slight abduction

63
Q

counterstrain points of supraspinatus

A

flex arm/shoulder 45 degrees
abduct arm/shoulder 45 degrees
ER arm/shoulder

64
Q

counter strain points of infraspinatus

A

flex arm/shoulder 150 degrees
IR srm/shoulder
abduct arm/shoulder

65
Q

what do you do for tennis elbow

A
  1. flex wrist and pronate forearem
  2. grasp point of olecranon between your thumb and index finger
  3. compress your forearm between your two hands
  4. extend elbow
66
Q

what happens during pronation

A

distal radius crosses over ulna

proximal radius glides posteriorly

67
Q

what happens during supination

A

distal radius moves posterolaterally and proximal radial head moves anterior

68
Q

what is the most common dysfunction leading to loss of forearm supination

A

posterior radial head

69
Q

the head of the radius follows

A

pronation=posterior

supination=anteriror

70
Q

what happens to the ulna abducts

A

olecranon glides medially
radius glides distally
wrist is pushed into increased adduction

71
Q

what happens when the ulna adducts

A

olecranon glides laterally
radius glides proximally
wrist is pulled into abducted position

72
Q

what are the upper extremity sympathetics nerve roots

A

T2-T8

73
Q

what are the nerve roots of the brachial plexusa

A

C5-8, T1

74
Q

where do the nerve roots of the brachial plexus pass

A

between middle and anterior scalene

75
Q

what is in the neurovascular bundle to the upper extremity

A

subclavian artery/vein
brachial plexus
sympathetic nerve plexus

76
Q

what are the common entrapment sites for thoracic outlet syndrome

A

scalene triangle
costoclavicular space
cubcoracoid space

77
Q

what is adsons test

A

when neck is extended turned toward affected side
(entrapment scalene triangle)
anterior/middle scalene
brachial plexus, sublcavian artery

78
Q

what is costoclavicular (Halsted) maneuver

A

exaggerated military posture
(entrapment: copstoclavicular space()
1st rib clavicle
brachial plexus, subclavian artery/vein

79
Q

what is Wright’s (hypoerabduction) manuever

A

shoulder ER
abduction beyond 90 degrees
compression below insertion of pec minor
(entrapment: subcoracoid space)

80
Q

what is east test

A

shoulders abducted and ER, elbows flexed at 90 degrees, open and close hands repeatedly

81
Q

what is the most commonly torn rotator cuff muscle

A

supraspinatus

82
Q

what is the action of the supraspinatus

A

abduction

83
Q

what is the action of the infraspinatus

A

external rotation

84
Q

what is the action of the teres minor

A

ER

85
Q

what is the action of the subscapularis

A

IR

86
Q

what are the phases of shoulder abduction

A

0-90 deltoid, supraspinatus
90-150 trapezius
150-180 erector spinae muscles on opposite side

87
Q

what is the movement sequence of shoulder abduction

A

supraspinatus
deltoid
trapezoid
erector spinae

88
Q

what is the ROM ratio glenohumeral to scapulothoracic

A

2:1

89
Q

where does humeral dislocation usually occur

A

anteriorly and inferiorly

90
Q

at what location would a fractured humerus lead to impaired extension of the wrist

A

mid-shaft fracture

91
Q

contents of the carpal tunnel

A

FDS, FDP, FPL, median nerve

92
Q

what are the tests for carpal tunnel

A

phalen, prayer, tinel, provocation

93
Q

what are the symptoms of carpal tunnel

A

pain, anesthesia, paresthesia

94
Q

what ligaments are involved with DeQuervain tenosynovitis

A

EPB, APL

95
Q

what is an indication of DeQuervain tenosynovitis

A

swelling around anatomical snuff box; confirm with Finkelstein’s test

96
Q

what are the special shoulder tests

A

apleys scratch test (shoudler ROM)
apprehension test (anterior shoulder instability)
cozen test (tennis elbow)
Drop arm test (supraspinatus tear)

97
Q

What does the empty can test, test

A

supraspinatus

98
Q

Finkelstein’s Test / Eichoff’s Modification

A

DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

99
Q

Phalen/Reverse Phalen Test

and tinel test

A

Diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

100
Q

Neer

A

Suprinspinatus Impingement

101
Q

Yergason Test

A

Tear of Transverse Humeral Ligament

Dislocation of Biceps Tendon in Bicipital Groove

102
Q

Allen Test

A

Radial and ulnar artery patency

103
Q

Straight Leg Raising (SLR) Test

A

Herniated Lumbar Disc (L1-L5, S1)

104
Q

what is the normal Q angle

A

10-12 degrees

105
Q

where does the mcl attach

A

medial meniscus

106
Q

what is the attachment of an acl

A

anterior tibial

107
Q

pronation of the foot cuases the distal fibula to move

A

posteriorly

108
Q

supinaiton of the foot causes the distal fibula to move

A

anteriorly

109
Q

what is the acronym for anterior fibula hjead

A

DEA (dorsiflexed, everted, externally rotated=anterior)

110
Q

what is acronym for posterior fibular head

A

PIP (plantar, inverted, IR,=posterior)

111
Q

which way does the talus rotate in a fallen arch

A

anteriorly

112
Q

which ways do the navicular and cuboid rotate in fallen arches

A

medial and lateral, respectively

113
Q

which degree of ankle sprain is the worst

A

3rd

114
Q

what are the lateral ankle stabilizers

A

ATF
Calcaneofibular
posterior talofibular

115
Q

what is most commonly injured ligament in an inversion ankle sprain

A

anterior tibiofibular

116
Q

most common type I sprain

A

ATF

117
Q

most common type II sprain

A

ATF and CF

118
Q

most common type III sprain

A

ATF, CF, and PTF

119
Q

what muscle is being treated in a medial ankle counterstrain point

A

anteriro tibalis

120
Q

what muscle is being treated in a lateral ankle counterstrain point

A

fibularis, longus, brevis, or tertious

OPP FINAL (1 decks)

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