OPT Model Flashcards
(509 cards)
1
Q
What are the 5 Phases of the OPT Model?
A
Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Phase 3 - Hypertrophy Phase 4 - Maximal Strength Phase 5 - Power
2
Q
What should the amount or reps be for Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance?
A
10-20 reps
3
Q
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Select one:
a. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
b. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
c. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
A
b. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward
4
Q
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
c. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
d. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
A
b. 1 set, 10-15 reps 3-10 exercises
5
Q
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Select one:
a. Instrumental support
b. Informational support
c. Companionship support
d. Emotional support
A
a. Instrumental Support
6
Q
What is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
A
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax)
7
Q
What are examples of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
A
Gluteal complex
Quadratus lumborum
Obliques
8
Q
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Select one:
a. Stretching phase
b. Explosive-shortening phase
c. Muscular-power phase
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
A
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
9
Q
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
a. reducing burnout
b. providing psychological benefits
c. developing intrinsic motivation
d. winning a triathlon
A
b. Providing Psychological benefits
10
Q
Which of the following is a keytone body?
a. Glycogen
b. Pyruvate
c. Acetoacetic acid
d. Lactic acid
A
c. Acetoacetic acid
11
Q
What types of motion should Stage 3 balance exercises include?
Select one:
a. Little motion
b. No motion
c. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
A
d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
12
Q
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
A
Stage 2 training
13
Q
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:
a. Eccentric contraction
b. Lengthening reaction
c. Isometric contraction
d. Stretch reflex
A
d. stretch reflex
14
Q
Circuit training is best described as what?
Select one:
a. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement
b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
c. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements
d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch
A
b. A full body program that incorporates high intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
15
Q
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Upper trapezius
c. Rhomboids
d. Diaphragm
A
a. Sternocleidomastoid
16
Q
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine:
Select one:
a. Decreased lordosis
b. Increased lordosis
c. Decreased kyphosis
d. Increased kyphosis
A
b. Increased lordosis
17
Q
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Select one:
a. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
b. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
c. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
d. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium
A
b. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
18
Q
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Select one:
a. Osteokinematics
b. Kinesiology
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Biomechanics
A
a. Osteokinematics
19
Q
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
A
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
20
Q
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Select one:
a. Peripheral resistance
b. Venous pooling
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
d. Valsalva maneuver
A
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
21
Q
What are the building blocks of proteins?
A
Essential and non-essential amino acids
22
Q
What are ground reaction forces?
Select one:
a. The force of gravity
b. Deceleration forces in the muscles
c. Forces used by the muscles during a jump
d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
A
d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
23
Q
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Select one:
a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
A
c, Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
24
Q
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
A
Isometric
25
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
a. isokinetic
26
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
27
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Feed-forward
28
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
a. kettlebells
b. BOSU balls
c. Medicine balls
d. Strength machines
c. medicine balls
29
Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which barrier?
Lack of time
30
What is Magnesium classified as?
Macromineral
31
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves what function?
it replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance
32
Which assessment should be conducted first to preserve its validity?
Body Composition
33
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a truck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Being more explosive
b. Increasing speed
c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
34
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon what?
Select one:
a. Absent stretch reflex
b. Rapid amortization phase
c. Prolonged amortization phase
d. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
Rapid amortization phase
35
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?
Informational support
36
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help decrease stress to the lower back?
Hip extension
37
What would the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 rep at 225 lbs?
6,750 lbs
38
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
39
Which of the following variations of hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
a. multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
b. multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. single-leg hop forward
d. multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
a. multiplanar single leg box hop-down with stabilization
40
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Select one:
a. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
b. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
41
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
42
Aprox. what % of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
0.6
43
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Select one:
a. Force production
b. Functional movement
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Tissue overload
Tissue overload
44
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Multifidus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Iliopsoas
Multifidus
45
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the Eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
46
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into?
Muscular development
47
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
a. Muscle imbalance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship
Reciprocal Inhibition
48
What is a very important prenatal vitamin?
Folate
49
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
50
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
a. The exercise is intense
b. The exercise is continuous in nature
c. The exercise is rhythmic
d. The exercise targets large muscle groups
a. The exercise is intense
51
What is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Health Risk Assessment
52
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
Select one:
a. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training
b. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals
c. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA
d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
53
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and Progression
54
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
a. Somatic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
55
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
Plant foods and dairy
56
What is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
57
The goal of a Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?
Select one:
a. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities
b. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2
c. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
d. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells
Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
58
Core stability is best described as what?
Select one:
a. The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance
b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
c. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine
d. The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension
b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
59
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
45-60% of total calories
60
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
a. stabilization of the LPHC
b. a faster tempo, similar to daily life
c. slow and controlled movements
d. use of heavy weights
b. a faster tempo, similar to daily life
61
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Select one:
a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
b. Adductor complex (inner thighs)
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and Medius
62
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
a. moving a grocery cart
b. getting in and out of the car
c. raking leaves
d. cleaning
cleaning
63
What is plyometric training also known as?
Select one:
a. Strength training
b. Resistance training
c. Reactive training
d. Stability training
Reactive Training
64
What is the primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts
65
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
66
Flexibility is defined as what?
Select one:
a. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
c. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
d. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
67
How many B vitamins are there?
8
68
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
b. Increased lipogenesis
c. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
d. Increased lipolysis
d. Increased lipolysis
69
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?
a. Dumbbell and medicine ball
b. ViPR and sandbag
c. TRX suspension and ViPR
d. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
b. ViPR and sandbag
70
One of the two independent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Peripheral nervous system
71
Where is the location of the chest skinfold for men to be performed?
Select one:
a. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
c. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
72
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexors
73
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
a. 135/80 mm Hg
b. 118/78 mm Hg
c. 143/92 mm Hg
d. 124/80 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
74
What scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
Select one:
a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
c. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
75
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
76
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
77
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
4-2-1-1
78
Proprioception is best described as what?
Select one:
a. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
b. The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
c. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
b. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
79
Compared to water soluble vitamins, what is true about fat soluble vitamins?
Select one:
a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body
80
What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success?
A. A SWOT analysis
B. Building rapport
C. A unique selling proposition (USP)
D. Forecasting
A. A SWOT analysis
81
What muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Infraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
82
What is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Select one:
a. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis
b. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
d. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
83
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
A. Strength
B. Somatosensation
C. Vision
D. Vestibular senses
A. Strength
84
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg
d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
85
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
A. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
B. Recommend she eat-high calorie “cheat meals” more often
C. Suggest she increase consumption of high calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza and cake
D. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
D. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
86
A client performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Select one:
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
c. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety.
d. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrist
87
What client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Motivational interviewing
88
Which synergist would assist the upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Quadriceps
C. Triceps brachii
D. Biceps brachii
C. Triceps brachii
89
What is the key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Select one:
a. Proprioception
b. Motivation
c. Knowledge of results
d. Knowledge of performance
Proprioception
90
What component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body?
Red blood cells
91
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Long
92
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 - 60 seconds
93
What three joint actions comprise triple FLEXION?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
94
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0-60 seconds
95
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:
a. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
d. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
96
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Ligament
97
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
B. An overweight client with adequate strength
C. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength
D. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvement in strength
A. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
98
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Vitamin A
99
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
100
Which protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
A. Fascicles
B. Troponin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
B. Tropinin
101
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the blood stream?
Hyperglycemia
102
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
Select one:
a. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
c. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
d. 4-6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
103
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
A. Kinesiology
B. Athrokinematics
C. Osteokinematics
D. Biomechanics
B. Athrokinematics
104
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
A. Box jumps
B. Depth jumps
C. Ice skaters
D. Single-leg hops
B. Depth jumps
105
What is the five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
106
What is the best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:
a. Heart rate
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Thermoregulation
d. Blood pressure
b. Peripheral vasodilation
107
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
108
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
109
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Undulating
110
What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Rheumatoid arthritis
111
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
A. Somatosensory system
B. Visual system
C. Vestibular system
D. Auditory system
B. Visual system
112
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
A. Tricep extensions
B. Calf raises
C. Bench press
D. Back squat
D. Back squat
113
What is the characteristic of type 1 muscle fibers?
Type 1 fibers are “slow twitch “
114
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
Select one:
a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
c. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
115
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
A. Stage 4
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 5
D. Stage 3
B. Stage 2
116
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Pattern overload
117
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Select one:
a. Drop set
b. Pyramid system
c. Complex training
d. Peripheral heart action system
Peripheral heart action system
118
Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?
They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
119
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?
A. Sandbags
B. Battle ropes
C. TRX rip trainer
D. Strength machines
A. Sandbags
120
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
A. Stride rate
B. Assessment of visual stimuli
C. Reaction
D. Deceleration
D. Deceleration
121
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
122
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk
123
Which vitamin is the most transient?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A
A. Vitamin C
124
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Select one:
a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Amortization
d. Isometric
Amortization
125
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
126
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
127
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in a client with PAD?
A. Low-back pain
B. Leg pain
C. Shoulder pain
D. Neck pain
B. Leg pain
128
Improving frontside running mechanics in associated with which of the following?
A. Less braking force
B. Less stability
C. Less speed
D. Less forward drive
A. Less breaking force
129
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
A. Increased ventricular filling
B. Venous pooling
C. Decreased ventricular filling
D. Decreased venous return
A. Increased ventricular filling
130
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
131
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol
132
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed a roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Select one:
a. Piriformis
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Thoracic spine
d. Adductors
Tensor fascia latae
133
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
A. Multifidus
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Erector spinae
D. Diaphragm
C. Erector spineae
134
What term is used to describe the concept of how functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?
Select one:
a. Osteokinematics
b. Biomechanics
c. Regional interdependence
d. Kinesiology
Regional interdependence
135
Without a perceived discrepancy between the clients current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
136
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
A. Smaller in size
B. Slow to fatigue
C. Short-term contractions
D. Increased oxygen delivery
C. Short-term contractions
137
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments
b. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
c. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
138
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
A. Family
B. Exercise leader
C. The community
D. Exercise group
A. Family
139
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
A. Amotivation to exercise
B. Ambivalence toward exercise
C. An influence on exercise
D. A barrier to exercise
D. A barrier to exercise
140
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Infraspinatus and teres minor
b. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
c. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris
d. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae
Infraspinatus and teres minor
141
What is end-diastolic volume?
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
142
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
A. Pulmonary hypoplasia
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoxia
D. Pneumonia
B. Dyspnea
143
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
A. Dead bug
B. Medicine ball overhead throw
C. Back extension
D. Plank
C. Back extension
144
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
145
Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Flexibility and joint ROM
146
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?
Individuals with performance goals
147
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
Select one:
a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
148
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:
a. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
149
```
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Transverse plane box jump-down
b. Sagittal plane box jump-down
c. Frontal plane box jump-up
d. Sagittal plane box jump-up
```
a. Transverse plane box jump-down
150
```
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Select one:
a. Single-leg dumbbell scaption
b. Ball cobra
c. Standing dumbbell lateral raise
d. Calf raise
```
d. Calf raise
151
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
Select one:
a. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol
b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
c. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
d. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
152
```
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Beta-oxidation
```
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
153
```
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Select one:
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Right bundle branch
c. Intercalated discs
d. Sinoatrial node
```
d. Sinoatrial node
154
```
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
Select one:
a. Brachialis
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Triceps brachii
```
c. Brachioradialis
155
```
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Stationary balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Static balance
```
c. Semi-dynamic balance
156
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Decreased volume and intensity
b. Muscle mass atrophy
c. Body fat loss
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
c. Body fat loss
157
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a. Pull the elbows into extension
b. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
c. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
158
```
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?
Select one:
a. Knee valgus
b. Knee dominance
c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
d. Knee varus
```
d. Knee varus
159
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Select one:
a. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
b. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
c. It helps transmit the motor signal.
d. It converts ADP back to ATP.
a. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
160
```
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?
Select one:
a. Sandbag rotational lunge
b. Stability ball abdominal crunches
c. Kettlebell RDL
d. Cable machine single-arm row
```
c. Kettlebell RDL
161
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
Select one:
a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
162
```
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Select one:
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Unloading phase
c. Loading phase
d. Amortization phase
```
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
163
```
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Deltoid
b. Serratus anterior
c. Rhomboids
d. Rotator cuff muscles
```
b. Serratus anterior
164
```
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Erector spinae
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis
```
c. Transverse abdominis
165
```
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Arterioles
b. Arteries
c. Capillaries
d. Veins
```
d. Veins
166
```
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Select one:
a. Strength and stabilization
b. Growth and stabilization
c. Growth and volume
d. Strength and volume
```
c. Growth and volume
167
```
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Select one:
a. Fitness manager
b. Exercise leader
c. General manager
d. Certified Personal Trainer
```
b. Exercise leader
168
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Select one:
a. Helping make the exercises fun
b. Providing information on the health benefits
c. Improving their confidence for their technique
d. Helping them make a plan
b. Providing information on the health benefits
169
```
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
Select one:
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
```
d. Left ventricle
170
```
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Select one:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Osteopenia
d. Osteoporosis
```
b. Osteoarthritis
171
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
b. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
172
```
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Select one:
a. Transitioning of forces
b. Shortening of the agonist muscle
c. Stretching of the agonist muscle
d. Stretching of the antagonist muscle
```
c. Stretching of the agonist muscle
173
```
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
Select one:
a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
b. Rockport 1-mile walk test
c. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
```
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
174
```
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Select one:
a. Ankle plantar flexion
b. Hip abduction
c. Knee flexion
d. Ankle dorsiflexion
```
a. Ankle plantar flexion
175
```
The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Phases 1 and 3
b. Phases 2, 3, and 4
c. Phases 1, 2, and 5
d. Phases 3, 4, and 5
```
c. Phases 1, 2, and 5
176
```
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Select one:
a. Right ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right atrium
```
d. Right atrium
177
```
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.
Select one:
a. Open-ended questions
b. Reflections
c. Closed-ended questions
d. Active listening
```
b. Reflections
178
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Pushing test
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
a. Pushing test
179
```
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
Select one:
a. Muscle fiber and muscle cell
b. Epimysium and endomysium
c. Tropomyosin and troponin
d. Actin and myosin
```
d. Actin and myosin
180
```
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Select one:
a. Duodenum of the large intestine
b. Duodenum of the small intestine
c. The ileum of the small intestine
d. The ileum of the large intestine
```
b. Duodenum of the small intestine
181
```
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Gait
b. Jump
c. Land
d. Stabilize
```
b. Jump
182
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
Select one:
a. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
b. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
c. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
183
```
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Select one:
a. Technique imagery
b. Positive self-talk
c. Energy imagery
d. Appearance imagery
```
d. Appearance imagery
184
```
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Select one:
a. Palms facing down
b. Thumbs pointing down
c. Palms facing each other
d. Thumbs pointing up
```
d. Thumbs pointing up
185
```
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left atrium
d. Pulmonary veins
```
c. Left atrium
186
```
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Select one:
a. Sports drills
b. Dynamic stretches
c. Active stretches
d. Self-myofascial techniques
```
d. Self-myofascial techniques
187
```
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Select one:
a. Psychological concern
b. Cardiovascular precaution
c. Precaution
d. Contraindication
```
d. Contraindication
188
```
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Select one:
a. Shoulders
b. Ankles
c. Spine
d. Knees
```
c. Spine
189
```
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Select one:
a. Brachial artery
b. Radial artery
c. Femoral artery
d. Carotid artery
```
a. Brachial artery
190
```
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
Select one:
a. Developmental psychology
b. Health psychology
c. Sport and exercise psychology
d. Social psychology
```
c. Sport and exercise psychology
191
```
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Select one:
a. Core training
b. Resistance training
c. Cardiorespiratory training
d. Balance training
```
b. Resistance training
192
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.
b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
c. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
d. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
c. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
193
```
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?
Select one:
a. Quadriceps
b. Biceps brachii
c. Gluteus medius
d. Adductor longus
```
a. Quadriceps
194
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Select one:
a. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
b. Any medical precautions or contraindications
c. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
d. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
b. Any medical precautions or contraindications
195
```
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Select one:
a. Ambiguity
b. Ambivalence
c. Unequivocal
d. Confusion
```
b. Ambivalence
196
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
Select one:
a. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
b. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
d. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
197
What is acidosis in muscle?
Select one:
a. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
d. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
198
```
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
Select one:
a. Closed-chain movements
b. Open-chain movements
c. Suspended bodyweight movements
d. Loaded movements
```
a. Closed-chain movements
199
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Select one:
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
d. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
200
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
b. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
d. It decreases core muscle activation.
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
201
```
Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Phases 2 and 3
b. Phases 4 and 5
c. Phases 3 and 4
d. Phases 1 and 3
```
b. Phases 4 and 5
202
```
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. A cadence of 36 steps per minute
b. A cadence of 60 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
```
d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
203
```
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
Select one:
a. 6 times a week
b. 3 times a week
c. 4 times a week
d. 5 times a week
```
d. 5 times a week
204
```
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Isometric contraction
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Stretch reflex
```
c. Reciprocal inhibition
205
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
Select one:
a. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
d. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
206
```
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Select one:
a. Hip hinge
b. Squatting
c. Pushing
d. Pulling
```
c. Pushing
207
```
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Pelvic floor muscles
b. Erector spinae
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Multifidus
```
b. Erector spinae
208
```
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
d. Concentric
```
c. Isometric
209
```
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
Select one:
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. Less than 15 seconds
c. 60 to 90 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds
```
d. 15 to 60 seconds
210
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:
a. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
c. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
c. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
211
```
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?
Select one:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Arteriosclerosis
```
d. Arteriosclerosis
212
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Select one:
a. Shoulder/military press
b. Squat jump
c. Stability ball push-up
d. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press
a. Shoulder/military press
213
```
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Select one:
a. Downward dog pose
b. Bound angle pose
c. Plow pose
d. Cat pose
```
c. Plow pose
214
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
Select one:
a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
215
```
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Select one:
a. Nonaxial
b. Condyloid
c. Synovial
d. Nonsynovial
```
a. Nonaxial
216
```
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Select one:
a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Thoracic and lumbar
d. Thoracic and sacral
```
d. Thoracic and sacral
217
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
Select one:
a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
218
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:
a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle
c. Having more fat stored on their body
d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
219
```
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Select one:
a. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
b. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
c. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
```
d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
220
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
c. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
221
```
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
Select one:
a. 0.92
b. 0.62
c. 0.22
d. 0.72
```
d. 0.72
222
```
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Select one:
a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Frozen shoulder
c. Shoulder impingement
d. Dislocation of the shoulder
```
c. Shoulder impingement
223
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
Select one:
a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
b. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
b. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
224
```
For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?
Select one:
a. Shoulder elevation
b. Scapular winging
c. Forward lean
d. Arms fall forward
```
a. Shoulder elevation
225
```
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:
a. Seven
b. Three
c. Six
d. Four
```
d. Four
226
```
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Select one:
a. Multifidus
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Erector spinae
d. Gluteus maximus
```
a. Multifidus
227
```
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Lower trapezius
c. Adductor complex
d. Gluteus maximus and medius
```
d. Gluteus maximus and medius
228
```
What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Select one:
a. Axial and appendicular
b. Anterior and posterior
c. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
d. Upper and lower
```
a. Axial and appendicular
229
```
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
Select one:
a. Fat-soluble vitamins
b. Vitamin C
c. Water-soluble vitamins
d. B vitamins
```
d. B vitamins
230
```
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Stabilization training
b. SAQ training
c. Plyometric training
d. Power training
```
c. Plyometric training
231
```
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:
a. Sensorimotor function
b. Vestibular
c. Somatosensation
d. Vision
```
c. Somatosensation
232
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Select one:
a. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity
b. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption
c. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
d. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training
c. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
233
```
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Select one:
a. Fewer capillaries
b. Less force production
c. Quick to fatigue
d. Larger in size
```
b. Less force production
234
```
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?
Select one:
a. Muscular hypertrophy
b. Stabilization
c. Rate of force production
d. Muscular endurance
```
d. Muscular endurance
235
```
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Hip flexor
```
c. Gluteus medius
236
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:
a. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
b. Continuous talking becomes challenging
c. Normal conversation is maintained.
d. Inability to speak at all
b. Continuous talking becomes challenging
237
```
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Select one:
a. Kettlebell
b. Sandbag
c. ViPR
d. Medicine ball
```
d. Medicine ball
238
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
b. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
b. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
239
```
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Select one:
a. Strength-focused exercise
b. Balance exercise
c. Plyometric exercise
d. Stabilization-focused exercise
```
d. Stabilization-focused exercise
240
```
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Select one:
a. Macronutrient metabolism
b. Cancer prevention
c. Muscle contraction
d. Hydration
```
a. Macronutrient metabolism
241
```
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?
Select one:
a. Processes
b. Sulcus
c. Depressions
d. Bone spurs
```
a. Processes
242
How is osteopenia best described?
Select one:
a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.
b. A disease characterized by low bone density.
c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
d. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
243
```
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
Select one:
a. 4 seconds
b. 1 second
c. 2 seconds
d. 3 seconds
```
c. 2 seconds
244
```
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Standing cobra
b. Floor bridge
c. Reverse crunch
d. Knee-up
```
a. Standing cobra
245
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Select one:
a. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.
c. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
246
```
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
Select one:
a. High-impact activity
b. Loaded movement training
c. Proprioceptive training
d. Low-impact activity
```
d. Low-impact activity
247
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Select one:
a. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
d. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
248
```
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
Select one:
a. 4 to 5 drills
b. 9 or 10 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
d. 2 to 4 drills
```
c. 6 to 8 drills
249
```
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Select one:
a. Arthrokinematics
b. Torque
c. Force
d. Force velocity
```
b. Torque
250
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Select one:
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
b. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
c. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
251
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
252
```
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Axial
c. Peripheral
d. Appendicular
```
d. Appendicular
253
```
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Depletion of phosphocreatine
b. Free hydrogen ions
c. Lack of pyruvate
d. Lack of fatty acids
```
b. Free hydrogen ions
254
```
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?
Select one:
a. Medially
b. Superiorly
c. Inferiorly
d. Laterally
```
c. Inferiorly
255
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement
b. Stabilize vertebral segments
c. Move the trunk
d. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities
b. Stabilize vertebral segments
256
```
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle
```
d. Right ventricle
257
```
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Select one:
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4
```
c. Zone 3
258
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
Select one:
a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking
d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
259
```
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Hamstrings complex
```
c. Hip flexor complex
260
```
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
Select one:
a. 7 to 9 drills
b. 4 to 6 drills
c. 9 or 10 drills
d. 1 or 2 drills
```
b. 4 to 6 drills
261
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Select one:
a. Ability to stretch in small increments
b. Altered movement patterns
c. Ability to stretch only one muscle
d. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
b. Altered movement patterns
262
```
Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one:
a. VO2max
b. Ventilatory threshold
c. Maximal heart rate
d. Steady-state heart rate
```
a. VO2max
263
```
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Select one:
a. Talk test
b. Duration of each stage
c. Environmental temperature
d. Exercise modality
```
c. Environmental temperature
264
```
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/86 mm Hg fall?
Select one:
a. Normal
b. Stage 2 hypertension
c. Elevated
d. Stage 1 hypertension
```
c. Elevated
265
```
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
Select one:
a. 3 to 5 reps
b. 8 to 10 reps
c. 6 to 8 reps
d. 1 or 2 reps
```
a. 3 to 5 reps
266
```
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?
Select one:
a. Lunge
b. Squat
c. Single-leg squat
d. Overhead squat
```
b. Squat
267
```
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Select one:
a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
d. Type 1 diabetes
```
b. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
268
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
d. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
a. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
269
```
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
Select one:
a. Rockport walk test
b. V̇O2max
c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
```
b. V̇O2max
270
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
Select one:
a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
c. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable
d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
271
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
272
```
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Select one:
a. Type I
b. Type IIa
c. Type IIx
d. Type III
```
a. Type I
273
```
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Select one:
a. Transverse
b. Frontal
c. Axial
d. Sagittal
```
a. Transverse
274
```
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Subscapularis
c. Anterior tibialis
d. Infraspinatus
```
b. Subscapularis
275
Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
Select one:
a. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
b. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
c. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.
d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
276
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?
Select one:
a. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant
b. The midline of the pelvis of the participant
c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
d. The head of the participant
c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
277
```
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
Select one:
a. 30
b. 35
c. 18
d. 25
```
a. 30
278
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes
b. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise
c. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest
d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
279
```
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Select one:
a. Amortization
b. Eccentric
c. Acceleration
d. Concentric
```
b. Eccentric
280
```
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
Select one:
a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 30%
d. 20%
```
a. 10%
281
```
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
Select one:
a. About 90%
b. About 50%
c. About 5-15%
d. About 30%
```
c. About 5-15%
282
```
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Select one:
a. Pushing assessment
b. Bench press strength assessment
c. Pulling assessment
d. Overhead press assessment
```
b. Bench press strength assessment
283
```
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 5 to 10 minutes
c. 3 to 4 minutes
d. 4 minutes
```
b. 5 to 10 minutes
284
```
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Select one:
a. Depth jumps
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Squat jump
```
b. Ice skaters
285
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
Select one:
a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.
b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
286
```
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Select one:
a. Lengthening reaction
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Length-tension relationships
d. Synergistic dominance
```
b. Reciprocal inhibition
287
```
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Select one:
a. Visual
b. Somatosensory
c. Sensorimotor function
d. Vestibular
```
d. Vestibular
288
```
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
Select one:
a. PAR-Q+
b. Dietary assessment
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. An annual physical
```
a. PAR-Q+
289
```
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
Select one:
a. 10 minutes
b. 35 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 2 minutes
```
a. 10 minutes
290
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?
Select one:
a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise
b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
291
```
Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise?
Select one:
a. Machine leg extension
b. Lat pulldown
c. Push-up
d. Bench press
```
c. Push-up
292
```
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered length-tension relationship
```
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
293
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
b. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
d. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
294
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
Select one:
a. Overhead squat
b. Pro shuttle
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. 40-yard dash
d. 40-yard dash
295
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
b. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press
c. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown
d. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
296
```
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Select one:
a. Motor unit recruitment
b. Overall base strength
c. Balance
d. Core stability
```
a. Motor unit recruitment
297
```
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
b. Hip flexors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
```
d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
298
```
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
b. Adductor complex
c. Abdominals
d. Upper trapezius
```
a. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
299
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
c. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
d. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
300
```
Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. BOSU squat
b. Multiplanar lunge
c. Dumbbell renegade row
d. Barbell squat
```
b. Multiplanar lunge
301
```
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Select one:
a. Ball cobra
b. Seated cable row
c. Close grip bench press
d. Lat pulldown
```
c. Close grip bench press
302
```
Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance
b. Power
c. Stabilization
d. Strength
```
a. Strength Endurance
303
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth
b. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain
c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
d. Stabilization, strength, and power
c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
304
```
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
Select one:
a. ATP and oxygen
b. ADP and hydrogen ions
c. ATP and water
d. ADP and water
```
c. ATP and water
305
```
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Select one:
a. Stabilize and extend the spine
b. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
c. Regulate inspiration
d. Support the contents of the pelvis
```
a. Stabilize and extend the spine
306
```
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus and medius
b. Lower trapezius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Adductor complex
```
a. Gluteus maximus and medius
307
```
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
Select one:
a. 75 minutes per week
b. 120 minutes per week
c. 90 minutes per week
d. 60 minutes per week
```
a. 75 minutes per week
308
```
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Butt kick
b. Power step-up
c. Tuck jump
d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
```
d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
309
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps
b. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings
c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
d. Active stretching of the hamstrings
c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
310
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Select one:
a. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going
d. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise
b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
311
```
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Amino acids
c. Lipids
d. Proteins
```
a. Carbohydrates
312
```
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Rotatores
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Iliopsoas
d. Rectus abdominis
```
a. Rotatores
313
```
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
Select one:
a. As exhaled carbon dioxide
b. As ATP
c. As water
d. As exhaled oxygen
```
a. As exhaled carbon dioxide
314
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?
Select one:
a. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain
b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation
b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
315
```
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 20 to 40 g
b. 30 to 50 g
c. 15 to 20 g
d. 60 to 70 g
```
a. 20 to 40 g
316
```
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Hip flexors
c. Abdominals
d. Upper trapezius
```
a. Lower trapezius
317
```
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Intensity
c. Volume
d. Frequency
```
b. Intensity
318
```
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Frontal
c. Axial
d. Transverse
```
a. Sagittal
319
```
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. The assembled environment
b. The constructed environment
c. The built environment
d. The manufactured environment
```
c. The built environment
320
```
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Select one:
a. Pushing assessment
b. Overhead squat
c. Pulling assessment
d. Single-leg squat
```
b. Overhead squat
321
What is sarcopenia?
Select one:
a. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
b. Chronic inflammation of the joints
c. Lower than normal bone mineral density
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
322
```
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.
Select one:
a. Bilateral
b. Loaded
c. Proprioceptive
d. Unilateral
```
d. Unilateral
323
```
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Power Training
d. Muscular Development Training
```
d. Muscular Development Training
324
```
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. The electron transport chain
```
a. Glycolysis
325
```
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 sets
b. 3 or 4 sets
c. 5 or 6 sets
d. 6 to 8 sets
```
a. 1 or 2 sets
326
```
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Select one:
a. Eccentric action
b. Isometric action
c. Concentric action
d. Isokinetic action
```
a. Eccentric action
327
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?
Select one:
a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
b. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
c. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation
d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
328
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
Select one:
a. The location of where one foot touches the ground
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
329
```
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors
b. Adductor complex
c. Gluteus maximus and medius
d. Upper trapezius
```
b. Adductor complex
330
```
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a. Landing mechanics
b. Force production
c. Core stability
d. Power development
```
a. Landing mechanics
331
```
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
Select one:
a. 0 sessions per week
b. 1 or 2 sessions per week
c. 5 to 7 sessions per week
d. 3 or 4 sessions per week
```
b. 1 or 2 sessions per week
332
```
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Transverse plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Horizontal plane
d. Frontal plane
```
d. Frontal plane
333
```
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. WHR of 0.88
b. WHR of 0.72
c. WHR of 0.83
d. WHR of 0.78
```
a. WHR of 0.88
334
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Select one:
a. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
b. Deadlifts and squats
c. Power step-ups and ice skaters
d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
335
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Select one:
a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
b. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
c. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation
d. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
336
```
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Cervical extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Serratus anterior
```
a. Lower trapezius
337
```
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Cool-down phase
b. Interval phase
c. Warm-up phase
d. Conditioning phase
```
b. Interval phase
338
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
Select one:
a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
b. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
c. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.
d. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier
a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
339
What is the most accurate description of motor control?
Select one:
a. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli
b. The integration of motor control processes through practice
c. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span
d. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
d. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
340
```
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship?
Select one:
a. Independent
b. Autonomous
c. Unequal
d. Reciprocal
```
d. Reciprocal
341
```
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
Select one:
a. The citric acid cycle
b. Glycolysis
c. The ATP-PC system
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
```
c. The ATP-PC system
342
```
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength
b. Stabilization Endurance
c. Strength Endurance
d. Power
```
c. Strength Endurance
343
```
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Select one:
a. Coping planning
b. Action planning
c. Self-monitoring
d. Goal setting
```
c. Self-monitoring
344
```
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Select one:
a. Stretch reflex
b. Isometric contraction
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
```
c. Autogenic inhibition
345
```
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
Select one:
a. Barbell squat
b. Terra-Core push-up
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Sandbag step-up
```
c. Medicine ball chest pass
346
```
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
```
b. Autogenic inhibition
347
```
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?
Select one:
a. Depth jumps
b. Box jump-down with stabilization
c. Squat jump with stabilization
d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
```
c. Squat jump with stabilization
348
```
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
Select one:
a. The Tanaka formula
b. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula
c. The talk test
d. Metabolic Equivalent (MET)
```
c. The talk test
349
```
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:
a. Beta-oxidation
b. Acidosis
c. Glycolysis
d. Ketosis
```
a. Beta-oxidation
350
```
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Select one:
a. Injury resistance
b. Posture
c. Rehabilitation
d. Performance
```
a. Injury resistance
351
```
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Theory of general relativity
b. Archimedes' principle
c. SAID principle
d. Law of thermodynamics
```
c. SAID principle
352
```
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Self-myofascial techniques
d. Active stretching
```
c. Self-myofascial techniques
353
```
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Select one:
a. Pyramid system
b. Drop set
c. Giant set
d. Complex training
```
d. Complex training
354
```
Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Phases 3 and 4
b. Phase 2 and 5
c. Phase 1 and Phase 4
d. Phase 2 and 3
```
b. Phase 2 and 5
355
```
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
Select one:
a. 0 times per week
b. 4 or 5 times per week
c. 5 to 7 times per week
d. 1 to 3 times per week
```
d. 1 to 3 times per week
356
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
Select one:
a. Decreased blood flow
b. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Lower body temperature
a. Decreased blood flow
357
```
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Iliopsoas
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Erector spinae
```
b. Iliopsoas
358
```
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?
Select one:
a. All-or-nothing principle
b. Archimedes' principle
c. Davis's principle
d. Principle of specificity
```
b. Archimedes' principle
359
```
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Speed
c. Agility
d. Quickness
```
d. Quickness
360
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
Select one:
a. 20 minutes of walking
b. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity
c. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity
d. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
d. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
361
```
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?
Select one:
a. One to two pages
b. Three to four pages
c. One page only
d. Two to three pages
```
a. One to two pages
362
```
A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density?
Select one:
a. Cycling
b. Swimming
c. Water aerobics
d. Walking
```
d. Walking
363
```
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. Slow to fatigue
b. Short-term contractions
c. Fewer capillaries
d. Decreased oxygen delivery
```
a. Slow to fatigue
364
```
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Static balance
d. Stationary balance
```
a. Dynamic balance
365
```
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Transverse
c. Dorsal
d. Frontal
```
b. Transverse
366
```
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Select one:
a. Agility
b. Speed
c. Stride rate
d. Quickness
```
d. Quickness
367
```
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Select one:
a. Vestibular system
b. Somatosensory system
c. Visual system
d. Hearing system
```
c. Visual system
368
```
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Teres major
d. Middle and lower trapezius
```
d. Middle and lower trapezius
369
```
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Flexibility
c. Muscular strength
d. Aerobic fitness
```
a. Power
370
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?
Select one:
a. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions.
b. Jumping down lessens force deceleration.
c. Jumping down requires more concentric force control.
d. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
d. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
371
```
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Societal influence
b. Health influence
c. Peer pressure
d. Group influence
```
d. Group influence
372
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Select one:
a. Central to the right and posterior to the spine
b. Central to the right and anterior to the spine
c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
d. Central to the left and posterior to the spine
c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
373
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Vertical jump
c. Pro shuttle
d. 40-yard dash
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
374
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
Select one:
a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
375
```
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Coping responses
c. Implementation intentions
d. Resisting social pressure
```
b. Coping responses
376
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Select one:
a. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
b. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
d. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
377
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
Select one:
a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
b. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.
c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.
d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension
d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension
378
```
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Body composition assessments
b. Strength assessments
c. Movement assessments
d. PAR-Q+
```
c. Movement assessments
379
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Select one:
a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
c. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
d. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
380
```
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:
a. Intention
b. Self-regulation
c. Outcome expectations
d. Self-efficacy
```
d. Self-efficacy
381
```
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Muscle atrophy
d. Neural adaptations
```
d. Neural adaptations
382
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. 40-yard dash
c. Vertical jump
d. Pro shuttle
c. Vertical jump
383
```
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner?
Select one:
a. Confidentiality
b. Legal and ethical
c. Professionalism
d. Business practice
```
a. Confidentiality
384
```
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations?
Select one:
a. 0.3
b. 0.2
c. 0.1
d. 0.4
```
c. 0.1
385
```
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?
Select one:
a. Fourth class
b. First class
c. Third class
d. Second class
```
b. First class
386
```
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?
Select one:
a. Legal and ethical
b. Business practice
c. Confidentiality
d. Professionalism
```
d. Professionalism
387
```
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
Select one:
a. 10 to 15 drills
b. 1 to 3 drills
c. 6 to 10 drills
d. 3 to 5 drills
```
c. 6 to 10 drills
388
```
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
Select one:
a. An RPE of 7 to 8
b. An RPE of 5 to 6
c. An RPE of 3 to 4
d. An RPE of 9 to 10
```
b. An RPE of 5 to 6
389
```
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Back muscles only
b. Local and global muscles
c. Global muscles
d. Local muscles
```
d. Local muscles
390
```
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Two-arm push press
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Soccer throw
```
a. Two-arm push press
391
```
Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion
b. Hip extension
c. Hip flexion
d. Knee flexion
```
b. Hip extension
392
```
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Select one:
a. All planes of motion
b. Frontal and sagittal
c. Sagittal and transverse
d. Transverse and frontal
```
b. Frontal and sagittal
393
```
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
Select one:
a. Cardiac output
b. Venous return
c. Resting heart rate
d. Stroke volume
```
d. Stroke volume
394
```
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Select one:
a. Training frequency
b. Recovery
c. Volume
d. Intensity
```
a. Training frequency
395
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Select one:
a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
b. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
396
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?
Select one:
a. HRmax x % intensity desired
b. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest
c. VO2max x % intensity desired
d. 208 - (0.7 x age)
d. 208 - (0.7 x age)
397
```
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
Select one:
a. 25 breaths per minute
b. 7 breaths per minute
c. 15 breaths per minute
d. 19 breaths per minute
```
c. 15 breaths per minute
398
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:
a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
b. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
d. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
b. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
399
```
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
Select one:
a. Unique selling proposition (USP)
b. Statement of work (SOW)
c. SWOT analysis
d. PERT estimate
```
a. Unique selling proposition (USP)
400
```
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. 16 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 14 inches
d. 10 inches
```
b. 12 inches
401
What is bioenergetics?
Select one:
a. The study of weight loss
b. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
c. The study of aerobic metabolism
d. The study of metabolism during exercise
b. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
402
```
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Quadriceps
c. Biceps brachii
d. Triceps brachii
```
d. Triceps brachii
403
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
b. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
404
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?
Select one:
a. It is an acute disease.
b. It is typically a stress-induced condition.
c. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms.
d. It is not a curable disease.
d. It is not a curable disease.
405
```
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Select one:
a. Isotonic
b. Concentric
c. Isometric
d. Eccentric
```
b. Concentric
406
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Select one:
a. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
b. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
d. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
d. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
407
```
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Select one:
a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Thoracic and sacral
c. Cervical and sacral
d. Thoracic and lumbar
```
b. Thoracic and sacral
408
```
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?
Select one:
a. Linear periodization
b. Undulating periodization
c. Direct periodization
d. Localized periodization
```
b. Undulating periodization
409
```
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Anterior
c. Superior
d. Posterior
```
d. Posterior
410
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Select one:
a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week
d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
411
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
b. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases
c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
412
```
According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
Select one:
a. Proper movement
b. Endurance
c. Mobility
d. Stability
```
b. Endurance
413
What are the two components of the central nervous system?
Select one:
a. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems
b. The nerves and sensory receptors
c. The brain and spinal cord
d. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
c. The brain and spinal cord
414
```
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Select one:
a. Archimedes’ principle
b. Wolff's law
c. Davis's law
d. Overload principle
```
c. Davis's law
415
```
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
Select one:
a. 0.8
b. 0.6
c. 0.4
d. 0.2
```
c. 0.4
416
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Pull the elbows into extension
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
417
```
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Select one:
a. Iliopsoas
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Erector spinae
d. Multifidus
```
d. Multifidus
418
```
Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?
Select one:
a. Anterior chain
b. Transverse plane
c. Posterior chain
d. Sagittal plan
```
c. Posterior chain
419
```
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Select one:
a. Skill development
b. Activation
c. Client's choice
d. Resistance training
```
b. Activation
420
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Select one:
a. Increased muscle strength and speed
b. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion
c. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
d. Increased mobility and balance
c. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
421
```
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Select one:
a. Soft tissue
b. Nerves
c. Heart
d. Bone
```
b. Nerves
422
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
423
```
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Select one:
a. Acetyl CoA
b. Amino acids
c. Pyruvate
d. ATP
```
a. Acetyl CoA
424
```
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Select one:
a. Anterior chain
b. Intrinsic core musculature
c. Deep cervical flexors
d. Posterior chain
```
d. Posterior chain
425
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?
Select one:
a. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
426
```
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
Select one:
a. Right atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Right ventricle
```
a. Right atrium
427
```
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a. Force production
b. Power development
c. Landing mechanics
d. Core stability
```
c. Landing mechanics
428
Balance is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping
b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
c. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
d. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration
b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
429
```
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
Select one:
a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
b. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
c. Rockport walk test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
```
b. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
430
What is end-diastolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
431
```
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
Select one:
a. Not at all
b. Equally
c. Less efficiently
d. More efficiently
```
d. More efficiently
432
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
433
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
b. Hamstrings and erector spinae
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
a. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
434
```
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Suspended bodyweight training
b. TRX Rip Trainer
c. Cable machines
d. Terra-Core
```
c. Cable machines
435
```
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
Select one:
a. 2 to 4 drills
b. 4 to 5 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
d. 9 or 10 drills
```
c. 6 to 8 drills
436
Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?
Select one:
a. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.
b. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.
c. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises.
d. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations.
b. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.
437
```
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Select one:
a. Quickness and agility
b. Stride rate and stride length
c. Acceleration and deceleration
d. Power and time
```
b. Stride rate and stride length
438
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
Select one:
a. Fat would be the main energy source.
b. A steady-state intensity would be used.
c. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
d. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source.
c. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
439
```
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Select one:
a. Concentric
b. Stabilization
c. Eccentric
d. Amortization
```
d. Amortization
440
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
441
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?
Select one:
a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
442
```
What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed?
Select one:
a. Acute variables
b. Macrocycle
c. Periodization
d. Training plan
```
d. Training plan
443
```
When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Action
c. Precontemplation
d. Contemplation
```
d. Contemplation
444
```
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Rhomboids
b. Rotator cuff muscles
c. Serratus anterior
d. Deltoid
```
c. Serratus anterior
445
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Select one:
a. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going
b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
c. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
d. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise
b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
446
```
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength Training
b. Power Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
```
d. Strength Endurance Training
447
```
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength
b. Muscular Development
c. Stabilization Endurance
d. Strength Endurance
```
b. Muscular Development
448
```
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Select one:
a. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
b. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
c. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
```
d. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
449
```
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Select one:
a. Left bundle branch
b. Intercalated discs
c. Internodal pathway
d. Right bundle branch
```
c. Internodal pathway
450
```
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
Select one:
a. 500 kcal
b. 5,000 kcal
c. 12,000 kcal
d. 1,200 kcal
```
d. 1,200 kcal
451
```
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Select one:
a. Multiple-set system
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system
d. Complex training
```
b. Pyramid system
452
```
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Arthrokinematic
c. Posterior
d. Osteokinematic
```
b. Arthrokinematic
453
```
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 1
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4
```
a. Zone 2
454
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Select one:
a. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
b. Davis's law and Wolf's law
c. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
d. Pain response and muscle spasm
c. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
455
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
Select one:
a. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity
b. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity
c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
d. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
456
```
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings complex
b. Hip flexors
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus medius
```
b. Hip flexors
457
```
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Multifidus
d. Iliopsoas
```
c. Multifidus
458
```
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Speed
c. Neuromuscular stabilization
d. Strength
```
c. Neuromuscular stabilization
459
```
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg balance
d. Single-leg lift and chop
```
b. Single-leg squat
460
```
Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?
Select one:
a. Antagonist
b. Stabilizer
c. Synergist
d. Agonist
```
c. Synergist
461
```
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
Select one:
a. 3 or 4 sessions per week
b. 5 to 7 sessions per week
c. 1 or 2 sessions per week
d. 0 sessions per week
```
c. 1 or 2 sessions per week
462
```
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Pelvic floor musculature
```
c. Transverse abdominis
463
```
For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
Select one:
a. 25 to 75 kcal
b. 600 to 700 kcal
c. 100 to 150 kcal
d. 200 to 300 kcal
```
d. 200 to 300 kcal
464
```
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Select one:
a. Lat pulldown
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Stability ball push-up
d. Dumbbell shoulder press
```
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
465
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Pro shuttle
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Long (broad) jump
b. Pro shuttle
466
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
467
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
Select one:
a. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
b. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
d. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
468
```
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?
Select one:
a. Knee dominance
b. Knee varus
c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
d. Knee valgus
```
b. Knee varus
469
```
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
Select one:
a. 150 minutes per week
b. 125 minutes per week
c. 300 minutes per week
d. 75 minutes per week
```
a. 150 minutes per week
470
```
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings complex
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Hip flexor complex
```
d. Hip flexor complex
471
```
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?
Select one:
a. Phosphorylation
b. ATP-PC
c. Transformation
d. Oxidation
```
a. Phosphorylation
472
```
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Select one:
a. Synergist function
b. Feed-forward
c. Antagonist function
d. Feedback
```
b. Feed-forward
473
A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?
Select one:
a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
b. In order for exercise to improve sleep, it must be coupled with medication.
c. Getting 10 minutes a day of physical activity is all that is needed to improve insomnia.
d. Resistance training has not been shown to have any positive effect on sleep disturbances.
a. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
474
```
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Select one:
a. Change of direction
b. Power
c. Speed
d. Strength
```
a. Change of direction
475
```
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?
Select one:
a. Squat jump with stabilization
b. Depth jumps
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
d. Box jump-down with stabilization
```
a. Squat jump with stabilization
476
```
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Select one:
a. Hip extension
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip internal rotation
d. Hip adduction
```
a. Hip extension
477
```
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
Select one:
a. Sandbag squat
b. Machine leg press
c. Barbell squats
d. BOSU squat
```
d. BOSU squat
478
```
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Overhead medicine ball throw
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
```
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
479
```
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Skill development
b. Warm-up
c. Cool-down
d. Resistance
```
a. Skill development
480
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Pro shuttle
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
481
```
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Global muscles
b. Local and global muscles
c. Back muscles only
d. Local muscles
```
d. Local muscles
482
```
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Select one:
a. Biomechanics
b. Kinesiology
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Osteokinematics
```
d. Osteokinematics
483
```
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Select one:
a. Dorsal
b. Frontal
c. Transverse
d. Sagittal
```
c. Transverse
484
What is end-systolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
485
```
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular specificity
b. Posture specificity
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Mechanical specificity
```
d. Mechanical specificity
486
```
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
c. Medial pelvic tilt
d. Lateral pelvic tilt
```
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
487
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
Select one:
a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
488
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
b. It decreases core muscle activation.
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
d. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
489
```
When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?
Select one:
a. 1 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 0.5 in.
d. 1.5 in.
```
b. 2 in.
490
```
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Select one:
a. Overload principle
b. Davis's law
c. Wolff's law
d. Archimedes’ principle
```
b. Davis's law
491
```
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Select one:
a. Stage 2
b. Stage 3
c. Stage 1
d. Stage 4
```
c. Stage 1
492
```
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Select one:
a. Coping planning
b. Action planning
c. Self-monitoring
d. Goal setting
```
c. Self-monitoring
493
```
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?
Select one:
a. Enlisting social support
b. Coping planning
c. Self-monitoring
d. Action planning
```
c. Self-monitoring
494
```
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Multifidus
b. Pelvic floor muscles
c. Erector spinae
d. Transverse abdominis
```
c. Erector spinae
495
```
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Adductor complex
d. Hip flexors
```
c. Adductor complex
496
```
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Lateral triceps brachii
c. Lateral hamstrings
d. Middle deltoid
```
d. Middle deltoid
497
```
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 4 to 8 drills per workout
b. 1 or 2 drills per workout
c. 2 or 3 drills per workout
d. 9 or 10 drills per workout
```
a. 4 to 8 drills per workout
498
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
b. Young children and older adults
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Pregnancy and diabetes
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
499
```
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Select one:
a. Vitamin
b. Macromineral
c. Performance supplement
d. Trace mineral
```
d. Trace mineral
500
```
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?
Select one:
a. Guided practice
b. Implementation intention
c. Self-monitoring
d. Coping plan
```
b. Implementation intention
501
```
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Validity
b. Relevance
c. Appropriateness
d. Reliability
```
a. Validity
502
```
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Isolating
b. Bracing
c. Drawing in
d. Inhibition
```
b. Bracing
503
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The Z-lines moving farther apart
b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
504
```
Which vitamin is the most transient?
Select one:
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A
```
c. Vitamin C
505
```
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:
a. ViPR
b. Strength machines
c. Suspended bodyweight training
d. Speed ladders
```
a. ViPR
506
```
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 2
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 5
d. Phase 3
```
a. Phase 2
507
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy.
b. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity.
c. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture.
d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
508
Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Select one:
a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
b. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
b. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
509
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
b. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
