opposite Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
if a patient has a positive direct AHG test, the best way of removing the antibody from the cells is:
A
elution
2
Q
Panel #2 is the antibody showing dosage?
A
no?
3
Q
In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observes 2+ reactions with (3) three of the 10 cells in a panel at 37 degrees Celsius, These reactions appeared again at the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The auto control is negative. The antibody most likely would be:
A
Anti-I
4
Q
What would be the probable genotype of a person who phenotypes as A, Le(a-b-)?
A
lele, sese, HH,AA
5
Q
Panel #2: Which of the following antibodies could not be ruled out?
A
.
6
Q
Fresh Frozen Plasma that has been thawed and is being stored at -1.6 degrees celsius should be transfused within:
A
24 hours
7
Q
A patient developed an anti-Jka antibody 5 years ago. The antibody screen is currently negative. To obtain suitable blood for transfusion, which procedures apply?
A
Type the patient and donor units for the Jka antigen, and then crossmatch the Jka negative units with the patient serum
8
Q
What document provides the antigen phenotypes for each donor used in the manufacture of commercially supplied screening and panel cells?
A
Antigram
9
Q
What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion where there is no time to perform and ABO type on the patient?
A
O Rh negative, whole blood
10
Q
What is done to prevent HDFN caused by maternal anti-Jka antibody formation?
A
Monitor the mother’s antibody level
11
Q
Group O, Rh (D) negative blood cannot be transfused to a “Bombay” person because the red cells of the donor contain this antigen?
A
H antigen
12
Q
Anti-I is:
A
is a common alloantibody
13
Q
A 160-pound man was transfused with 1 unit of whole blood after having knee surgery, His hematocrit was determined to be 27% before transfusion. What would you expect his hematocrit to be in 48 hours?
A
30%
14
Q
A person with hh, AB genotype; would have which of the following phenotypes?
A
O
15
Q
The shelf life for random donor platelets (platelet concentrate) not pooled is:
A
5 days?
16
Q
A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be:
A
a heterozygote
17
Q
Which of the following represents an appropriate use of the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?
A
Investigation of hemolytic disease of the newborn
18
Q
A type and screen is done on a 49-year old woman who is scheduled for surgery in 1 week. Her blood is A pos and her antibody screen was positive. What must be done before her surgery date?
A
identify the antibody and phenotype the units of blood
19
Q
Which of the following mother/infant blood types would be considered at risk for ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A
Mother is group O; baby is group B
20
Q
The blood group system associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:
A
Rh
21
Q
Which of the following characteristics is associated with a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A
Positive DAT in the post reaction sample
22
Q
Given the following results, what is the probable cause of the positive reaction in the crossmatch?
(positive ahg phase)
A
Alloantibody in patient serum with antigen on donor cells
23
Q
A person in good health may donate blood
A
not more than every 8 weeks?
C
24
Q
Each of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cell phenotypes as shown below except:
A
R^0 r
25
Anti-P1 is usually found as a(n):
Naturally occuring antibody
26
Mixing patient serum and donor cells together and observing for agglutination is known as:
a major crossmatch
27
A patient receiving a transfusion of red cells developed red hives and itching. The transfusion was stopped and all post-transfusion test were negative. The patient was treated with Benadryl for all subsequent transfusions. What type of transfusion reaction did this patient have?
Anaphylactic
28
Which of the following is the mechanism that causes a positive DAT due to large doses of penicillin?
drug absorption mechanism
29
Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. Select the possible reason(s) the increment increase did not occur.
all of the above are correct
- the patient had a fever
- the patient was actively bleeding
- patient has leukocyte
30
What are the dangers of transfusing an RH-positive patient with RH-negative red blood cells?
A hemolytic transfusion reaction will occur
31
Clinically significant antibodies are not detected at:
immediate spin phase
32
Why is transfusion of whole blood not advised for patients with severe chronic anemia?
these patients have a reduced number of red blood cells
33
A patient comes to the emergency room bleeding into the knee joints. He tells the nurse he has hemophilia A. What is the competent of choice for this patient?
Factor VIII concentrate
34
A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion?
AB and B
35
How is an febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction best defined?
at 1 degrees celsius temperature rise associated with transfusion and inflammation of the colon
36
Which of the following antigens below best represents the definition of low-frequency antigens?
low-incidence antigens include: Cw, V, Kpa, Jsa.
high-incidence antigens are: anti-k, anti-Kpb, anti-Jsb, and anti-Lub.
37
Irradiated blood products are indicated in each of the following patients except:
.
38
A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?
immediate spin
39
what is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test?
To check that the wash procedure was adequate to remove unbound antibodies
40
Which of the following blood groups provides protection against the malaria parasite Plasmodium vivax?
duffy
41
Which of the following applies to the preparation of platelet concentrates?
light spin followed by a hard spin?
whole blood at low speed, serum at high speed
42
Which of the following antibodies is commonly associated with delayed extravascular hemolytic transfusion reactions?
anti-M?
43
A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The group is O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the start of the first transfusion, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring?
urticarial
44
What patient population needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells?
patients with a history of febrile transfusion reactions
45
A patient with a positive antibody screen and negative crossmatch would most likely indicate:
the patient has a positive antibody DAT that is interfering with the crossmatch
46
AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services requires that red cells selected for intrauterine transfusion should be:
irradiated?
47
The purpose of the AHG crossmatch is to:
assure compatibility of red cell units for transfusion
48
A prospective blood donor's medical history revealed he received the Hepatitis B vaccine 4 days ago. His physical exam is as follows:
Pulse=99 beats/min
Blood Pressure= 120/80
Temperature= 99.8
Hematocrit= 42%
This donor should be rejected because of the:
immunization
49
How could a potential alloimmunization due to anti-S be prevented?
matching of donor and recipient red blood cell phenotype
50
A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy?
low titer isoagglutinins (antibodies)
51
An in vitro phenomenon associated with a positive indirect antihuman globulin test is:
identification of alloantibody specificity using a panel of reagent (manufacturer) RBC's
52
What would be the result of group A RBCs given to a group AB recipient?
no reaction
53
An ABO antibody will cause a more severe hemolytic transfusion reaction in a patient who has received mismatched blood than an alloantibody will.
true
54
Cryoprecipitate is used to treat which condition?
von Williebrand's disease (vWD)
55
What ABO phenotype would agglutinate with anti-A,B produced by group O people?
A and B and AB
56
Anti-I:
reacts weakly or not at all with cord cells
57
Which of the following statements is true regarding igG-sensitized red cells?
they must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test
58
If antibody panel cells are treated with papain before using, which of the following antibodies would not be detected?
Enzymes enhance reactivity of the Rh, Kidd, Lewis, P, and I system antibodies and warm-reacting antibodies. Enzymes destroy M, N, S, Duffy and Xga antigens.
anti-fya
59
Panel #2: What is the antibody in the patient's serum?
.
60
Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test?
the test is only valid if the mother is d- and the infant is d+
61
What would be the results when red cells from an A2 person are tested with dilochos biflorus?
negative
62
Problems in a routine testing caused by cold reacting autoantibodies can usually be resolved by all of the following except:
testing clotted blood specimens
63
An crossmatch that is incompatible at immediate spin can be due to all of the following except:
ABO typing error
64
The Donath-Landsteiner antibodies are associated with which disease?
paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
65
All of the following statements are true regarding the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) except:
.
66
What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as as AB positive?
run a control with Rh test
67
Of the three mechanisms for expressing weak/altered D antigen, which is most likely to develop allo-anti-D?
partial d or d mosaic
68
After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded?
4+
69
The ABO typing results below best describe
Anti-A pos
Anti-H pos
A cells pos
B cells pos
A probable A2 person with anti-A1
70
Possible causes of an ABO discrepancy due to extra antibodies appearing in the reverse type include all of the following except:
rouleaux
71
A Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test identified 40 fetal red cells in 2000 maternal cells. The mother's blood volume is 5000 ml. How many doses of RhIG do you recommend?
4
72
Alloimmunization is categorized as what type of transfusion reaction?
delayed nonhemolytic
73
Which of the following is the mechanism that causes a positive DAT due to the drug Quinine?
.
74
Alloimmunization may result from which of the following?
.
75
A Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test can be used to determine the dose of RhIG in cases of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH). This test allows for the detection of:
anti-D?
76
The following blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 11th?
A 28 year old man who had plateletpheresis on august 24th
77
Which of the following terms corresponds to Rh1 in the Weiner nomenclature?
DCe
78
All of the following are common characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn except:
the mother is group A
79
Which of the following antibodies could not be ruled out (panel #2)?
Anti-E
80
Eight units of Random Donor platelets were pooled for transfusion. What is the new expiration of the pooled product?
4 hours
81
Where are donor red blood cells acquired from when performing a crossmatch?
Segments from the donor unit
82
what is the correct interpretation of the following ABO typing results?
a1 cells pos
b cells pos
group O
83
What type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn affects the first-born?
ABO
84
Why is it acceptable to transfuse an AB person with A-packed red blood cells but unacceptable to transfuse type A whole blood?
The ani-B in donor whole blood would sensitize recipient cells
85
Anti-I is usually the offending antibody in this type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA):
Warm AIHA
86
A male patient of average size has a hemoglobin count of 8.1 g/dl. The surgeon wants a hemoglobin count of 10 g/dl before doing surgery. How many units of RBC's need to be given before the surgeon will accept the patient into surgery?
2
87
what type of red cells can usually be infused to all patients
O
88
Alloantibodies can be identified by testing patient's plasma against panels of cells with known
antibodies
89
during the ahg phase of an antibody screen test, before adding AHG reagent to the test tubes, what should the red blood cells be washed with?
saline
90
Which of the following diseases relies on obtaining a thorough donor history to reduce potential transmission in blood donors?
Malaria
91
Anti-P1 is usually found as a(n):
immune antibody reacting at 37 degrees celsius ?
92
An individual who inherits Le, H, Se genes will produce
Leb substance?
93
Of the antibodies below, which does not fit with the others in terms of optimal temperature of reactivity:
Anti-C?
94
Which of the following is known as the "sensitization phase" in the antibody screen?
37 degrees celsius
95
Which of the following assays is used to calculate the amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage in a postpartum specimen?
Kleihauer-Betke test
96
Testing for the weak D expression is performed by:
performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D
antisera against patient red cells
97
What is an abbreviated crossmatch?
an immediate spin crossmatch
98
Which tests are performed to identify the cause of suspected hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
abo
d testing
direct antiglobulin test
all of the above?
99
Plasma, of some amount, can be found in which of the following products?
cryoprecipitate
100
When type O blood is not available for transfusion for a type O recipient, what is the next alternative
none
101
All of the following are true regarding formation of the ABH antigens except:
A type 2 structure refers to a beta 1-4 linkage
102
A positive direct antihuman globulin test indicates:
in vivo cell sensitization
103
All of the following statements are true regarding the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) except:
.
104
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a condition in which a person:
develops an antibody to one's own red cells
105
Of the three following categories of altered D antigen, in which variation of D antigen expression are you more likely to encounter an allo-anti-D?
D mosaic
106
What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain?
anti-IgG and anti-c3d
107
Which of the following terms corresponds to Rh1 in the weiner nomenclature?
CDe
108
Which of the following ABO donor-recipient pairings is most likely to show a compatible crossmatch? Note: the antibody screen revealed no unexpected antibodies in the patient's plasma.
Donor group O; Patient group B
109
Mixing patient serum and donor cells together and observing the agglutination is known as:
a major crossmatch
110
Which of the following could be a reason for a positive antibody screen but compatible crossmatch?
patient has an antibody directed against an antigen on a screen cell that is absent on the donor cell
111
A blood donor with a history of hepatitis B should be excluded:
permanently
112
Which of the following mother/infant blood types would be considered at risk for ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
Mother is group O; baby is group B
113
all of the following are characteristics of Duffy antibodies except?
they are stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy
114
Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?
the antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
115
which of the following facts is not a characteristic of kell system antibodies?
lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
116
when donor blood is received in the blood bank, what confirmatory testing is performed?
abo, rh and antibody screen
117
What substances would be the red cell phenotype of a person with the genotype Lele, HH, SeSe, AA:
A, Le(a-b-)
