Ops Flashcards
(390 cards)
1
Q
taxiway code a aircraft
A
wingspan: Up to but not including 15 m
Outer main gear wheel span: Up to but not including 4.5 m
2
Q
taxiway code b aircraft
A
wingspan: 15 m up to but not including 24 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 4.5 m up to but not including 6 m
3
Q
taxiway code c aircraft
A
wingspan: 24 m up to but not including 36 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 6 m up to but not including 9 m
4
Q
taxiway code D aircraft
A
wingspan: 36 m up to but not including 52 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 9 m up to but not including 14 m
5
Q
taxiway code e aircraft
A
wingspan: 52 m up to but not including 65 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 9 m up to but not including 14 m
6
Q
taxiway code F aircraft
A
wingspan: 65 m up to but not including 80 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 14 m up to but not including 16 m
7
Q
Stand 4 max width and length
Stand 4 largest types
A
Width 28.72m length 38.69m
Emb-195/ATR 72 largest type
8
Q
Stand 5, 6 and 7 max width and length
Stand 5, 6 and 7 largest types
A
Width 36m length 39.47m
Largest b737-max8/SW
9
Q
Stand 8 max width and length
Stand 8 largest types
A
Width 38m length 44.51m
Largest a321neo, b737-800sw, b737-max8
10
Q
how often are runway checks completed by aos vehicles?
A
During the periods of increased wildlife activity, being sunrise (45 minutes before and 15 minutes after sunrise) and dusk (15 minutes before and 45 minutes after sunset), runway inspection frequency will increase where possible. This will be to a maximum elapsed time of 20 minutes since the last movement. All other inspections will be carried out at intervals of not greater than two hours throughout the day, unless there are no aircraft movements.
11
Q
what is aaib
A
Air Accident Investigation Branch
12
Q
if an incident occurs over 1000m away who decides if rffs attends
A
it is the responsibility of ATC to decide whether to allow RFFS to attend an incident which has occurred beyond the 1000m attendance requirement.
13
Q
who reports incidents to aaib
A
it is the responsibility of ATC to inform the AAIB that an incident has occurred at the Airport (dependent upon the situation), and to later request permission from the AAIB to remove the disabled aircraft from the incident site.
14
Q
who reports incidents to the caa
A
the head of Fire and Airfield Operations (HFAO) is responsible for informing the CAA of any relevant incidents, for example
aircraft related incidents. In the event of the HFAO not being present, the IMC will
appoint an individual to undertake this task.
15
Q
where do you park a hijacked aircraft or bomb threat aircraft
A
at the west end of the Bravo taxiway, abeam the Foxtrot taxiway (nose facing west). Should this be unavailable then a dynamic assessment of the most appropriate stand to be used should be made in conjunction with ATC.
16
Q
where to park an aircraft during an aircraft accident. full emergency if needed?
A
remote stand such as the north edge or if 787 dreamliner or larger aircraft east or west apron until rffs say its safe)
17
Q
Cat 1 operation
A
A precision Instrument Approach and Landing with a Decisions Height not lower than 200 feet and with either a visibility not less than 800m, or runway visual range (IRVR) not less than 550m.
18
Q
Cat 11 operation
A
A precision Instrument Approach and landing with a Decision Height lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range not less than 300m.
19
Q
Cat111a operation
A
A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a Decision Height lower than 100ft, or with no decision height and a runway visual range not less than 175m.
20
Q
Manuovering area
A
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron
21
Q
Movement area
A
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and aprons.
22
Q
what does london flow control do?
A
allocate slot times for aircraft in UK airspace
23
Q
epm?
A
emergency planning manager
24
Q
what should RFFS’s response time be?
A
2 minutes but not more than 3 for the first appliance
25
what is the AOS responsible for during an emergency?
The AOS is responsible for the efficient management of the ESRVP and for the coordination of the escort provision to the incident site through the role of EMA Ops Liaison Officer.
26
what is the AODM responsible for during an emergency?
The AODM undertakes the role of Aerodrome Coordinator of Disabled Aircraft Removal Operations.
27
what are the rangers responsible for during and emergency?
The Airfield Security Rangers are responsible for providing escorts for the emergency services from the ESRVP to the incident site.
28
whats securitys responsibility during an emergency?
The main responsibility of Security during an aircraft incident is to assist the Police to set up and facilitate the SRC and to represent the Airport to the passengers and agencies within the area.
29
what is airfield engineering responsible for in an emergency?
In the event of an incident occurring on the runway or airfield, Airfield Engineering are
responsible for ensuring that the navaids and airfield lighting have not been damaged.
They will also provide advice where necessary on the safety implications of any damage which has been incurred.
b. Airfield Engineering will also provide the AAIB with voice and radar recordings and any other information as required.
30
what tactical level of management for the airport does the IMC act as?
The IMC acts as the Tactical (“Silver”) level of management for the Airport.
31
define initial and enhanced PDA
Initial – All cargo aircraft and all passenger aircraft of CAT 3 or below
Enhanced - All passenger aircraft of CAT 4 and above, and any military aircraft where
the persons on board may exceed 20 in number.
32
what will LFRS send for an initial PDA?
Initial
3 fire appliances
2 Officers – Command Support and Incident Command
1 Command Support Vehicle
33
What will LFRS send for an enhanced PDA?
Enhanced
6 fire appliances
4 Officers
1 Command Support Vehicle
34
what will EMAS send for an initial PDA?
Initial
Tactical Commander
HART team
NILO (deployed as appropriate)
35
what will EMAS send for an enhanced PDA?
Enhanced
Tactical Commander
HART team
On Call National Inter-Agency Liaison Officer (NILO)
Strategic Commander
Executive Director On Call
Communication Manager On Call
36
If an aircraft accident is confirmed by arriving Ambulance Incident Commander, what will they request?
The Ambulance Incident Commander will request the following
• DCA’s numbers on request as per SOP and POB.
• 2 further Tactical commanders
• NILO (if not already deployed)
• SORT
37
what will leicester police send for an initial or enhanced
leicestershire Police send the same PDA regardless whether it is an initial or enhanced incident. This will consist of 4 Officers and a Bronze Commander.
38
define aircraft accident
“An aircraft accident which has occurred on or in the aerodrome surroundings.”
39
define aircraft ground incident
Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services.”
40
define aircraft full emergency
An aircraft approaching the aerodrome is, or is suspected to be, in such trouble that there is imminent danger of an accident.”
41
define local standby
“An aircraft approaching the aerodrome is known, or is suspected to have developed, some defect but trouble is no such as would normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a
safe landing.”
42
define local standby weather
“When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe.”
43
define domestic incident
“The classification ‘domestic’ is given to any incident:
▪ On the aerodrome (not including aircraft emergencies)
▪ Outside the aerodrome boundary (other than aircraft incidents) which is liable to
constitute a danger to flying or aerodrome property
▪ Which the aerodrome rescue and firefighting service might attend where the response
is according to an agreement with the local emergency services
▪ Which is in response to calls from the public or the police on humanitarian grounds”
44
define aircraft accident location unknown
When an accident has occurred or is considered imminent but the location is unknown.
Once the aircraft’s location has been established, the incident will be upgraded to an aircraft accident.
45
define local standby royal flight
“When a royal flight is landing or taking off
46
define aircraft accident in more detail
a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of:
▪ being in the aircraft, or
▪ direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become
detached from the aircraft, or
▪ direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes, selfinflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding
outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew;
b. the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which:
▪ adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of
the aircraft, and
▪ would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component
▪ except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its
cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas,
tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
c. the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.
47
where should an aircraft be parked in the event of it being hijacked?
In the event of a hijacked aircraft arriving at EMA it is to be parked, if possible, at the west end of the Bravo taxiway, abeam the Foxtrot taxiway (nose facing west). Should this be unavailable then a dynamic assessment of the most appropriate stand to be used will be made.
48
what building is used for the temporary body holding area?
UPS (UK) Building 68, Winter Storage Shed used to be the temp body holding area however we no longer have one on site
49
who opens the crash gates for RFFS to respond to off aerodrome incidents?
If informed that RFFS have responded to an off-aerodrome incident through one of the
onsite crash gates, Airfield Ops will initially send the Ranger to guard this gate (or secure it if relevant). A member of security staff will then be taken to the crash gate to release the Ranger to assist at the ESRVP.
b. If informed that passengers will be brought to the onsite SRC via a crash gate from the 1000m response area, send a member of staff to open and monitor the crash gate and then secure it when no longer required.
50
where is esrvp1 located?
outside the fire station
51
what call sign will the AOS give in an emergency that requires the ESRVP?
the AOS will set up the ESRVP and then call up as rendezvous point and advise the ESRVP is set up
52
where is ESRVP2 located?
west 1 gate house
53
what 2 situations would ESRVP2 be used over ESRVP1
the proximity of the incident to the Fire Station, ESRVP2 will be used. e.g. incident on the west apron
If ESRVP1 is out of action ESRVP2 will be used
54
who do you contact if the SRC is activated or if there are causalities going to hospital/fatalities
If an SRC has been activated, or if there are potentially any fatalities or casualties who will be going to hospital, inform the UK BF duty manager
55
after an accident who can reopen the airport
The AAIB will give the Airport permission to reopen. The Airport will only be reopened after permission has been given by the IMC. This information should then be disseminated by the ADM (with the support by the Control Room) to all relevant departments.
56
if an IMC is activated what action does the control room take
If the IMC is to be activated, the Control
Room puts out an ad hoc notification using CIM.
57
If informed that ESRVP 1 is compromised what should you do in an emergency?
If informed that ESRVP 1 is compromised by the OIC, inform the following persons –
other CROs, AOS, ATC, Leicestershire Police and HFAO. Inform DHL and other relevant
parties that the West 1 gatehouse has been taken out of operation.
58
what should you do when you see an aircraft incident not atc
Operate the crash alarm and open the direct line to ATC to inform them of the details
59
what should you do in the event of a press enquiry from news reporters
Telephone enquiries from the media only must be referred to the Press Office when it is operational on extension 2988. Prior to the establishment of the physical Press Office, all media calls only should be transferred to the on-call Press Office mobile (07901 911266).
It is company policy not to discuss any incident with members of the general public or any other companies/agencies. Reference may be made to the official EMA press statement which will be available on the Airport website
60
who do you contact when an Welfare Reception Centre is needed
STM - Security position should do this when requested by Ops position or ADM
61
off aerodrome incident procedure - security position
If the EMA onsite ESRVP is not activated and you are notified that RFFS have responded to an off-aerodrome incident through one of the onsite crash gates, inform the Ranger Vehicles.
If the EMA onsite ESRVP is not activated and you are notified that passengers will be brought to the onsite SRC via a crash gate from the 1000m response area, inform the Ranger Vehicles.
62
what will passenger services do when informed by ops controller of an aircraft accident
theyll mobilise at least 2 members of staff in a vehicle to the ESRVP then report to the EMA Ops Liaison Officer in the ESRVP and await further instructions.
If required, theyll attend the incident site (under escort) and secure the passengers in an area assessed to be safe by RFFS.
Once coaches have arrived at the scene, in cooperation with the emergency services guide passengers who are going to the SRC onto the coaches.
If required by the RFFS Incident Commander, assist with the removal of PRMs from the aircraft using the ambulift.
63
where is the family and friends reception centre located
east lounge
64
what does RFFS do when informed of a weather or royal local standby
Upon receipt of the PA announcement or telephone call from the Operations (Fire) Control position, a minimum of one appliance is to be put on standby at the Fire Station for Royal flights only.
For weather standbys RFFS will maintain a heightened state of alert at the Fire Station.
65
how many appliances attend a hijack?
a minimum of one RFFS appliance and crew
standby at a position predetermined by ATC and the Police
66
how many appliances attend an aircraft accident/accident imminent?
all crews get tipped out by the crash alarm
67
how many appliances attend aircraft bomb threat?
Unless directed otherwise, the appliances should park outside the RFFS fire bays.
Further action will be dependent on the individual circumstances. However, if the aircraft is to be evacuated by emergency means RFFS will, at the discretion of the RFFS Officer in Charge and only following instruction from the Police and LFRS, assist the passengers in their disembarkation and removal from the area.
Sufficient RFFS vehicles and personnel should be maintained at an optimum safe distance around 300 metres from the aircraft (or at the distance specified by the Police) in case an explosive device detonates on board the aircraft and to enable any resulting fire to be extinguished.
68
RFFS response time for incidents within 1000m?
EMA RFFS are required to respond to an incident within 1000m of the 09 and 27 thresholds.
There is no specific time period stated, but it must be assumed that the response is made as safely and quickly as reasonably practicable.
69
define wrc
welfare reception centre
70
define src
survivors reception centre
71
what gate provides access the the SRC
gate 19 manned by security
72
who sets up the SRC?
security
73
where is the SRC located?
the pier
74
how many appliances does RFFS send to a domestic incident
1
75
terminal sector 1
Immigration Hall
76
terminal sector 2
baggage Reclaim
77
terminal sector 3a
Meet and Greet (arrivals)
78
terminal sector 3b
Car Park main office
79
terminal sector 4a
World Duty Free and WH Smiths (Decompression Area)
80
terminal sector 4b
Dwell Area and retail
81
terminal sector 4c
IDL from Gates 8 -17 and Escape Lounge
82
terminal sector 4d
Ops Control tower and Engineering
83
terminal sector 4e
1st floor all
84
terminal sector 4f
Domestic Lounge Gate 1 - 5
85
terminal sector 5a
Check in Hall, Ryanair check in hall and upstairs offices
86
terminal sector 5b
– Central Search and queuing area
87
terminal sector 6a
baggage dock
88
terminal sector 6b
tower base building
89
terminal sector 6c
tower upper
90
terminal sector 7a
link pier
91
terminal sector 7b
west pier
92
where are the two terminal protec panels located
▪ Central Search - Rear of Podium
▪ Check in hall - Rear of staff channel search area
93
where are the evacuation points for fires
The main fire assembly points for the terminal building include:
▪ VIP staff car park
▪ Transport interchange area
▪ Central Apron Head of Stand Roadway
▪ Base of ATC Tower
▪ Central west apron north and south
Any staff evacuating airside from sector 6A (outbound baggage dock) will assemble to the west of the baggage dock towards the potable water point. The fire assembly point will be the VIP staff car park as evacuations from this sector will involve staff only.
94
who is the Fire Assembly Point Coordinators (FAPC) for airside
security
95
who is the Fire Assembly Point Coordinators (FAPC) for landside
The FAPC for landside evacuation will also be co coordinated by Security staff, but assistance with evacuation from these sectors will also be given from Car Parks and Passenger Services staff. A member of the security staff will also be stationed at the Fire Assembly point with the FAPC.
96
what are the 7 assistance point areas labeled a-g for emergency phones where passengers may call from when stuck
Main Departure Lounge East Assistance Point ‘A’
Main Departure Lounge West Assistance Point ‘B’
Tower to Link Bridge East Assistance Point ‘C’
Link Bridge Central Assistance Point ‘D’
Tower to Link Bridge West Assistance Point ‘E’
Pier South Assistance Point ‘F’ (Ground Floor)
Pier North Assistance Point ‘G’ (Ground Floor
97
for confirmed fires only (AFA) what should you additionally do?
For confirmed fires only, inform the HFAO and the FSM.
Ring LFRS to also attend
98
what does the STM do in an AFA
Upon receipt of the AFA the SOL will coordinate the evacuation of the terminal by dispatching a team of Security Staff to the affected sector to evacuate all common
areas.
99
who do you ring to evacuate the terminal in an AFA
ADM and STM
100
what radio is channel 4
RFFS
101
what radio is channel 1
Ground
102
what radio is channel 5
apron (ops and rangers)
103
how many appliances does RFFS send to an AFA - single detector activation?
Upon activation of a single smoke detector one Fire Appliance will be mobilised to the
affecting Sector to investigate the cause of the alarm.
104
how many appliances will RFFS send in a confirmed fire?
all three appliances, ATC must be informed fire cat 0 and this will close the airfield to inbound and outbound traffic
105
other than a confirmed fire, what situations would RFFS send 3 appliances?
All three appliances will be mobilised to the incident when deemed necessary by the RFFS Incident Commander upon the result of a dynamic risk assessment for additional personnel/media, or for multiple Terminal Sector evacuations.
106
in what situation would 2 appliances be sent to an AFA?
single smoke detector activation, one appliance will attend. if any disabled or infirmed passengers need assistance evacuating/trapped a second appliance will attend to assist them in liasion with the OIC of the first appliance
107
in what situation would a BA crew be needed
A BA crew should only be committed if it is evident that persons are at risk/trapped and in need of rescue, and are within a short distance of the entry point. If no life risk is involved, BA crews should only be committed if dangerous escalation of the incident can be prevented by immediate and limited action.
108
BA crew committed - ops fire control procedure
In the event of a BA crew being committed all three appliances will respond to the terminal.
c. ATC must be informed that RFFS have become committed and we are fire cat 0.
d. pass on any informative messages to the RFFS Officer in Charge and the LFRS control room.
109
procedure for a disabled or infirmed passenger trapped at one of the emergency points in the terminal from a first floor area- ops fire control
when informed by 3333 or by the push button call point within the IDL of the location from the security and info position, RT RFFS n giving the evacuation point location and number of persons requiring assistance. who will attend to assist the passenger in the second fire appliance
110
what are the emergency call points designated to in the terminal?
The call points are designated to evacuation points A and B, whilst the direct dial emergency phones are located at evacuation points C – G and may be used by a member of staff or passenger.
111
procedure for a disabled or infirmed passenger trapped at one of the emergency points in the terminal from a first floor location - security and info control
when informed by 3333 or by the push button call point within the IDL of the location from the security and info position
let the fire ops controller know and give them the evacuation point location and number of people needing assistance
112
what happens if sector 5a goes into evacuation
If Sector 5A goes into evacuation then Passenger Services will clear the public area of passengers and direct them to the nearest available fire exit and onto the fire assembly point. One member of Passenger Services will sweep adjacent prayer room if safe to do so.
113
what happens if sector 4c goes into evacuation
If Sector 4C goes into evacuation then Escape Lounge Staff will clear the following:
a. Gates 14 – 18, coordinating the evacuation of the IDL from these gates, over to head of stand road fire assembly point No.2 assisted by Swissport staff if gates in use.
b. One member of Escape Lounge staff will clear adjacent toilets, and one member of staff will clear the adjacent smoking shelter if safe to do so.
114
when can the terminal/building be re-entered after an AFA
The RFFS Incident Commander must declare the area to be safe following liaison with all relevant parties. No-one must enter the building/sector until this declaration has been made.
115
what is the procedure for an AFA at DHL?
local alarm and tannoy
116
what is the procedure for an AFA for landside buildings for white watch?
Ring Station Manager to assess whether they will take action or pass it to LFRS
117
what is the procedure for an AFA for landside buildings for other watches?
local alarm and tannoy
118
where do the LFRS appliances go when sent to an AFA at DHL
LFRS will mobilise three appliances, two of which will respond directly to the West Cargo entrance of the Airport site and liaise with Airport Security. The third appliance will proceed directly to the ESRVP and will be escorted down the Alpha taxiway to the DHL building.
119
what is the full procedure for an AFA at a landside building
In the event of an AFA activation in another airside building or landside premises, the RFFS Officer in Charge will make an assessment whether the RFFS are able to attend based on flight movements and duties.
5.2 one appliance will deploy to investigate the alarm. In the event of a confirmed fire this will be increased to two appliances.
5.3 If RFFS attend the AFA and advise that it is a confirmed fire, the Operations (Fire) Control position will request that LFRS attend via the Emergency Line and provide details of the location and incident.
120
how many appliances attend a landside building AFA for an unconfirmed fire and a confirmed fire?
one appliance will deploy to investigate the alarm. In the event of a confirmed fire this will be increased to two appliances.
121
what alarm is an AFA
local alarm and tannoy
122
what alarm is a fuel/hazardous spill
local alarm and tannoy
123
what is a port health incident
where a member of the crew of an
aircraft becomes aware, or suspects, that a person on board is suffering from an infectious disease, they must notify the commander of the aircraft, who is in turn required to notify the airline/handling agent.
124
what is a wrc
welfare reception centre
125
what is an src
survivors reception centre
126
what stand should you park an aircraft with more than 50 evacuees?
For incoming flights with more than fifty evacuees on board, evacuees will be taken directly from the aircraft to the West Pier. They will be processed and registered in this area which will be set up as a WRC before being taken for further assistance to an LRF approved venue
stands 30-33 or 40-45
127
what stand should you park an aircraft with less than 50 evacuees?
For flights with less than fifty evacuees on board, an assessment will be made and an area identified for booking in the evacuees dependent on the individual circumstances of the flight. Arrangements for evacuees once they leave the Airport site will be made by the Local Authorities.
128
evacuee flight procedure
1. if more than 50 evacuees, allocate pier stand. If less than 50 evacuees any stand
2. inform UKBF & (inform to head to the west pier if more than 50)
3. if required call EMAS/first aider if any evacuees are injured or ill
129
where are the terminal first aid rooms located
There are two first aid rooms within the terminal building – one adjacent in the arrivals area (landside), and one on the first floor of the departure lounge.
130
where are the airport defib locations?
Terminal Locations
a. Check in hall 1 (Ryanair tent)
b. Check in hall 2 (Staff channel)
c. Central search area
d. Gate 8
e. Castle Rock
f. Opposite Gate 14
g. (Evac Point C) Top of Pier Escalator
h. (Evac Point F) Pier Opposite Gate 18
i. Gate 1
j. Baggage Reclaim Hall
k. Immigration Hall
l. Arrivals Meet & Greet next to First Aid Room
Non-Terminal Locations
m. RFFS
n. RFFS
o. RFFS
p. MT Section
q. Control Room B113
r. Duty First Aider Trauma Bag
131
what category medical supplies are held on rescue 7
Medical supplies for up to category 9 are held by RFFS on Rescue 7
132
what appliance holds additional medical supplies
rescue 7
133
where are the emergency dressings packs located
the packs are located within the landside first aid room and on Rescue 7.
The packs are large green bags with a small plastic padlock on. This padlock will need to be broken to open the pack.
134
what are the emergency dressings packs and when can they be used
Emergency Dressings Packs have been provided to EMA by the NHS Ambulance Service to assist with the aftermath of a major incident which results in mass casualties within the terminal building. These packs are not to be used for general first aid calls or
aircraft incidents. The purpose of these packs is to hand out dressings to casualties in the interim time before they can be seen by the ambulance service.
135
who can give permission to use the emergency dressings packs
Permission to use these packs in an emergency can only be given by the ADM, IMC or EMAS.
136
what should you request a caller do when informed of a disruptive passenger?
scan their qr code in the disruptive passenger app
137
what does the control room do when RFFS cant respond to a separate first aid call during an a/c incident
If a request for first aid assistance is made during an aircraft related incident which requires the full attendance of RFFS, an appliance will not be mobilised to assist with the first aid call.
The RFFS Officer in Charge must ensure that the Control Room is made aware that they are unable to respond, who will then inform the ADM.
138
what are the three types of disabled aircraft removal
aircraft debogging
aircraft recovery
aircraft salvage
139
what is aircraft debogging
The removal of an aircraft from a runway or taxiway where the aircraft has become bogged down but has relatively little or no damage is considered a
“debogg”.
140
what is aircraft recovery
Any aircraft that is unable to move under its own power or through the normal use of an appropriate tow tractor and tow bar will be considered an “aircraft
recovery”. the aircraft has sustained damage
. Examples are:
- one or more landing gear off the hard surface of a runway, taxiway or apron;
- aircraft bogged down in mud or snow;
- one or more landing gear collapsed or damaged;
- an aircraft that is considered to be economically repairable.
141
what is aircraft salvage
An accident or incident in which the aircraft sustains substantial
damage and the insurer considers the hull a constructive loss will be considered “aircraft
salvage”.
142
who authorises the release of a disabled aircraft
The AAIB are responsible for authorising the release of the disabled aircraft
143
who is the Aerodrome Coordinator for disabled aircraft removal operations
aos
144
aircraft recovery procedures - ops controller procedure
mostly done by the aos not much involvement from the control room
3.3.1 Ensure that the ADM is updated on progress as relevant.
3.3.2 Liaise with ATC regarding any continued operations
3.3.3 Contact operators or handling agents as required by the AOS.
3.3.4 Advise the Aerodrome Coordinator of stand availability for the aircraft.
advise station manager so that RFFS can standby to assist with removal if required
145
after an aircraft is debogged what should RFFS do
Wash the wheels and undercarriage once the aircraft is back on hard standing to ensure that surfaces are not contaminated when the aircraft moves back to the apron.
146
difference between aircraft debog and aircraft recovery
debog has no damage to its landing gears, aircraft recovery has damage to its landing gears
147
procedure for aircraft debogging
-atc informs AAib, if they ask the aircraft not to be moved ATC will inform the AOS
-Once the aircraft has been moved onto the nearest hard surface it may be necessary to
wash down the aircraft prior to moving it further to prevent contamination of the runway or
taxiway by mud or other substances. The RFFS Incident Commander will ensure that this is
carried out.
148
in a confirmed fire involving an aircraft e.g. an apu connected to an aircraft what alarm do you press
crash alarm as it requires the full turnout of the RFFS and it could lead to an explosion
149
in what instances would you activate the crash alarm
aircraft incidents or anything that requires the full attendance of the RFFS e.g. confirmed fire
150
what is the procedure for a live incident test on CIM
if a test is required using one of the live incident types the following procedures must be followed:
a. Approval to use a live incident type for a test must be granted by the CM-RR, or the HCBR in their absence.
b. The ADM will contact the CM-RR at least 30 minutes prior to the test commencing. If the CM-RR is requesting the test they should contact the ADM at least 30 minutes in advance.
c. The ADM will be responsible for briefing the Control Room and arranging the test.
d. An SMS message should be sent via the ad hoc messaging function to all persons who will receive the notifications in advance of the test commencing informing them that this will be a system test only. This should be sent at least 15 minutes in advance by the Control Room.
e. The Control Room should inform the AOS, RFFS Station Manager and ATC Watch
Supervisor at least 15 minutes prior to the test commencing.
151
during a crash alarm The EMA Ops Liaison Officer role will be fulfilled by?
AOS
152
who acts as the FCP during a crash alarm?
The FCP will be the LFRS Command Vehicle, In the event that LFRS (or the Command Vehicle) are not present, or if LFRS have been stood down, then an RFFS vehicle will identified to fulfil this function.
153
what is the EMA ops liason officer responsible for
The EMA Ops Liaison Officer will be responsible for the management of the ESRVP
154
Ilyushin Il-76
what apron/ who operates it and what is the wingspan
west apron DHL special handling
wingspan: 50.5m
155
Boeing C-17 Globemaster III
what apron/ who operates it and what is the wingspan
military, aviation solutions west apron
51.75m wingpsan
156
AN-124
what apron/who operates it and what is the wingspan
DHL special handling west apron
73.3m wingspan
157
what is the FCP?
forward command point
The FCP is the point which coordinates the multi-agency response at the incident site and requests further resources as and when required. The FCP will also be the point where all messages are agreed and disseminated from.
2.2 The FCP will usually be the LFRS Command Support Vehicle. If LFRS, or this vehicle itself, are not mobilised or are stood down then an RFFS vehicle will be identified to fulfil this function.
The FCP will be identifiable as it will be the only vehicle at the incident site with blue lights illuminated as per the JESIP protocols.
158
who can declare a major incident
- EMA departments cannot declare a major incident. This will be done by one of the
arriving emergency services.
159
what is the procedure for on stand/apron evacuation?
The procedure for passenger evacuation on stand/aprons will be for the RFFS Incident
Commander to pass an ‘informative’ message to the Operations (Fire) Control position via RT advising “passengers evacuating”. These self-evacuating passengers will be directed by RFFS/Ground Handling staff to the nearest ‘fire’ or ‘assembly/emergency’ point(s).
b. Operations (Fire) Control position will request coaches from the handling agent and instruct them to go directly to the designated assembly point(s).
c. Passengers will then be transported to the SRC in the West Pier.
160
what is the procedure for manouvering area evacuation?
Manoeuvring area evacuation procedures will commence as per ‘on stand/apron’
procedures. Self-evacuating passengers in the initial stages of an aircraft incident will
be directed to an area of safety as designated by the RFFS Incident Commander using a
dynamic risk assessment, until the arrival of the passenger evacuation management
team
b. As per the ‘on stand/apron’ procedures, passenger coaches will go to the ESRVP and
then be escorted by the Airfield Security Rangers to the incident site. Passengers will
then be transported to the SRC in the West Pier.
c. If ESRVP2 is in operation, then a designated meeting point will be allocated by the
Operations (Fire) Control position who will then inform the Handling Agent
161
what does passenger services do in an aircraft accident?
ops control will let them know what has happened they will then head over to the incident and secure the passengers into an area assessed to be safe by RFFS to await the arrival of the passenger coaches organised by the handling agent.
162
in and aircraft accident emergency what happens to the crew
they will be taken into the SRC by ambulance to be assessed An area will then be identified to take the air crew to dependent on the location of the incident. This will usually be a Crew Room or Airline Office. The crew must not be taken away from the site without prior agreement with the Police as they may need to be interviewed and breathalised.
163
what happens when one of the runway/airport hydrants is not serviceable?
should any of the hydrant systems require a number of repairs, or closing down completely, for contractual maintenance the RFFS must be informed. RFFS will then provide an additional water carrier if available. Where there is no availability for this, LFRS will be informed.
tell them you are east midlands fire control and that one of the pumps is off the run and we will ring them to let them know when it is back on the run. advise if we have an extra water carrier or if we dont
164
where is a6 located
Alpha 6 (A6) intermediate holding point is located in-between November and Quebec on the Alpha taxiway.
165
what is the urgent atc evacuation (not procedure but what do they mean by urgent evacuation)
Procedure – Urgent Evacuation
2.1 ATC will break off any aircraft on final approach outside 2nms. Traffic inside 2nms will be allowed to land and, unless the controlling staff are in imminent danger, tower will not evacuate until the landing traffic has touched down. Following landing, ATC will instruct the aircraft to hold position and shut down. Any traffic pushing back or taxiing will also be instructed to hold position and shut down.
2.2 ATC will advise the CCR using the red phone that ATC is evacuating. ATC will also call Ops 1 on RT and hand over control of the airfield to airfield ops.
166
what is the none urgent atc evacuation (not procedure but what do they mean by none urgent evacuation)
In the event of a non-urgent evacuation, ATC will aim to leave the control tower within 20 minutes. ATC may continue to allow traffic to land and depart at the discretion of the tower controller, however, steps will be taken to ensure that all traffic has left the frequency within the 20 minute period.
3.2 In the case of a non-urgent evacuation, the assistant will call to advise that ATC is evacuating once all traffic has left the frequency. Again, a call will be made on RT to Ops 1 handing the airfield over and the managed closure procedure will be followed.
167
difference between urgent and non urgent atc evacuation?
urgent - cr notified by red phone by atc, atc immediately evacuate after a/c within 2nm land
not urgent - notified by normal phone by atc assistant, evacuation within 20 minutes of call & atc tower controller has discretion to continue landings and take offs if they want to within that 20 mins but not after
168
if esrvp2 is in use who do you inform?
leicester police, hfao and then inform DHL west 1 has been taken out of operation
169
what is the definition of a BA emergency
there are already BA Wearers within a risk area and they themselves have become impacted by something; the work they are doing, a failure of equipment, suffered an injury which individually or together sees them in a position whereby they themselves cannot evacuate the risk area effectively. The term BA EMRGENCY is used to reference an immediate requirement to increase staffing and Breathing apparatus wearers at the incident to now save the lives of the fire crews affected.
from jez paget
170
what do you do when a BA emergency is declared?
ring LFRS to advise
171
what should you do when receiving a stop message to pass onto LFRS?
STOP message- when received, this will turn around all local authority resources not already in attendance at the RVP. This can be given through the AOS (Liaison officer at the RVP), via the orange local authority radios or through fire control and will stop all oncoming resources. You may want to clarify the resources at the RVP prior to passing a STOP message if you think you may still require further assistance.
Obviously due to their proximity Castle Donington may already be on site in the event of a STOP message being passed early on in the incident, if you already know you do not require any further resources consider asking the control room to inform Central 1 gatehouse they are no longer required, before they travel airside.
STAND DOWN message- Local authority do not use this term and only work to the STOP message. Please make every effort to communicate with the local authority OIC, via their orange RVP radio on channel 4, as early as possible during the incident to update them as necessary. If you STAND DOWN the incident then again make contact with the local authority OIC to advise them they are not required and can leave the RVP. This will also serve to clear the fire station of vehicles and personnel prior to your return.
172
define prealarm
Phase 1 is the pre-alert stage.
This is where a single smoke detector head detects something in sufficient quantities to be of concern, if this is fleeting and the substance (perfume, vaping, smoke) disappears the head will re-set and not activate.
173
define afa
Phase 2 is the alert stage.
This is where a single smoke detector head has picked up smoke which does not dissipate quickly and it goes into alert mode. The Control room is notified and the RFFS informed who will investigate.
You should be prepared to evacuate if this goes into evacuation mode.
174
define afa - phase 3
Phase 3 is where 2 smoke detector heads, or a single heat detector head, or an air sampling unit, or a fire alarm call point is activated.
This will put the sector into evacuation mode and adjacent sectors into alert mode (red flashing lights in the centre of detector heads only)
In the sector in full evacuation mode the fire doors (if magnetically locked) will unlock or move to a position that speeds up evacuation, the fire alarm will sound, the voice message will sound, red lights will flash in the ceiling and some fire curtains will drop depending upon their location.
You can safely evacuate into an adjacent sector and remain there on alert (red lights flashing in centre of detector heads) until either the area is declared safe by the fire service or this sector is also put into evacuation, when the process repeats.
Under normal circumstances the terminal will not be evacuated in entirety.
175
what does OPHT mean on protec panel
smoke detector activated
176
what does HEAT mean on protec panel
heat detector activated
177
what does BG mean on protec panel
alarm activated via break glass
178
define manoeuvring area on the airfield
The Part of an Aerodrome provided for the takeoff and landing of Aircraft and for the movement of aircraft on the surface, excluding the apron and any part of the aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft.
179
define apron
A defined area on a land aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers, the loading and unloading of cargo, and for parking.
180
define holding point on the airfield
– points on taxiways that you should not cross without ATC permission
181
define stop bars on the airfield
A row of red lights at a holding point or elsewhere on the taxiway system. When illuminated these become points that you should not cross without ATC permission
182
define cleared and graded area (airfield)
The part of a Runway Strip cleared of all obstacles except for minor specified items, intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft running off the runway.
183
define runway strip
– An area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft running off the runway and to protect aircraft flying over it when taking off or landing.
184
define ils critical area
– An area of defined dimensions extending about the ground antennae of precision instrument approach equipment within which the presence of vehicles or aircraft will cause unacceptable disturbance of the guidance signals
185
are aprons part of the manoeuvring area?
no
186
where does the manoeuvring area permit allow you to drive
The Manoeuvring Area Permit will allow you to operate on the perimeter track, taxiways, runway and grassed areas north of the aprons.
187
where does the AOA airside driving permit allow you to drive
Your AOA Airside Driving Permit allows you to operate on the aprons and associated roadways and in the Maintenance Area only.
(east, central and west aprons and the maintenance areas only)
188
how do you reports lighting faults on the airfield
All faults and/or unserviceabilities found will be reported to AGL via ATC or Airfield
Operations Supervisor. If faults or unserviceabilities are initially passed on verbally
they should be immediately followed up by a written or email report.
. If the unserviceability causes any part of the runway, movement area or apron(s) to
be unsafe for operations, the Airfield Operations Supervisor will close or restrict
access to the affected area, until the unserviceability is rectified.
189
what is an OAN and what is it for
. Notification of major repair works will be promulgated via Operational Advice Notice
(OAN)
190
what is the procedure when a door activation goes off in the maintenence area
• Ranger 1 will attend and investigate the alarm activation.
• Report their findings back to the control room
• If a door is found to be insecure then an attempt should be made to secure it and report back once secure. If it is not possible to secure the door then Ranger 4 is to remain in that location until further resource can be sent.
• In the event ranger 1 attends an alarm activation and it appears there has been forced entry then the control room should be immediately notified, and police assistance is to be requested.
In this event, ranger 1 is not to enter the building and remain at a safe distance and wait for the police to attend
191
what times does runway inspection for AOS's increase
During the periods of increased wildlife activity, being sunrise (45 minutes before
and 15 minutes after sunrise) and dusk (15 minutes before and 45 minutes after
sunset)
192
what 3 categories do AOS's label faults
• Monitor (no operational effect but potential to develop)
• Continue to Operate (non-urgent repair required, continue to operate)
• Immediate Closure (urgent repair required
193
who should be notified in the event of a fault being categorised by the AOS as a closure
Head of Fire & Airfield Operations should be notified in the event of a fault being
categorised as an ‘Immediate closure – Urgent repair required’
194
Time check(for this incident) rffs means?
Say what time it is right now
195
what do the movement area checks focus on for ops and how often are they carried out
Inspections of the movement area primarily focusing on the presence of FOD, the status of visual aids, wildlife and current surface conditions, are carried out at least once every 4 hours.
196
in what situations will ops carry out extra movement area inspections
During excessive weather events (excessive heat, freeze and thaw periods, following a significant storm, etc.) extra inspections of paved areas will be conducted to check for pavement failures and debris that could damage aircraft, or cause pilots to lose directional control.
197
what format are ops surface conditions recorded in
Runway inspections will report the surface condition using the Global Reporting Format (GRF).
198
In snow conditions what depth can the contaminated runway operate at?
13 millimetres according to the winter runway assessment procedure
199
How long (distance) do large jets such as 747s and a380s need to take off
Approx 10,000 ft or 3, 300 metres
200
What number would a runway facing west be
27
201
What number would a runway facing east be
09
202
What are the 4 main runway layouts
Single runway - engineers will orient the runway so aircraft can take advantage of prevailing winds
Parallel runways
Open v runways two runways that converge but don't intersect
Intersecting runways
203
Define the lights on runways and taxiways :
Blue
Green and white
Green and red
White or Amber
Blue lights differentiate taxiways from runways
Green and white flashing beacons indicate a civilian airport to landing aircraft
Green lights Mark the beginning of the runway whilst red lights mark the end.
White or Amber lights define the edges of the runway
204
what does icao stand for
inernational civil aviation organisation
205
who are responsible for when the beams on the airfield break? (mike, jcb, kilo)
P&G, it needs logging via magIT not maximo
206
icao classification code c aircraft
name 6 aircraft types
737, a318, a319, a320, a321, q400
207
icao classification code d aircraft
name 4 aircraft types
757, 767, a300, a310
208
icao classification code e aircraft
name 6 aircraft types
744, 777, 787, a330, a340, a350
209
icao classification code f aircraft
name 2 aircraft types
748, a380
210
what are the two types of runways (approach)
non instrumental and instrumental
Visual Runways (non instrumental) and Nonprecision Instrument Runways, and Precision Instrument Runways (instrumental)
211
what is a visual runway
A visual approach is an approach to a runway conducted under IFR but where the pilot proceeds by visual reference when cleared to do so. This means that the pilot must be visual before the Controller can clear the aircraft for the visual approach.
the pilot is navigating the aircraft based on visual cues and has full control of the aircraft with autopilot disengaged
212
what is a nonprecision instrument runway
213
what is a precision instrument runway
ema does not have a precision approach runway
214
what are runway shoulders and what type does ema have?
runway 09/27 has paved shoulders at 7m wide
215
what is a runway strip and how long is ema's?
ema has a runway strip that is 300m wide
216
what is a runway graded area?
217
what is a runway end safety area?
an area a the end of a runway intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overshooting the runway and extends for a minimum of 90m
218
what is a runway blast pad?
found at the end of each of the runways designed to prevent erosion caused by aircraft running their engines up to full power just before they start their take off run. theyre marked by yellow chevrons
219
where is the touchdown zone on a runway
between 300m-500m along the runway but to allow for variations the first 900m is marked by paint and supplemented with lights
220
what is a taxiway
it links the aprons with the runway designed for the taxing of aircraft before takeoff or after landing
221
what is a rapid exit taxiway?
a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aircraft to turn off at higher speeds than other taxiways minimising runway occupancy times
222
what are fillets
taxiways are widened at junctions or bends to allow for aircraft to manoeuvre as it follows the curve, these are known as fillets
223
what nose distance should a code a-c aircraft be parked on stand
7.5m from the nose to the head of stand road, building, equipment area or other obstacle directly in front of the aircraft
224
what nose distance should a code d-f aircraft be parked on stando
12m from the nose to the head of stand road, building, equipment area or other obstacle directly in front of the aircraft to allow for manoeuvring of larger tugs, dependent to an extent on the nose to nose gear dimensions
225
what are the minimum clearance distances for an aircraft on stand and any other object or building
code a and b - 3m
code c - 4.5m
code d, e and f - 7.5m
226
what is a notam
notice to airmen
it contains information essential to personel concerned with flight operations but not known far enough in advance to be promulgated by other means
227
what is tora
takeoff run available
the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off
228
what is toda
take off distance available
the length of the tora plus the length of the clearway if provided
229
what is asda?
accelerate stop distance available
the length of the tora plus the length of the stopway if provided
230
what is lda
landing distance available
the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing
231
who are stop bars controlled by?
atc
all vehicles and aircraft must stop at an illuminated stopbar and can only proceed once it has been turned off
232
what is atis
automatic terminal information service
its a continuous broadcasting of recorded aeronautical information such as current weather, active runways, available approaches and other info
233
what does the AAIB class as a serious incident
an incident involving circumstancing indicating that an accident almost occurred e.g.
- a near collision requiring an avoidance manoeuvre or when an avoiding manoeuvre would have been appropriate to avoid a collision
- an aborted take off on a closed or engaged runway or a take off from such a runway with marginal separation from obstacles
- a landing or attempt on a closed or engaged runway
- all fires and smoke in the passenger compartment or cargo compartments or engine fires
- any event requiring emergency oxygen used by the flight crew
- aircraft structural failure or engine disintegration not classified as an accident
- any case of flight crew incapacitation during flight
- any fuel state that would require the declaration of an emergency by the pilot
- takeoff or landing incidents such as such as over or undershooting the runway
- system failures, weather phenomena, operation outside the approved flight envelope or toher occurances which could caused difficulties controlling the aircraft
234
what is an asr
air safety report
235
what does hot works involve?
-flame cutting apparatus
-oxyacetylene welding apparatus
- electric welding apparatus
-electric welding apparatus
-blow lamps
-grinding equipment
-any other equipment producing flame, intense heat, sparks or bitumen boilers
236
what is information tango etc from ATC to an aircraft?
This is a simple versioning system used in ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service). ATIS messages contain information about the weather at the airport, runways in use etc. This information is transmitted on a dedicated radio frequency and repeated in a loop. The ATIS messages are updated frequently as the weather or operations at the airport change. Every time a new ATIS message is generated, the letter is changed.
Example of an ATIS message:
This is Schiphol arrival information Kilo, main landing runway 18Right. Transition level 50. Two zero zero degrees, one one knots. Visibility 10 kilometres. Few 1300 feet, scattered 1800 feet, broken 2000 feet. Temperature 15, dewpoint 13. QNH 995 hectopascal. No significant change. Contact Approach and Arrival callsign only. End of information Kilo.
237
what is pvd
para visual display equipment
it tunes itself to the localiser of the runway and is used to ensure that aircraft remain on the runway centre line
238
how is surface wind measured?
in velocity which means the direction and speed are always quoted together
239
define wind direction
from which the wind is blowing
240
how is wind in general measured?
in knots
241
what is wind shear?
a change in wind velocity with a change in height and it can be caused by thunderstorms, temperature inversions or strong wind blowing over a surface obstruction
242
what is a dew point
the temperature at which air is holding the maximum amount of water vapour possible without condensing into water droplets
243
what is metar
aviation routine weather report - an actual observation of weather at an aerodrome
244
what is taf
terminal aerodrome forecast - a statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an airport for a specified period
245
cloud cover abbreviations
skc - sky clear
few - few clouds, 1-2 oktas cover
sct - scattered 3-4 oktas cover
bkn - broken 5 - 7 oktas cover
ovc - overcast 8 oktas
example cloud report - sct012 - scattered cloud at 1200ft
246
what is an instrument landing approach and when is it used over visual
if the weather is less than visual flight rules (VFR) prescribe, pilots must use instrument flight rules (IFR). In other words, pilots operate aircraft by referencing the instruments rather than visual reference
Instrument approaches allow an instrument-rated pilot to transition from the flight to the approach in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and then to the landing.
247
what is VFR
VFR stands for “Visual Flight Rules.” This means that a VFR-rated pilot must follow specific guidelines when flying using visual references. A pilot holding a Private Pilot License (PPL) must fly in VFR conditions
This means you will fly using visual references. For instance, you’ll look for landmarks, highways, bodies of water, etc. Pilots are also on the lookout for other aircraft so they can see and avoid them. VFR pilots are dependent upon the weather. Therefore, they must actively watch for any sudden changes that could present low visibility or other dangerous situations. VFR flying is for fair weather days only. VFR pilots must be able to see clearly for 3 statute miles. Also, in most cases, they must remain 500 feet below clouds or 1,000 feet above clouds
248
what is ifr
IFR stands for “Instrument Flight Rules” and allows a pilot who is Instrument Rated (IR) to operate an aircraft by relying almost solely on instruments. Once a pilot holds a PPL, the next step is to be Instrument Rated (IR). This allows the pilot to fly IFR. Every aspect of flying is impacted by these ratings, such as flight planning, taking off, navigation, weather tracking, flight following, radar, and landing.
IFR pilots rely on Air Traffic Control (ATC) for instructions. They file IFR flight plans and rely on their instruments for navigation.
249
what is a Category 1 (CAT 1)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category I
A precision Instrument Approach and Landing with a Decisions Height not lower than 200 feet and with either a visibility not less than 800m, or runway visual range (IRVR) not less than 550m
250
what is a Category 2 (CAT 2)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 2
A precision Instrument Approach and landing with a Decision Height lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range not less than 300m.
251
what is a Category 3a (CAT 3a)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 3a
A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a Decision Height lower than 100ft, or with no decision height and a runway
visual range not less than 175m.
252
what is a Category 3b (CAT 3b)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 3b
A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a decision height lower than 50ft, or with no decision height and a runway visual
range less than 175m but not less than 50m.
253
what is the Manoeuvring Area
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron.
254
what is the movement area
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and aprons.
255
what is a taxiway holding position
A designated position intended for traffic control at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles may be required to hold until further cleared to proceed when so instructed by ATC.
256
what code runway does ema have and what does it mean
code 4e runway
an Aerodrome with a reference code 4E can accommodate aircraft with a “Reference Field Length” of 1800m and above and a wingspan up to 65m.
257
what code is taxiway alpha?
code e
258
what code is taxiway golf?
code e
259
what code is taxiway hotel?
code e
260
what code is taxiway sierra?
code d
261
what code is taxiway mike?
code e
262
what code is taxiway whiskey?
code e
263
what code is designator foxtrot?
code e
264
what code are juliet and bravo?
bravo is code e but Juliet taxiway is code E leading off Alpha on to west apron. From junction with Bravo reduces (south) to code D taxilane.
265
what code is kilo? (into rolls royce)
C (Max G650 aircraft)
266
what code is november?
E reducing to C south of
stand 43
267
what code is Quebec?
d
268
what code is romeo?
c
269
what code is charlie?
d
270
what code is tango?
c
271
what code is uniform?
e
272
what code is delta?
d
273
what code is victor?
F (Bespoke limited to
Max span 68.4m M
274
In the event that Taxiway Alpha, to the north of the Central or East Apron is/has to be closed what alternative through routes can be taken for difference code aircraft? (code c and code d)
Taxi lanes Quebec, Charlie, Romeo on the central apron can be used as a through route for code C aircraft and Uniform, Delta and Victor on the east apron can be used as a through route for code D aircraft
275
what category ILS system does ema have?
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) - ILS systems are provided for both runways. Runway 27 is equipped with a CAT IIIB system, and runway 09 is equipped with a CAT I system.
276
where is holding point alpha 4?
between tango and uniform
277
where is holding point alpha 5?
next to romeo
278
where is holding point alpha 6?
between november and quebec
279
where is holding point alpha 7?
between kilo and mike
280
where is holding point alpha 8?
next to kilo
281
where is holding point alpha 9?
between alpha 10 and juliet
282
where is holding point alpha 10?
between foxtrot and golf
283
how many crew does fire cat 9 require?
Category 9 requires a minimum crew of twelve personnel
284
what is the procedure for upgrading fire cat?
any requests for category 9 or higher (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 61m up to but not including 76m and a maximum fuselage width of 7m) public transport aircraft movements should be directed to the Operations Control Room on 01332 852973 who will request category upgrade with RFFS, requests for upgrade must have a minimum of 12 hours’ notice. The Station Manager will advise Control Room of any change in category when it is
established.
285
which stands on the central apron are self manoeuvring?
Stands 21, 23 and 24 are self-manoeuvring and Stand 31 is self-manoeuvring for aircraft up to JS41 dimensions
286
what stands on the north edge are nose in push back
Stands 20 and 22 are nose in pushback
287
what stand is self manoeuvring on the east apron?
70r
288
what are the parking restrictions for an airstart?
There are no parking restrictions on aircraft requiring an ‘air start’, however ‘cross-bleeds’
will not be allowed until the aircraft is on the taxiway
Inbound aircraft with unserviceable APU’s and /or requiring an “air start” on departure
will not be restricted in terms of parking stands. However, on any stand that adjoins a rear of stand road single engine starts should be used, with second engine start / cross-bleed on the taxiway
289
What stands on the november apron can push simultaneously
stands 40 and, either 44 or 45.
Aircraft pushed from stand 40 are to push back onto the taxi lane facing north abeam stand 41 and then be pulled forward to abeam stand 40.
290
what are the rules for code e aircraft leaving the apron? (not pushback rule)
Code E Aircraft may only push back to face West from stand 73L and can only
leave the Apron via Uniform
291
what are the pushback rules for the 777 on st 73LW?
keep stands 70L-76R vacant during
the Code E pushback / taxi-away manoeuvre. Vehicles and staff on foot must
not enter these stands when the B777-200F is departing the apron under its own power. Once the aircraft is established on the Alpha taxiway normal operations may resume on stands 70L-76R.
292
what stands can be occupied when the 777 is arriving but not on pushback
Stands 70L, 75R, 75 and 76R may be used if a B777 is parked on stand 73L, but
must be vacant for pushback
293
what stands can be occupied when the 747 is arriving but not on pushback?
up to stand 80 can be occupied on arrival but 78-85 but be vacant on pushback
st 86 can be occupied on arrival and pushback
294
what code aircraft can taxi into maintenance north?
Aircraft up to and including code C can taxi into the Maintenance Area North, via holding
point M4. all aircraft must be under positive marshall control and obstacle marshall/wing-walker(s) should be used as required.
295
what code aircraft can taxi from the maintenance north?
Code C aircraft departing from Maintenance Area North, should in all instances be towed
up onto the Mike Taxiway, via holding point M4, subject to clearance from ATC. Engines
can be started only when the aircraft is on the Mike taxiway facing north. Code B or
below can self-manoeuvre up to holding point M4 with onward clearance from ATC.
296
what code aircraft can taxi to and from maintenance south?
Code C aircraft can taxi to and from Maintenance Area South via holding point M5, (ATC onward clearance required from M5 for departing aircraft).
297
can code d aircraft taxi into and out of the maintenance area?
Code D aircraft must be towed into the Maintenance Area from an apron stand, departing Code D aircraft should likewise, be towed to a nominated apron parking stand
298
what is the max size aircraft that can self manoeuvre on the washbay
Aircraft parking on the washbay permitted to self-manoeuvre off (twin engine only, up to
Gulfstream 5)
299
what are the rules for the west apron fingers?
* All aircraft must be towed-on and towed-off these stands.
* An engine shutdown and start up should only take place on Juliet for
aircraft up to and including code D). Any above code D aircraft, utilising either
stand 200 or 201 should start or shutdown engines with the aircraft positioned
on taxiway Bravo
* No engine runs or engine start/shutdowns should take place whilst the aircraft is on
stands 200-203
* No refuelling to take place on stands 200-203.
* No cargo unloading/loading to take place on stands 200-203.
* Minor aircraft line maintenance can be performed on stands 200-203.
300
what situation is a follow me car available?
LVP3s
301
at what point can you approach a parked aircraft thats just arrived on stand
Marshallers are to ensure that no personnel or vehicles approach an aircraft which has just arrived onto stand until the anti-collision lights have gone out, it has been chocked and the engines have run down.
302
what times are ground runs not permitted?
Engine ground runs will not be approved between 23:00 and 06:00 hour’s local time unless the aircraft concerned is required for an EMA service departing at or before 07:00 hours local time, the same day.
if an aircraft isnt departing or is departing on a positioning flight or the run is for maintenance work it is not permitted under any circumstances
303
bravo/juliet taxiway high power engine run rules
Facing west on the Bravo taxiway with the nose of the aircraft abeam stand 105.
ii. Facing east on the Bravo taxiway with the nose of the aircraft at holding point Bravo.
iii. Facing south on the Juliet taxi lane with the nose of the aircraft abeam stand 124.
iv. Facing north on the Juliet taxi lane with the nose of the aircraft at holding point
Juliet.
304
delta taxiway high power engine run rules
i. Facing west on the Delta taxiway with the nose abeam the Uniform centreline.
ii. Facing East on the Delta taxiway with the nose abeam stand 79.
Wind 360 – 060 do not use east apron
ii. Wind 060 – 120 use either east or west apron
iii. Wind 120 – 150 do not use east apron
iv. Wind 150 – 240 do not use west apron
v. Wind 240 – 270 do not use east apron
vi. Wind 270 – 310 use either east or west apron
vii. Wind 310 – 360 do not use west apron
305
what is the maximum size aircraft that can do a high power engine run on finger 60
cessna 406
306
if ain aircraft goes tech on the walking stands can they do maintenance on it?
To meet the demands of increasing air transport movements and to achieve optimum usage of prime stands i.e. those nearest to the terminal, the priority for stand usage is given to arriving/departing aircraft.
b. When maintenance is undertaken on an aircraft on any apron, which could inhibit its
removal from stand, the flexibility for allocating that particular stand to an
arriving/departing aircraft is reduced. To avoid this, no such line maintenance (as
described) is to be started without the prior permission of Airfield Operations Supervisor on 07880 787543
307
whats is a POA course
to ensure the safety of new employees or to
refresh existing personnel, it is a requirement that all personnel applying for an Airside
Security ID requiring access to 'outside airside areas' (zones - 4, 5, 6 or 7) of the CP
must undergo an Airside Safety Briefing,
1.2 The briefing will be entitled “Passport to Operate Airside”, the understanding of which will be delivered in the form of a classroom presentation and measured by the completion of a multiple-choice test.
1.3 The candidate will only receive a Passport to Operate Airside (POA) certificate upon successful completion.
308
what parts of an aircraft must be manned when passengers are boarding or disembarking
Crossings must be manned, aircraft wings manned or using barriers, rear of aircraft managed to prevent egress onto any road or manoeuvring area
309
what is the speed limit for vehicles on the central head of stand roads and crossing points
Vehicles speeds are reduced to a maximum of 5 mph at pedestrian road crossing points and along the entire length of the Central and Central-West apron ‘head of stand’ roadways.
5mph limits are also in force in the following areas:
Central apron roadway, at the head of Stand 7
In the North West corner of the central apron.
West apron abeam stands 123 and 100.
Inside any building (i.e. inbound or outbound baggage dock).
310
which stands are walking stands?
Inbound passengers may walk to the arrivals hall when disembarking from front stands 08 to 11 and from eastern stands 04 to 07, subject to adherence with the requirements detailed above. Stand 12 is a walk-in for domestic passengers only. International passengers must be coached unless special dispensation is given by the Airfield Operations Supervisor.
311
what kinds of passengers need to see borderforce for diverts/offloads?
common and international passengers
If passengers are off loaded into an airside area until they depart on a new or repaired aircraft
they will not need to be seen by Border Force.
1.3 If passengers are off-loaded into a landside area they must be seen and processed by the Border
Force in the Immigration Hall.
1.4 The above also applies to any inbound diverts which originate from outside the UK or Common
Travel Area where passengers are off-loaded at EMA.
1.5 Any passenger who is airside awaiting an international departure which fails to depart (even if
the passenger hasn’t left the embarkation lounge), must be presented to the BF control in International Arrivals. This includes any passenger airside who may have missed the flight departure. On these occasions, the handling agents are responsible for ensuring any Duty-Free items are returned back to the WDF store.
1.6 In the event of a medical emergency for an outbound flight that may result in the passenger being taken to hospital or choosing not to fly, the handling agent is responsible to notifying BF.
1.7 In the event of a medical emergency for an inbound flight that may result in the passenger being taken to hospital, the handling agent is responsible for notifying BF, who may attend the flight to check the passengers documentation
312
what is the procedure for reporting accidents,
incidents, safety occurrences and near miss events airside?
Accidents and Safety Occurrences must be reported without delay to Operations
Control Room (OCR) on 01332 852973.
1.2 If Emergency assistance is required call Ext. 3333 or 01332 818555 giving details of:
- the name and company of the caller
- location
- a description of what happened
- what immediate assistance is required
1.3 The OCR will mobilise the Airfield Operations Supervisor (AOS) to attend the scene
and assess the situation. Should further assistance be required, the AOS should make
the request via the appropriate channels to ensure that a delay in response is not
incurred.
1.4 Airfield Operations maintain operational authority of the scene, until relieved by the
Rescue and Fire Fighting Service (RFFS) or external emergency services.
1.5 All persons involved, witnesses, vehicles, plant, and equipment should not normally
be moved until the AOS is in attendance. However, if in the judgement of the senior
person present or the Officer in Charge of the RFFS their removal is necessary in the
interests of safety or to affect a rescue, this may be done. The scene should be
digitally photographed before being disturbed
313
what is the AOS's procedure (not the control rooms) when desling with safety occurances, near misses etc
The scene will be digitally photographed to assist with the investigation.
Any incident that causes an injury or any damage to aircraft, vehicle or
equipment, the driver’s Airside Driving Permit (ADP), Marshalling Permit or Passport to Operate Airside (POA) will be withdrawn immediately by the AOS, pending investigation, irrespective of the apparent cause.
Witness Statements will be requested and must be competed using the form
in Appendix 1.
All companies involved in an airside incident should investigate the circumstances leading to the accident or safety occurrence and provide a full written report to the AOS, within 10 days.
The AOS will log all information internally, complete the investigation, and
provide a conclusion, which may include actions or recommendations.
major accidents may be subject to investigation by outside agencies such as the Air Accident Investigation Board or the Police.
All information, pictures, statements and reports plus the results of any investigations as detailed in this manual will be anonymised and made available to assist this process.
Details of any injury will be recorded electronically on Safeport
https://magairports.cammanagementsolutions.co.uk/
In the event the incident that may result in a claim being made against the
airport, the AOS must advise the Airfield Operations Duty Manager (AODM)
who must advise maginsurance@manairport.co.uk
314
who operates the three fuel farms at ema and who do they supply?
There are three fuel farms on site at EMA, operated and managed by North Air Refuelling Services Limited; Valero Limited (through the Texaco brand) and Donington Aviation.
4.2.2 North Air and Valero are the suppliers and distributors of fuel to the scheduled, inclusive tour, cargo and the majority of visiting general aviation aircraft at EMA.
315
what is the vehicle speed limit on the aprons and roadways
There is a maximum speed limit of 15 miles per hour (mph) on the aprons and associated
roadways. On roads with pedestrian crossings, this limit is reduced to 5mph (equivalent to walking pace).
316
in lvp3s can vehicles use the uncontrolled crossings?
in lvp3s the uncontrolled crossings will only be available with the prior permission, and under the control of, Airfield Operations who will be in RT with ATC.
317
what is the apron link road at ema
The apron link road joins the central apron to the west apron and routes across the
November taxi lane and the Mike taxiway and Kilo taxilane.
318
is the apron link road a controlled or uncontrolled crossing
controlled and Drivers using this crossing must hold a valid EMA ‘M’ or ‘R’ ADP
319
can the link road be used in lvps
The link road is not to be used during
these periods, except essential vehicles under escort by Airfield Operations/Security
320
what are the three types of driving permits airside?
* The airside roads and aprons (‘A’ permit)
* The manoeuvring area excluding runways (‘M’ permit)
* The manoeuvring area including runways (‘R’ permit)
321
where can you drive with an a permit
The ‘A’ permit allows the driver to operate on
airside roads and aprons, which include the uncontrolled taxiway crossings.
322
where can you drive with an m permit
The ‘M’ permit allows a driver to operate on the manoeuvring area excluding the runway.
In order to obtain an ‘M’ permit, the driver must have successfully completed a
Radiotelephony (R/T) course and R/T assessment, including a practical element held by EMA Air Traffic Control.
323
where can you drive with an r permit
The ‘R’ permit allows a driver to operate on the EMA runway.
324
what is a code D2 driving offense?
12 points
Any driving offence causing personal injury, serious damage to equipment or
infrastructure, or damage to an aircraft.
325
what is a code D3 driving offense?
6 points
careless driving
326
what is a code D4 driving offense?
12 points
Causing aircraft to take avoiding action
327
what is a code D5 driving offense?
3 points
Dangerous/insecure load
328
what is a code D6 driving offense?
6 points
Driving a vehicle in the wrong direction on the head of stand road (Central Apron)
329
what is a code D10 driving offense?
6 points
Driving between aircraft and Marshaller
330
what is a code D16 driving offense?
4 points
Failing to exercise due care and attention
331
what is a code D27 driving offense?
12 points
Mobile Telephone used whilst driving
332
what is a code D6 driving offense?
333
how are birds reported on the airfield?
Any wildlife reporting by ATC will be communicated directly to the operational AOS via radiotelephony or the control room on extension 2973, who will then re-communicate this information to the AOS. Reporting of wildlife activity by a third party is to be done via the control room on telephone number 01332 852973, the control room will
then re-communicate this information to the AOS at the earliest opportunity without delay
334
what fire cat does rffs provide as standard
EMA provides category 7 (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 39m up to but not including 49m and a maximum fuselage width of 5m) & category 8 on Remission (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 49m up to but not including 61m and a maximum fuselage width of 7m)
335
how many personnel are required for fire cat 9
Cat 9 min. 12 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty
336
how many personnel are required for fire cat 8
Cat 8 min. 09 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty
337
how many personnel are required for fire cat 7
Cat 7 min. 09 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty
338
what should someone do if they receive a bomb threat?
In the event that a member of staff receives a bomb threat they must try to write down and
remember as many details as possible.
2.2 Immediately telephone the Control Room’s emergency number (extension 3333 or 01332
818555) to inform them that a bomb threat has been received. Give the following information:
a. Your name and where you work
b. How the threat was received i.e. phone call or email
c. Your present location and a contact telephone number
2.3 Relay the details of the threat and include (if known):
Where the bomb is?
When it is going to explode?
What it looks like?
Why the caller is doing this?
Who is making the threat?
2.4 The Control Room or Airport Duty Manager (ADM) may ask you to complete a form to provide
further details of the threat. Ensure that this is done as promptly as possible.
339
what information should be passed to the control room when reporting a first aid or ambulance request
Nature of injury/illness (please give as much detail as possible including nature, severity)
Is the casualty conscious and/or breathing? is breathing laboured
medical history of the patient, name and dob of patient
Location of casualty (please be as exact as possible and include flight number if on board aircraft)
Who is currently with the casualty? (staff, first aider etc.)
Name and company of person calling 3333
Telephone number to contacted if further details are required
340
what should the control room do if refueling on stand with passengers on board is requested
The Operations Control Room, ext. 2973, is to be informed by the Handling Agent if it is
intended to conduct aircraft fuelling operations with passengers on board. Although not required, EMA RFFS will attend if requested to do so. Requests for this service should be made through The Operations Control Room who will ring ext2999.
341
what types of aircraft can carry explosives 1.1-1.3
Explosives in Divisions 1.1 to 1.3 may only be carried on dedicated cargo aircraft;
342
what arrangements do explosives division 1.4 need?
Explosives in Division 1.4 do not require any special precautions on the ground for their handling or for the remote parking of an aircraft carrying them, no matter what quantity is involved.
343
what area do explosives division 1.1, 1.2 and 1.3 park and when can they be loaded and unloaded
They can be parked on west apron stands but for un/loading they need to be parked on DG 1,2 or 3 The loading, unloading and transiting of Dangerous Goods in these areas is only permitted between the hours of 06:00 and 18:00 local time (05:00z-17:00z).
344
what are ravps
Reduced Aerodrome Visibility Procedures
345
who do you inform when in LVPS
AOS and Rangers
RFFS via Tannoy then written in the log book
Airport Duty Manager so that preparations can be made for any possible delays/cancellations/diverts
346
why do planes have winglets
Winglets on a plane help reduce vortexes that form due to the difference in pressure between air above and below the wing. This helps stabilize the plane and improves the efficiency of the design, helping the plane burn less fuel.
347
what runway approaches are available when in LVPs
CAT II/III approaches are available on Runway 27 or LTS CAT I approaches are
available on Runway 09,
348
what runway approaches are not available when in ravps
Should a condition arise whereby the airfield requires safeguarding in poor visibility but
neither CAT II/III approaches nor LTS CAT I approaches are available, the term Reduced
Aerodrome Visibility Procedures shall be used to describe such safeguarding operations.
349
who is the only one able to declare lvps/ravps
ATC will be the single point of contact for determining the current status of LVPs/ RAVPs
350
when are lvps declared
When Met or IRVR visibility falls to 1500m and/or the cloud ceiling lowers to 300ft
351
who can use the uncontrolled crossings in lvps?
Drivers using uncontrolled crossings must have sufficient visibility to ensure that their
vehicle can safely proceed without endangering themselves, other vehicles or any aircraft that may be manoeuvring or about to manoeuvre, otherwise an escort from a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) must be requested.
352
who can use the controlled crossings in lvps?
The controlled taxiway crossing that links the Central and West Aprons, crossing the
November and Mike taxiways and the crossing at Kilo taxiway are closed to all traffic,
except essential vehicles escorted by a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) from ‘West Link November’ to West Link Kilo 2’.
353
can you do engine runs or ground movements in lvps?
no
354
in lvp3s when a follow me car has been requested, where do aircraft wait
For arriving aircraft on Runway 27, the lead vehicle will wait at the appropriate stopbar, Alpha 10 or Alpha 9, until the vehicle is seen by the pilot, and then lead the aircraft to stand. For Runway 09, the vehicle will wait at A3
355
when are lvp3s in force?
when visibility drops to 300m or below
356
who can use the uncontrolled crossings in lvp3s
When LVP3’s are in force (usually when visibility is below 300m) uncontrolled crossings are closed to regular vehicles and vehicles may only use the uncontrolled crossings on the Central and West Apron with the prior permission of & under the control of a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) who will be in radio contact with ATC
357
who is responsible for clearing the walkways from stands on the central of ice/snow?
AOS
walkways will be de-iced or snow cleared in the order of standard departure/arrival time.
358
define strong winds
* Strong Wind - Mean speed 24+ kts
359
define gale force winds
* Gale Force Wind - Mean speed 34+ kts
360
define severe gale force winds
* Severe Gale Force Wind - Mean speed 44+ kts
361
define storm force winds
* Storm Force Wind - Mean speed 52+ kts
362
define violent storm force winds
* Violent Storm Force Wind - Mean speed 60+ kts
363
in high winds a handling agent requests to park into wind, what is the procedure?
Parked aircraft may sustain damage to control surfaces or may risk ground-swinging ('weathercocking') in strong wind conditions. It will be for airlines and aircraft engineers to determine whether it is desirable to park any particular aircraft facing into wind.
the relevant operator must contact perations/Fire Control on ext. 2973. Aircraft must not be re-positioned without approval from the Airfield Operations Supervisor who will consider any possibility of impact on taxiway strips and adjacent stands be suspected.
Permission to park non-standard will be given by the AOS.
Aircraft will not normally be allowed to park non-standard under their own power but will require to be re-positioned by a tug after arrival and disembarkation. Likewise, aircraft parked non-standard into wind will not normally be permitted to self-manoeuvre off stand due to the hazards posed by jet blast, particularly on pier-served/contact stands.
ATC will be advised before this happens
364
where is the only place aircrafts can be washed with detergent
Detergents and other cleaning chemicals can cause pollution of watercourses. Washing of aircraft using detergents is therefore only permitted on the aircraft wash-down point, as runoff from this area is discharged via the airports drainage system to the foul sewer for treatment.
the washpoint is washbay finger 63
365
what is the largest aircraft that can go on the washpan?
The maximum size of aircraft which can be accommodated on the pan is a Boeing 767-200W (which may only access the maintenance area under tow)
366
when aircraft need the washbay to wash their aircraft who holds the key to the water supply
the key must be collected (and signed for) from Airfield Operations (07880 787543)
367
where can engine core washes be done
Engine core washes can only be completed on the Aircraft Washbay. Engine washes are not
permitted during periods of inclement weather (where the temperature is at or is forecast to reach freezing point). For the clarification, a dry engine run (where no fuel is ignited) following an engine wash does not require an engine run permit.
'Enclosed' engine core washes are not permitted on central apron stands that have a rear of stand road running behind them as this type of engine wash requires a 'dry' engine run throughout, necessitating the aircraft anti-collision lights to be turned on. In addition, an idle engine run may be required post wash. Preferred stands to be used for enclosed engine washes are those on the central west apron and the north edge of the central apron.
368
what other hazardous spills should be reported to rffs via local and tannoy
Operators are to ensure that spills of any chemicals which are deemed to be hazardous are reported immediately to Operations (Fire) Control. Examples of such chemicals include but are not limited to de-icer, anti-icer, fuel, oil, paint. Spills of other wastes which must also be reported are toilet waste, detergent, dispersant, AdBlu.
The EMA RFFS have specific
procedures for dealing with such incidents.
Spills of toilet waste must be contained to prevent emission to surface water drains and
removed to the discharge point known as the ‘mono-muncher’ in the Mitie-operated waste
compound as soon as possible. Toilet waste must not be washed into the surface water drains.
369
can aircraft in the maintenance area be de-iced?
no, If aircraft are in a maintenance area and need to be de-iced, they must be pulled to the
central apron.
370
what is the procedure when billing advises an aircraft cannot leave and hasnt paid its bill
advise ATC that the aircraft is not to be given permission to leave/move from its location
inform the ADM of the situation and inform the adm again if the aircraft tries to leave
handover to other CROs not to let the aircraft leave EMA
371
What is England's only inland freeport
East midlands airport
372
How do you find about abiut serviceability when giving information for standbys
Atis
373
gate 1 is at
stand 8
374
gate 2 is at
stand 9 (opposite domestic doors)
375
gate 3 is at
stand 10
376
what is a cat 1 responder
responders who are the main organisations involved in emergency response at a
local level (for example, Police, Fire, Ambulance and Councils)
377
what are cat 2 responders
category 2 responders
(for example, utilities companies and transport companies). EMA is a category 2 responder.
378
what is the AODM responsible for in an emergency
The AODM undertakes the role of Aerodrome Coordinator of Disabled Aircraft Removal
Operations.
379
what is the AOS responsible for in an emergency
The AOS is responsible for the efficient management of the ESRVP
380
what are the rangers responsible for in an emergency?
providing escorts for the emergency
services from the ESRVP to the incident site
381
what is the ADM responsible for in an emergency
a. to oversee the incident at an operational level (with the exception of the incident site itself). This will involve internal and external
briefings and communications
b. The ADM will also monitor other affected flights and assist where appropriate with
delays and diversions.
c. The ADM is responsible for the management of the Control Room and ensuring that they have activated the relevant emergency procedures during an incident.
d. The ADM will lead the Duty Management Team.
382
what is security responsible for during an emergency?
a. The main responsibility of Security during an aircraft incident is to assist the Police to
set up and facilitate the SRC
b. During an aircraft incident requiring a FFRC Security will also be responsible for
derestricting the East Lounge and ensuring that the integrity of the Critical Part is
protected.
383
what is passenger services responsible for in an emergency?
a. Passenger Services are responsible for the PEMs procedure through the provision of a
Passenger Evacuation Management Team.
b. Additionally, Passenger Services undertake the role of Airport Manager in the FFRC.
384
what is airfield engineering responsible for in an emergency?
In the event of an incident occurring on the runway or airfield, Airfield Engineering are
responsible for ensuring that the navaids and airfield lighting have not been damaged.
They will also provide advice where necessary on the safety implications of any damage
which has been incurred.
b. Airfield Engineering will also provide the AAIB with voice and radar recordings and any
other information as required.
385
what is the difference between a precision approach radar and an ILS
A PAR approach is typically equivalent to a Cat 1 ILS approach. It's the control part that is very different. You can only have 1 PAR approach ongoing per controller, where you can stack up aircraft on ILS approaches as long as you have the separation. Also, a PAR requires no equipment in the cockpit other than a radio. The controller on the ground interprets the radar display and gives the pilot headings to steer and glidepath corrections.
Most civilian airports no longer have precision approach radars. Although in the north east Teesside and Humberside still do.
386
what does VOR stand for
Very High frequency Omnidirectional beacon
387
what is ndb and what is it used for
Non-directional beacon
flight training
388
what part of a plane is the fuselage
The fuselage is the body of the airplane. It holds the passengers, pilots, and cargo
389
what is controlled airspace
Airspace is controlled where air traffic control services are provided. Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace is controlled.
390
what is uncontrolled airspace
Airspace is uncontrolled if air traffic control does not exercise control of aircraft within the airspace area. Class G airspace is uncontrolled.
