OPP FINAL Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
muscle hypertonicity, contraction, spasm can be caused by direct irritation of what is ______ the muscle
A
overlying
2
Q
A kidney stone may cause the _____ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test
A
psoas
3
Q
Appendicitis may cause the ______ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test
A
psoas
4
Q
what is the indication of HVLA
A
a distinct, solid barrier
5
Q
what is the goal of counterstrain
A
to decrease gamma gain
6
Q
what does the spencer technique utilize
A
muscle energy, articular, lymphatic/myofascial release
7
Q
lumbar spine will side bend _____ the long leg side and rotate _______ the short leg side
A
toward; toward
8
Q
what is the most commonly used form of contraction in muscle energy
A
isometric contraction
9
Q
what is the first part of a physical examination
A
watching the patient move
10
Q
What does isometric contraction used in muscle energy do?
A
Tenses golgi tendon organs causing areflecx inhibition of the muscle allowing for an increase in muscle length
11
Q
Translation to the right = sidebending to the ______
A
Left
12
Q
Where is the anterior Chapman’s point for the pancreas
A
7th intercostal space near sternum on the right side
13
Q
When you think of pancrease thing
A
Amylase, lipase, blood glucose
14
Q
A tight piriformis would lead to reduced
A
Hip internal rotation
15
Q
Where is the coracoid process
A
1” inferiorly from the most distal articulation of the clavicle
16
Q
What does the terrible triad consist of
A
ACL, MCL, medial meniscus
17
Q
What zones are more susceptible to somatic dysfunction
A
Transition zones
18
Q
A ____ ______ for leg length difference may help prevent osteoarthritis in a patient
A
Heel lift
19
Q
A posterior talus indicates
A
Decreased plantar flexion
20
Q
An anterior talus indicates
A
Decreased dorsiflexion
21
Q
If a muscle is torn, should you stretch it
A
No
22
Q
What does TART stand for
A
Tissue texture changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of motion
Tenderness
23
Q
What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulu producing patterns of reflect response in segment ally related somatic structures
A
Somatosomatic reflex
24
Q
What kind of reflex is seen when a rib somatic dysfunction From an innominate dysfunction occurs
A
Somatosomatic reflex
25
What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulation producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures
Somatovisceral
26
What kind of reflex is involved in an asthma attack is triggered when working on a thoracic spine
Somatovisceral
27
What kind of reflex is localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex reasons in segmentally related somatic structures
Viscerosomatic
28
What kind of reflex is involved in a gall bladder disease affecting musculature
Viscerosomatic
29
What type of reflex is localized visceral stimuli productions patterns of reflexresponse in segmentally related visceral structures
Viscerovisceral reflex
30
What type of reflex is involved when pancreatitis triggers vomiting
Viscerovisceral
31
What are the 5 osteopathic models
```
Biomechanical
Neurological
Respiratory/circulatory
Metabolic/nutritional
Behavioral
```
32
Orientation of superior facet cervical
BUM
33
Orientation of superior Facet thoracic
BUL
34
Orientation of superior facet Lumbar
BM
35
Orientation of Inferior facet cervical
AIL
36
Orientation of inferior facet thoraccic
AIM
37
Orientation of inferior facets Laumbar
AL
38
Psoas syndrome is typically associated with what kind of somatic dysfunction
Non-neutral type II
39
Where is psoas dysfunction typically located
L1-L2
40
Psoas syndrome causes sacral somatic dysfunction of which axis
Oblique (usually side of lumbar side bending)
41
Psoas syndrome: pelvic shift is to the __________ side of the greatest psoas syndrome
Opposite
42
Psoas syndrome: hypertonicity of the piriformis muscle ________ to the side of greatest psoas spasm
Contralateral
43
Psoas syndrome: sciatic nerve irritation occurs on the _____ of the piriformis spasm
Side
44
Where does the psoas insert on
Lesser trochanter of the femur
45
Psoas syndrome: gluteal muscular and posterior thigh pain does not go past the ______ on the side of the piriformis muscle spasm
Knee
46
HVLA is an example of what kind of OMT
Direct/passive
47
Muscle energy is an example of what kind of OMT
Direct/active
48
Counterstrain is what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
49
Balanced Ligamentous technique is an example of what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
50
Facilitated positional release (FPR) is what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
51
What is the setup for a direct technique
Engage the barrier
52
In an indirect technique, you want to ________ the dysfunction
Exaggerate
53
Examples of indirect techniques
```
Counterstrain
FPR
BLT
Functional technique
Mayofascial release
Cranial
Still technique
```
54
Examples of direct tecchniques
```
Soft tissue
Articulately
Muscle energy
HVLA
Springing
Myofascial
Cranial
Still
```
55
What is petrissage
Pinching
56
What does counterstrain work on
Muscle spindle in parallel
57
What does muscle energy work on?
Golgi tendon to change muscle tension
| Nociceptors
58
T/F Stiill technique goes from indirect to direct
True
59
Lateral epicondylitis is also referred to as
Tennis elbow
60
Medial epicondylitis is also referred to as
Golfers elbow
61
Counterstrain point for subscapularis
Extension, IR, and slight abduction of humerus
62
Counter Strain points for levator scapulae
IR of arm/shoulder traction with slight abduction
63
counterstrain points of supraspinatus
flex arm/shoulder 45 degrees
abduct arm/shoulder 45 degrees
ER arm/shoulder
64
counter strain points of infraspinatus
flex arm/shoulder 150 degrees
IR srm/shoulder
abduct arm/shoulder
65
what do you do for tennis elbow
1. flex wrist and pronate forearem
2. grasp point of olecranon between your thumb and index finger
3. compress your forearm between your two hands
4. extend elbow
66
what happens during pronation
distal radius crosses over ulna
| proximal radius glides posteriorly
67
what happens during supination
distal radius moves posterolaterally and proximal radial head moves anterior
68
what is the most common dysfunction leading to loss of forearm supination
posterior radial head
69
the head of the radius follows
pronation=posterior
| supination=anteriror
70
what happens to the ulna abducts
olecranon glides medially
radius glides distally
wrist is pushed into increased adduction
71
what happens when the ulna adducts
olecranon glides laterally
radius glides proximally
wrist is pulled into abducted position
72
what are the upper extremity sympathetics nerve roots
T2-T8
73
what are the nerve roots of the brachial plexusa
C5-8, T1
74
where do the nerve roots of the brachial plexus pass
between middle and anterior scalene
75
what is in the neurovascular bundle to the upper extremity
subclavian artery/vein
brachial plexus
sympathetic nerve plexus
76
what are the common entrapment sites for thoracic outlet syndrome
scalene triangle
costoclavicular space
cubcoracoid space
77
what is adsons test
when neck is extended turned toward affected side
(entrapment scalene triangle)
anterior/middle scalene
brachial plexus, sublcavian artery
78
what is costoclavicular (Halsted) maneuver
exaggerated military posture
(entrapment: copstoclavicular space()
1st rib clavicle
brachial plexus, subclavian artery/vein
79
what is Wright's (hypoerabduction) manuever
shoulder ER
abduction beyond 90 degrees
compression below insertion of pec minor
(entrapment: subcoracoid space)
80
what is east test
shoulders abducted and ER, elbows flexed at 90 degrees, open and close hands repeatedly
81
what is the most commonly torn rotator cuff muscle
supraspinatus
82
what is the action of the supraspinatus
abduction
83
what is the action of the infraspinatus
external rotation
84
what is the action of the teres minor
ER
85
what is the action of the subscapularis
IR
86
what are the phases of shoulder abduction
0-90 deltoid, supraspinatus
90-150 trapezius
150-180 erector spinae muscles on opposite side
87
what is the movement sequence of shoulder abduction
supraspinatus
deltoid
trapezoid
erector spinae
88
what is the ROM ratio glenohumeral to scapulothoracic
2:1
89
where does humeral dislocation usually occur
anteriorly and inferiorly
90
at what location would a fractured humerus lead to impaired extension of the wrist
mid-shaft fracture
91
contents of the carpal tunnel
FDS, FDP, FPL, median nerve
92
what are the tests for carpal tunnel
phalen, prayer, tinel, provocation
93
what are the symptoms of carpal tunnel
pain, anesthesia, paresthesia
94
what ligaments are involved with DeQuervain tenosynovitis
EPB, APL
95
what is an indication of DeQuervain tenosynovitis
swelling around anatomical snuff box; confirm with Finkelstein's test
96
what are the special shoulder tests
apleys scratch test (shoudler ROM)
apprehension test (anterior shoulder instability)
cozen test (tennis elbow)
Drop arm test (supraspinatus tear)
97
What does the empty can test, test
supraspinatus
98
Finkelstein’s Test / Eichoff’s Modification
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis
99
Phalen/Reverse Phalen Test
| and tinel test
Diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
100
Neer
Suprinspinatus Impingement
101
Yergason Test
Tear of Transverse Humeral Ligament
| Dislocation of Biceps Tendon in Bicipital Groove
102
Allen Test
Radial and ulnar artery patency
103
Straight Leg Raising (SLR) Test
Herniated Lumbar Disc (L1-L5, S1)
104
what is the normal Q angle
10-12 degrees
105
where does the mcl attach
medial meniscus
106
what is the attachment of an acl
anterior tibial
107
pronation of the foot cuases the distal fibula to move
posteriorly
108
supinaiton of the foot causes the distal fibula to move
anteriorly
109
what is the acronym for anterior fibula hjead
DEA (dorsiflexed, everted, externally rotated=anterior)
110
what is acronym for posterior fibular head
PIP (plantar, inverted, IR,=posterior)
111
which way does the talus rotate in a fallen arch
anteriorly
112
which ways do the navicular and cuboid rotate in fallen arches
medial and lateral, respectively
113
which degree of ankle sprain is the worst
3rd
114
what are the lateral ankle stabilizers
ATF
Calcaneofibular
posterior talofibular
115
what is most commonly injured ligament in an inversion ankle sprain
anterior tibiofibular
116
most common type I sprain
ATF
117
most common type II sprain
ATF and CF
118
most common type III sprain
ATF, CF, and PTF
119
what muscle is being treated in a medial ankle counterstrain point
anteriro tibalis
120
what muscle is being treated in a lateral ankle counterstrain point
fibularis, longus, brevis, or tertious
