Opportunistic Infections & HIV + Drugs (Class/Brand/Generic) Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

Name the 5 immunocompromised states.

A

1) HIV with a CD4 T-lymphocyte count < 200
2) Use of systemic steroids for 14 days or longer at a prednisone dose >20mg/d or > 2mg/kg/d
3) Asplenia
4) Use of immunosuppressants
5) Use of cancer chemotherapy agents esp. with severe neutropenia (ANC < 500)

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2
Q

Common opportunistic infections requiring primary prophylaxis include:

A

1) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP or PCP)
2) Toxoplasmosis gondii encephalitis
3) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

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3
Q

Common opportunistic infection that occurs in patients at a higher risk but prophylaxis is NOT recommended:

A

Candida infections in the mouth/esophagus “thrush”

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4
Q

Primary Prophylaxis Regimens in HIV:

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP or PCP)

A

Criteria for Starting: CD4 < 200 cells/mm^3
Criteria for Discontinuing: CD4 >200 x > 3 months on ART

DOC: SMX/TMP DS or SS daily

Alternatives:

1) Dapsone or
2) Dapsone + Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin or
3) Atovaquone

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5
Q

Primary Prophylaxis Regimens in HIV:

Toxoplasmosis gondii encephalitis

A

Criteria for Starting: CD4 < 100 cells/mm^3
Criteria for Discontinuing: CD4 >200 x > 3 months on ART

DOC: SMX/TMP DS PO daily

Alternatives:

1) Dapsone + Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin or
2) Atovaquone

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6
Q

Primary Prophylaxis Regimens in HIV:

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

A

Criteria for Starting:

1) Not recommended if ART is started STAT
2) If not taking ART and CD4 < 50 cells/mm^3

Criteria for Discontinuing: Taking fully suppressive ART

DOC: Azithromycin 1,200 mg PO weekly

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7
Q

Selection of alternative regimens in HIV (prophylaxis or treatment) depends on patient-specific factors:

A
  • —options for PCP in the setting of a sulfa allergy—
  • atovaquone *dapsone *pentamidine
  • —options for G6PD deficiency—–
  • atovaquone and *pentamidine

—-Leucovorin is added to all pyrimethamine-containing regimens as rescue therapy to reduce the risk of drug-induced myelosuppression—–

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8
Q

Secondary prophylaxis is initiated after initial treatment for what purpose?

A

Given to prevent recurrent of the infection regardless of the cause of immunosuppression

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9
Q

Treatment of OIs: Candidiasis

A

Appearance: white film in mouth/throat

DOC: Fluconazole

Alternative: Itraconazole

2ndary: NOT recommended

**thrush in HIV is treated with systemic steroids not local (nystatin, clotrimazole or miconazole)

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10
Q

Treatment of OIs: Cryptococcal meningitis

A

DOC: Amphotericin B (deoxycholate or liposomal) + flucytosine

Alt: Fluconazole +/- flucytosine

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11
Q

Treatment of OIs: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

DOC: Valganciclovir or Ganciclovir

Alt: foscarnet or cidofovir (if toxicities to ganciclovir or resistant strains)

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12
Q

Treatment of OIs: Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

A

DOC: (Clarithromycin or azithromycin) + ethambutol

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13
Q

Treatment of OIs: PCP/PJP

A

DOC: Bactrim x 21 days +/ prednisone or methylpred

Alt: Atovaquone or Pentamidine IV

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14
Q

Treatment of OIs: Toxoplasmosis gondii encephalitis

A

DOC: Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin + sulfadiazine

Alt: Bactrim

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15
Q

All of the following diease-treatment pairs are correct EXCEPT:

  1. Mycobacterium avium complex - clarithromycin + ethambutol
  2. Oropharyngeal candidiasis - itraconazole
  3. Cytomegalovirus - ganciclovir
  4. Cryptococcal meningitis - liposomal amphotericin B + foscarnet
  5. Pneumocystis pneumonia - IV pentamidine
A

4

Cryptococcal meningitis - amphotericin (liposomal or conventional) + flucytosine

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16
Q

What is the DOC for PCP & Toxoplasma prophylaxis?

A

Bactrim DS daily

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17
Q

What drug is used for MAC prophylaxis?

A

Azithromycin 1200 mg weekly

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18
Q

When should Bactrim DS for primary prophylaxis of PCP be discontinued?

A

When CD4 > 200 for > 3 months on ART

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19
Q

DOC when CD4 < 50; indicates that patient needs prophylaxis due to which OI?

A

DOC: Azithromycin 1200mg PO weekly

OI: Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

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20
Q

An HIV-positive patient with a history of a poor medication adherence has a CD4 Count < 50. He develops CMV. What drug is used as first-line therapy for CMV?

A

Valganciclovir (Valcyte)

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21
Q

What is the preferred treatment of Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis?

A

Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin + Sulfadiazine

TGE - PLS (To go extra please!)

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22
Q

A patient has a CD4 count of 93 and a positive toxoplasma IgG. What OIs should he receive prophylaxis for at this time?

A

PCP (<200) and Toxoplasma (<100)

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23
Q

PS is an immunocompromised transplant patient who requires a medication to prevent PCP. She reports an itchy rash when taking Bactrim. What is an alternative?

A

Dapsone or atovaquone

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24
Q

CV is a 39 yoM with HIV and CMV. His response was poor and additional viral testing shows the development of resistance to valganciclovir. What alternatives would be expected to have activity in this case?

A

Foscarnet or cidofovir

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25
What ART agent has a boxed warning for the risk of serious HSR?
Abacavir *genomic testing - HLA-B *5701
26
A phlebotomist had an accidental needle stick from an HIV-positive patient. What drug combination is the preferred regimen for PEP?
raltegravir (Isentress) PLUS emtricitabine + TDF (Truvada) x28 days for PEP
27
All NRTIs have these warnings
Lactic acidosis and hepatomegaly with steatosis
28
Descovy
emtricitabine + TAF
29
What ART is available as an IV formulation used to prevent perinatal transmission of HIV?
Zidovudine
30
Major benefit of TAF vs TDF
Lower risk of nephrotoxicity
31
Labs needed prior to PrEP
Pregnancy test HIV negative test Hepatitis B test STI test
32
What medication requires screening to determine the HIV tropism before starting treatment?
Maraviroc
33
What ART class should be administered separately from antacids?
INSTIs 2 hours b4 or 6 hours after antacids
34
Complera
TDF + emtricitabine + rilpivirine
35
Odesfey
TAF + emtricitabine + rilpivirine
36
emtricitabine + TDF
Truvada
37
lamivudine + abacavir
Epzicom
38
What drug causes the skin and sclera to yellow?
atazanavir (Reyataz) Class: Protease Inhibitors
39
Drug recommendations for loss of appetite and help increase muscle mass.
Megace ES Dronabinol Nabilone
40
Stribild contraindicated in what condition?
Nephropathy Avoid use if CrCl < 50 mL/min Generic: TDF + emtricitabine + elvitegravir + cobicistat
41
emtricitabine drug class
NRTIs
42
zidovudine side effect
Anemia Brand: Retrovir
43
LA is a 31 yoF who started on ART 2 months ago when she was diagnosed as HIV-positive. She now presents with IRIS. What is an appropriate course of action?
Continue current ART *treating IRIS includes treating underlying pathogen, continue current ART, and in some cases add corticosteroids to ART
44
What is the INSTI component to Triumeq?
dolutegravir (Tivicay)
45
HIV transmission
Via blood, semen, breast milk, & vaginal fluid
46
Cobicistat is used in ART regimen as a
CYP450 3A4 inhibitor "PK booster"
47
What HIV medications should be taken with food?
Genvoya Complera Rilpivirine
48
What HIV medications should be taken on an empty stomach?
Efavirenz | Atripla (contains efavirenz)
49
Prezista
darunavir
50
Which of the following drugs on the Medication List interacts with one another: ``` Prezista Ritonavir Truvada Simvastatin Lovaza HCTZ ```
Simvastatin with ritonavir & Prezista (darunavir) *Simvastatin & Lovastatin DDI w/ PIs
51
Describe how HIV lab parameters would be expected to change if ART is not started?
Decrease CD4 and increase viral load *Tx goal: incr. CD4 & decr. viral load
52
Viread
TDF
53
oPEP treatment duration
28 days (4 weeks) *started ASAP within 72 hours
54
First-line ART regimens
Biktarvy Triumeq Dovato
55
Which ART class is associated with dyslipidemia, abnormal fat deposits and high blood sugar?
Protease inhibitors
56
How should efavirenz be administered to decrease CNS effects?
OES HS
57
Isentress
Generic: raltegravir Dosing: Isentress - BID Isentress HD - 2 tabs daily
58
Primary goals of ARTs
Suppress viral load Reduce the progression of HIV Prevent transmission of HIV Decrease the incidence of OIs
59
Atripla
TDF + emtricitabine + efavirenz
60
What is the minimum amount of time to wait after an HIV exposure before using OraQuick in-Home HIV test?
3 months
61
What drug(s) has a boxed warning of pancreatitis?
didanosine & stavudine
62
PrEP regimens
Truvada (emtricitabine + TDF) | Descovy (emtricitabine + TAF)
63
Single tablet drugs with the complete ART regimen
Complera Odesfey Stribild Atripla
64
What ART drug class causes SJS/TEN?
NNRTIs
65
What ART drug is administered via SC injection?
enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Class: Fusion Inhibitor - Stage 2
66
Caution use in patients with sulfa allergy
darunavir (Prezista)
67
Patient is on Complera. What is a safe recommendation for the treatment of acid reflux?
Tums *Complera contains rilpivirine, rilpivirine requires an acidic gut for drug absorption and should be avoided with PPIs.
68
Side effects of rilpivirine
CNS effects: depression, mood changes, insomnia and suicidal ideation