Opt Mcq Flashcards by Landiswa Motsa

The following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure with the common tendinous ring of Zin
A. Nasociliary nerve-
B. Lacrimal nerve-
C. Inferior ophthalmic vein-
D. Superior division of the ophthalmic nerve -

C is false

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The following organisms associated with neonatal conjunctivitis:
A. C. trachomatis-
B. N. Gonorrhea-
C. Herpes simplex type 2 -
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa -

All true

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Which facts are true?
A. Cicatricial ectropion occurs when scarring vertically shortens the posterior lamella-
B. Involuntional ptosis arises from disinsertion of the Levator palpebral superioris and increase with aging -
C. Trichiasis can cause blindness -
D. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus can cause uveitis -

A is the only False

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Concerning glaucoma
A. Glaucoma causes reversible blindness-
B. In glaucoma there is a triad of optic nerve damage, visual acuity loss and high intraocular pressure-
C. Chronic use of topical steroids can cause glaucoma and cataracts-
D. Bulphtalmos is a feature of congenital glaucoma

A is only false

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Corneal ulcers
A. N. gonorrhea, N. meningitidis, C. diphtheria and H. influenza are able to breach an intact corneal epithelium to cause infective ulcerative keratitis-
B. Reduced corneal sensation may suggest associated herpetic keratitis, neurotrophic keratopathy or fungal keratopathy-
C. Anterior staphyloma may result from severe corneal ulceration-
D. Patients with infective ulcerative keratitis must wait for microscopy, culture and sensitivity results before commencing antimicrobial eye drops-

D is only false

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The bones of the skull
A. Unite at mobile joints called sutures-
B. Is covered on the outer surface by periosteum -
C. Are all paired -
D. All contain air sinuses-

Only B is true

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The middle cranial fossa:
A. Is bounded anteriorly by the greater wing of the sphenoid -
B. Transmits the spinal part of the 11th cranial nerve via the foramen Magnum -
C. Houses the pituitary gland in the sella turcica -
D. Contains the optic canal that transmits the optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery to the orbit

All true

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The cornea thickness is:
A. 0.45mm -
B. 0.55mm -
C. 0.65mm -
D. 0.75mm -

B and C true

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The following are true about the conjunctiva:
A. It is lined by squamous epithelium -
B. The superior fornix extends further from the limbus than the inferior limbus -
C. The bulbar conjunctiva and the Tenon’s capsule are fused 1 mm from the limbus -
D. The highest concentration of goblet cells are found in the superonasal quadrant of the bulbar conjunctiva

All true

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The following nodes receive direct lymphatic drainage from the eyelids:
A. Submental nodes -
B. Parotid nodes -
C. Preauricular nodes -
D. Submandibular nodes

A and B false

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With regard to the glands found on the eyelids:
A. The Meibomian glands are found within the tarsal plate -
B. The glands of Moll are modified sweat glands-
C. There are more glands of Moll in the lower than the upper lids-
D. The glands of Zeis are modified sebaceous gland-

All are true

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The following structure are anterior to the grey line:
A. Meibomian glands-
B. Tarsal plate-
C. Cilia-
D. Orbicularis oculi-

C is true
The rest are false

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Concerning the anterior segment of the eye
A. Madarosis is the term used to refer to whitening of the eyelashes-
B. Poliosis is the term used to refer to loss of eyelashes-
C. Ankyloblepharon is the term used to refer fusion of the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva-
D. Symphlepheron is the term used to refer fusion of the upper and lower eyelid margins-

All false

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Concerning allergic conjunctivitis
A. Simple allergic conjunctivitis is seen usually in spring and summer and may be due to exposure to allergens such as pollen-
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is an allergic response associated white nodules surrounded by hyperraemis on the bulbar conjunctiva near the limbus-
C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is believed to be delayed hypersensitivity type I mediated reaction to endogenous allergens-
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis is mediated by IgE and may be associated with hay fever-

C is the only false

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One major risk factor for the development of bacterial corneal ulcer (keratitis) is
A. Age-
B. Contact lens wear-
C. Frequent use of steroids-
D. Systemic bacterial infections-

All true

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Which statement is true
A. A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) can be caused by severe retinal diseases and incomplete optic nerve lesion-
B. Unilateral optic atrophy, head injury, iris atrophy and intracranial tumours can cause a unilaterally fixed and dilated pupil-
C. Simple myopia starts at school going age and slowly progresses to adulthood but does not exceed –6 to -8 diopters-
D. Astigmatism is a type of refractive error where the refraction varies in different meridia of the eye-

A and D are true

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The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is
A. Eye patch-
B. Iridotomy -
C. Trabeculotomy -
D. Trabeculectomy-

Only B is true

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After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal edema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be
A. Secondary glaucoma-
B. Anterior uveitis-
C. Bacterial endophthalmitis-
D. Acute conjunctivitis-

A is false

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In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is
A. Inward -
B. Outward-
C. Outward and up-
D. Outward and down-

D is only true

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Treatment of retinoblastoma is by all the following except
A. Enucleation-
B. Radiotherapy-
C. Chemotherapy-
D. Evisceration-

D is false

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Features of diabetic retinopathy include the following
A. Micro-aneurysms-
B. Hemorrhages-
C. Hard exudates-
D. Flare-

All true

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The probable Aetiology of developmental cataract is
A. Chromosomal aberrations-
B. Inborn error of metabolism -
C. Intrauterine inflammation-
D. All of the above -

All true

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The following are causes of leukocoria
A. Retinoblastoma -l
B. Corneal ulcer-
C. Cataract -
D. Retinopathy of prematurity-

A is true
D is true

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Examples of secondary glaucoma include all of the following
A. Lens induced glaucoma -
B. Steroid induced glaucoma -
C. Neovascular glaucoma -
D. Normal tension glaucoma -

D is false

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54. Causes of early onset of cataract include all the following A. Diabetes mellitus - B. Smoking - C. Trauma - D. Recurrent bouts of diarrhea -

D is false

53. Corneal ulcer may occur in injury to which cranial nerve? A. Fifth - B. Seventh - C. Third - D. None of the above-

A is true

52. The organism which can penetrate intact corneal epithelium and cause purulent corneal ulcer is A. Neisseria meningitidis - B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - C. Pneumococcus - D. Streptococcus -

A is true

51. All the following are types of allergic conjunctivitis except A. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis- B. Atopic keratoconjunctivitis - C. Giant papillary conjunctivitis - D. Follicular conjunctivitis -

D is true

50. Which of the following stains are used in the clinical evaluation of corneal ulcers? A. Congo red - B. Indocyanine green- C. Fluorescein - D. Alcian blue -

C is true

49. The following are types of refractive errors A. Myopia - B. Heterotropia - C. Astigmatism - D. Hypermetropia -

B is false

48. Which of the following is not a feature of oculomotor nerve palsy? A. Ptosis - B. Diplopia- C. Miosis - D. Down and out eyeball -

B is only true

47. Which one of the following is a type of squint? A. Esotropia - B. Exotropia- C. Ametropia - D. Hypertropia -

C is false

46. Which of the following is most likely to cause axial proptosis? A. Lacrimal gland tumor- B. Frontal mucocele- C. Optic nerve glioma- D. Rhabdomyosarcoma -

C is true

45. Raised intraocular pressure causes the following complications A. Retinoblastoma- B. Corneal scarring- C. Optic nerve damage- D. Blindness -

A is false

44. Which of the following class of drugs is used in treatment of glaucoma? A. Beta-blockers- B. Alpha-antagonist- C. Thiazide diuretics - D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor -

A and D are true

43. Which of the following structures is not part of the anterior segment of the eye? A. Iris - B. Crystalline lens - C. Cornea- D. Vitreous body -

B and D are true

42. In orbital cellulitis A. There is infection affecting anatomical tissue posterior to the orbital septum only- B. Clinical features may include decrease vision, diplopia, abnormal extra-ocular muscle motility and a relative afferent pupillary defect - C. Direct spread of infection from ethmoidal sinusitis is a common Aetiology - D. Treatment with broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics must be given for at least 7 days and subperiosteal abscess requires urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon for possible surgical drainage -

A is false

41. About cataracts A. Age related (Senile) cataracts occur at an earlier age in diabetic patients - B. In diabetic cataracts, glucose is metabolized by aldose reductase into sorbitol which then accumulates within the lens resulting in secondary osmotic over hydration of the lens substance - C. Rubella infection in the 2nd trimester of birth can result in congenital cataract - D. Cataract surgery must be done in a patient with a mature cataract with a visual acuity of no perception of light

D is false

40. Corneal ulcer A. N. gonorrhea, N. meningitidis, C. Diphtheria and H. influenza are able to breach an intact corneal epithelium to cause infective ulcerative keratitis - B. Reduced corneal sensation may suggest associated herpetic keratitis, neurotrophic keratopathy or fungal keratopathy C. Endophthalmitis may result from severe corneal ulceration D. Patients with infective ulcerative keratitis must wait for microscopy, culture and sensitivity results before commencing antimicrobial eye drops-

D is false

39. Concerning intraocular pressure (IOP) A. A high IOP alone is diagnostic of glaucoma- B. IOP in the range of 10-21 mmHg falls within 2 standard deviations of the mean and is considered normal - C. Goldmann applanation tonometer is mounted on the slit lamp and is considered the gold standard for IOP measurement - D. Topical anesthesia must be applied when performing all types of indentation or applanation tonometry -

B and C are true

38. Concerning the optic nerve A. The optic nerve is covered by all 3 meningeal sheaths of the brain i.e. pia matter, arachnoid and dura- B. Optic neuritis is associated with pain when the eyeball is depressed in adduction- C. It is formed at the optic disc as a continuation of the axons of the retina bipolar cells - D. A relative apparent pupillary defect (RAPD) can be caused by severe retinal diseases and incomplete optic nerve lesions-

B and C are false

37. Concerning 3rd nerve palsy A. Complete paralysis produces both vertical and horizontal dipoplia- B. The pupil may be dilated and non-responsive- C. The most common cause of isolated 3rd nerve palsy is intracranial aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery D. The pupil may be spared

B true

36. Concerning errors of refraction A. Emmetropia is a state of refraction when parallel rays of light coming from infinity are focused on the retina with accommodation at rest- B. Ametropia is a state of refraction when parallel rays of light coming from infinity are focused in front or behind the retina with accommodation at rest- C. Presbyopia is a state of physiological insufficiency of accommodation leading to failing vision for near- D. Hypermetropia is a state of refraction when parallel rays of light coming from infinity are focused in front of the retina with accommodation at rest-

A and C are true

35. Visual acuity A. The denominator represents the distance between the patient and the visual acuity chart- B. It must be performed with both eyes open- C. It must be performed in a well illuminated environment- D. A brisk pupillary response to light in uncooperative patient suggests presence of some degree of vision-

C true

34. Concerning conjunctival tumours A. A pterygium histologically shows elastotic degenerative changes in the sub epithelial stromal collagen- B. A Naevus is a benign tumour which is sharply demarcate, slightly raised and presents in the first 2 decades of life- C. An epibalbar dermoid is a soft smooth mass located present in childhood, located in the limbal area and occasionally associated with the goldenhar syndrome- D. Conjunctival Kaposi’s sarcoma frequently affects patients with AIDS, is located inferiorly and very sensitive to radiotherapy-

All are true

33. True or false? A. Madarosis is whitening of the eyelashes- B. Poliosis is loss of eyelashes- C. Ankyloblepharon is fusion of the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva- D. Symblepharon is fusion of the upper and lower eyelid margins

All false

32. The following primary tumor may metastasize to the eye: A. Pancreas- B. Bronchus - C. Breast - D. Ovary

All are true

31. The following statements are correct A. The primary action of the superior oblique muscle is depression in adduction- B. The bonny orbit is formed by six bones- C. The nasal retina perceives images in the nasal field of vision - D. The ophthalmic artery is the main supplier of eyeball and its adnexia through its 8 branches -

A and D are true

30. Chemical injuries A. Acids tend to penetrate deeper than alkalis- B. Severity of the limbal ischemia is an important prognostic factor- C. Ascorbic acid is used systemically and topically - D. Topical steroids may be used initially

A is false

29. Preseptal cellulitis: A. It is an infection of the subcutaneous tissue anterior to the orbital septum- B. It may be caused by dacrocystitis- C. It never progresses to orbital cellulitis-m D. Mild proptosis is common

A and B are true

28. Retinoblastoma: A. Is caused by mutations in a tumor suppressor gene - B. When familial is always bilateral - C. Exophytic tumors spread into the vitreous cavity - D. Tumors characterized by Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are more differentiated

B and C are false

27. Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in A. Papilloedema- B. Retinoblastoma - C. Papillitis - D. Toxocariasis -

A and C are false

26. Best site where intraocular lens is fitted: A. Capsular ligament- B. Endosulcus- C. Ciliary supported - D. Capsular bag-

D is true

25. Proptosis is present in the following conditions True or false: A. Horner’s syndrome - B. Orbital cellulitis - C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy- D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

A is false

24. True or false: A. Rubeosis (iris neovascularisations) can be caused by diabetes mellitus, sickle cell disease or chronic uveitis- B. Iridodonesis (trembling of the iris) can be caused by aphakia and lens dislocation- C. Nebular cornea opacities are caused by scarring at the level of the Bowmans and stromal layers of the cornea- D. Phacodoneiss can be caused by zonular dialysis-

All are true

23. Which statements are true: A. Retinoblastoma can cause a hypopyon- B. All hyphemia must be surgically washed out from the anterior chamber- C. In patient with post traumatic cornea laceration, tetanus toxioid, oral antibiotics, topical antibiotics and analgesics must all be given before referring to an ophthalmologist for surgical management- D. Trachoma is associated with infection by Chlamydia trachomatis subtypes A-C whereas subtypes D-K are associated with adult inclusion conjunctivitis-

A and B are false

22. Evisceration is: A. Excision of the entire eyeball B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue- C. Photocoagulation of the retina D. Removal of orbital contents including periosteum

B true

21. The most common intracranial tumor with secondary invasion of the orbit is: A. Retinoblastoma- B. Glioma- C. Meningioma- D. Neurofibroma-

A true

20. In orbital cellulitis which of the following is false: A. It is a common cause of proptosis is childhood B. Commonly seen due to infection spreading from the sinuses C. Commonly bilateral D. Complicates into cavernous sinus thrombosis

C is only false

19. Blow out fracture includes all the following except: A. Enophthalmos- B. Cheek anesthesia- C. Diplopia- D. Anisokonia-

D is true

18. Proptosis is defined as how much difference between both eye. A.1mm- B. 1cm C. 2mm - D. 2cm-

C is true

17. Hutchinson sign is due to involvement of cranial nerve? A. Lacrimal nerve- B. Nasociliary nerve- C. Frontal nerve- D. Maxillary nerve

B is true

16. Signs seen in Horner’s syndrome True or false: A. Miosis- B. Ptosis- C. Anhydrosis- D. Exophthalmos-

D is false

15. Flurescein stain drops used in outpatient department stains: A. Healthy tissue- B. Diseased and devitalized tissue C. Tear film- D. Epithelial defect -

A and C are false

14. The superior orbital fissure: A. Lies between the laser and greater wings of the sphenoid - B. Is widest laterally- C. Transmits the upper division of oculomotor nerve through the oculomotor nerve through the common tendinous ring- D. Transmits the nasociliary nerve below the common tendinous ring-

A and C are true

13. The following are true about the blood supply to the eyelids: A. They receive branches of the lacrimal artery- B. They receive branches of the ophthalmic artery- C. The arterial arch runs anterior to the Muller’s muscle- D. The marginal arch run 3mm from the free margin of the eyelids

All True

Opt Mcq Flashcards

(67 cards)