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Ocular Pathology & Pharmacology 1 > OPT2222 Exam 1 > Flashcards

OPT2222 Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How do you control microorganisms?

A

Disinfectants
Antiseptics
Sterilization
Hand Washing (Sanitization and Degermination)

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2
Q

What is sepsis?

A

State of putrefaction or decay

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3
Q

What is the application of agents onto body surfaces (skin, conjunctiva) to destroy or slow growing microorganisms?

A

Antiseptics

pH balanced and isotonic

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4
Q

What is the application of agents onto inanimate surfaces (counters, instruments) to destroy or slow growing microorganisms?

A

Disinfectants

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5
Q

What is the complete removal and destruction of all microorganisms on an inanimate surface?

A

Sterilization

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6
Q

What microorganisms have the highest microbial resistance?

A

Nonliving prions
Dormant Bacterial endospores
[things you can’t kill since they aren’t alive]

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7
Q

What microorganisms have moderate microbial resistance?

A 
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (b/c of waxy coat)
Staphylococcus Aureus (most plentiful microbe on body)
Protozoan Cysts (can fight destruction)
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8
Q

What microorganisms have the least microbial resistance?

A

Bacterial vegetative cells
Fungal spores, hyphae, yeast
Enveloped Viruses
Protozoan Trophozoites

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9
Q

What is microbial death?

A

Permanent loss of reproductive capability

hard to detect even under optimal growth conditions

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10
Q

What are the 9 factors that influence death rate of microorganisms?

A 
Number of microbes
Nature of microbes
Temperature
pH
Concentration of agent
Mode of action of agent
Presence of solvents
Organic Matter
Inhibitors
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11
Q

What is the anitmicrobial mode of action of drugs, detergents and alcohol?

A

Cell wall becomes fragile and cell lyses

remember….eukaryotic cells don’t have a cell wall

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12
Q

What is the anitmicrobial mode of action of detergent surfactants?

A

Cell membrane loses integrity (surface wall breaks up)

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13
Q

What is the anitmicrobial mode of action of cholramphenicol, ultraviolet radiation and formaldehyde?

A

Prevention of replication, transcription, translation and protein synthesis

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14
Q

What is the anitmicrobial mode of action of heat?

A

Disrupt or denature proteins

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15
Q

What is the shortest time to kill all microbes at a specific temperature?

A

Thermal Death Time (TDT)

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16
Q

What is the lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in 10 minutes?

A

Thermal Death Point (TDP)

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17
Q

What is moist heat sterilization?

A

Steam under pressure
Autoclave
Steam must reach surface of item being sterilized
Item must not be heat, pressure or moisture sensitive

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18
Q

What are the requirements for autoclaving?

A

15 psi
121 degrees Celsius
10-40 minutes

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19
Q

What method can be used for intermittent sterilization when substances cannot withstand autoclaving?

A

Tyndallization (nonpressurized application of steam)

not effective in medicine

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20
Q

What is tyndallization used for?

A

canned foods and laboratory media

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21
Q

What is deep penetrating energy that causes electrons to leave their orbit (breaks/damages DNA)?

A

Ionizing Radiation (gamma, x-rays, cathode ray)

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22
Q

How many levels of chemical decontamination and what are they?

A

3 levels:
High-level germicides
Intermediate level
Low-level

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23
Q

What do high level germicides do and what are they used for?

A

They kill endospores (sterilants) and are used in sterile environments (body tissue).
They are usually toxic.

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24
Q

What do intermediate level germicides do and what are they used for?

A

They kill fungal spores, tubercle bacillus and viruses. They are used to disinfect devices in contact with mucous membranes.

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25
Q

What do low level germicides do and what are they used for?

A

They eliminate vegetative bacteria, vegetative fungal cells and sensitive viruses. They are used to clean surfaces that touch skin.

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26
Q

How do halogens work?

A

Denature proteins by disrupting disulfide bonds

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27
Q

How do surfactants work?

A

Dissolve membrane lipids and coagulating proteins of vegetative bacterial cells and fungi

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28
Q

Nosocomial or HAI

A

hospital or health care center acquired infection

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29
Q

Zoonosis

A

animal acquired infection in a human

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30
Q

hypopyon

A

accumulation of pus in anterior chamber of eye

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31
Q

What does the Greek word pathos mean?

A

Feeling, suffering

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32
Q

What does the Greek word logia mean?

A

The study of

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33
Q

What does pathology mean?

A

The study of disease

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34
Q

What are the top 5 causes of Blindness in the US?

A
  1. Age-related macular degeneration
  2. Cataracts (top cause worldwide)
  3. Diabetic retinopathy
  4. Glaucoma
  5. Corneal opacification
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35
Q

How many people get regular eye exams?

A

21% of population

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36
Q

What is the most common differential diagnosis made?

A

Diagnosis of the Red Eye

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37
Q

What are Cataracts?

A

A clouding of the natural lens of the eye

Only solution is surgery

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38
Q

What is involved in cataract surgery?

A

Microincision
Phacoemulsification - ultrasonic, breaks up cataract and removes through same tool
Femtosecond Laser Surgery - makes incision and breaks up cataract, removal and insertion of IOL still done mechanically
Removal of clouded lens
Insertion of IOL

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39
Q

What are the goals of microsurgery of the eye?

A

Improve vision for the visually impaired

Restore vision for those who cannot see

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40
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

An increase in the eye pressure (normal is 18-20 mmHg) that damages the optic nerve.
Though pressure is not the only cause and is not always directly related to damage)

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41
Q

How many people are affected by glaucoma?

A

67 million worldwide
3 million in US
1 out of 40 are unaware have it (happens gradually, painless)
African Americans are 4X as common and 10X as likely to go blind.

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42
Q

What do you lose first with glaucoma?

A

peripheral vision

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43
Q

How is glaucoma diagnosed?

A

Measure eye pressure
Image the Optic nerve
Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
Measure Visual Field

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44
Q

What are the diseases of the Retina?

A

Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD)

Diabetic retinopathy

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45
Q

What does the Greek word pharmakon mean?

A

Poison or Drug

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46
Q

What is pharmacology?

A

The study of drugs or medicinals

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47
Q

How are ocular drugs administered?

A

Topical
Oral - very difficult
Injection under or into eye
Intravenous

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48
Q

What are Water mixtures?

A

Substances that are physically but not chemically combined

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49
Q

Water comprises how much of body weight?

A

50-75%

The eye is mostly water.

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50
Q

What is solvency?

A

The ability to dissolve chemicals

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51
Q

Do hydrophobic or hydrophilic substances dissolve in water?

A

Hydrophilic (charged substances) dissolve in water.

Hydrophobic (neutral substances) dissolve in oil.

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52
Q

What are the different types of drugs?

A 
Solutions
Suspensions
Colloids
Emulsions
Ointments
Creams
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53
Q

What is a Solution?

A

A mixture of solute in solvent.
Small particles easily pass through cell membranes
Transparent
Remains mixed

54
Q

What is a Colloid?

A

A mixture of protein and water.
Particles are too large to pass through cell membranes
Cloudy

55
Q

What is a Suspension?

A 
Particles suspended in solvent
Too large to pass through a cell membrane
Opaque
Separates on standing
Steroid in water
56
Q

What is an Emulsion?

A

Suspension of one liquid in another

Example: oil in water (salad dressing)

57
Q

What are Universal Precautions?

A

Handling everything with the assumption that it is contaminated/lethal

58
Q

What is the first line of defense to fighting pathogens?

A

Disinfect the External Barrier (skin)

Wash hands!

59
Q

What are the 3 elements of disease transmission?

A
  1. A source or reservoir of infectious agent
  2. A susceptible hostwith a portal of entry for the agent
  3. A mode of transmission (You!)
60
Q

How can diseases be transmitted?

A

Direct Contact - 1 person to another

Indirect Contact - through a contaminated object (fomite)

61
Q

What is the easiest way to infect an eye?

A
  1. Direct Contact (person to person)
  2. Indirect Contact (fomite)
  3. Person infects themselves (most common)
62
Q

Methods for Studying Microbes

A

Staining

Culturing

63
Q

What are the 5 I’s of culturing microbes?

A

Inoculation - introduction of a sample into a container of media to produce a culture of observable growth
Incubation - conditions that allow growth
Isolation - separating one species from another
Inspection - looking at characteristics
Identification

64
Q

What is a colony?

A

a mass of the same bacterial cell type

65
Q

What are the techniques for Isolation?

A

Streaking
Pouring
Spreading

66
Q

What is unique about ophthalmic cultures?

A

Sample must be obtained directly from patient (only take cells from area in question so as not to get other microbes on lashes, etc.)
Must be plated and cultured immediately

67
Q

What is the most common nutrient media?

A

Nutrient broth - liquid medium containing beef extract and peptone

68
Q

What types of cultures can be seen in Inspection phase (look and observe)?

A

Pure culture - grows only a single known species
Mixed culture - holds two or more identified species
Contaminated culture - grows unwanted microbes

69
Q

How do you dispose of cultures?

A

Incineration or Steam sterilization

70
Q

What type of image does the objective lens create?

A

Magnified real image

71
Q

What type of image does the oculars create?

A

Virtual image you see

72
Q

What is the total magnification of a microscope?

A

Power of the Objective lens x Power of Ocular

73
Q

What is Resolving Power?

A

Resolution - the capability to distinguish between two adjacent objects

74
Q

What is resolving power a function of?

A

The wavelength of light and the characteristics of the objective lens (if wavelength of object looking at is smaller than the wavelength of light, can’t see with light microscope!)

75
Q

What is the numerical aperture of lens?

A

Ranges from 0.1 to 1.25

Increases depth of focus, but decreases amount of light coming in so can’t see as well

76
Q

What does Oil immersion prevent and what is it used for?

A

Prevents Refractive loss of light resolution

Used for higher magnifiation 40X to 2000X

77
Q

Applying optical lens directly to the eye with a coupling fluid (like an oil immersion lens on a microscope) is what?

A

Gonioscopy

78
Q

What is the most common stain?

A

H and E

Hematoxylin (blue) and Eosin (red)

79
Q

Basic Staining characteristics

A

Cationic + Chromophore (colored molecule)
Positive staining
Surfaces of microbes negatively charged attract basic dyes
Blue

80
Q

Acidic Staining characteristics

A

Anionic + chromophore
Negative staining
Microbe repels dye and background is stained
Red

81
Q

Using one dye that reveals shape, size and arrangement of cells is called?

A

Simple stain

82
Q

Using a primary stain and a counterstain that distinguishes cell types or parts is called? Give examples

A

Differential stain
Gram stain (+ = blue and - = red, - bacteria are usu. in gut)
Acid-fast stain (for dense, waxy, capsulated bacteria)
Endospore stain (anthrax)

83
Q

What are the 4 basic steps of a Gram stain?

A

Primary stain - Crystal Violet
Trapping agent - Gram’s iodine
Decolorization - Alcohol or acetone
Counterstain - Safranin

84
Q

What is an infection?

A

When pathogenic microbes penetrate host defenses, enter tissues, and multiply

85
Q

What are established resident microbes that the body harbors in areas that contact the outside environment?

A

Resident Flora

86
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum

A

an STD transmitted from mother to baby’s ocular conjunctiva and cornea (through vaginal delivery)

87
Q

What benefits the host by preventing overgrowth of harmful microbes (antagonism)?

A

Normal resident flora

88
Q

What occurs when normal flora get into a microbe-free area such as the inside of the eye?

A

Endogenous Infection (endophthalmitis - intraocular infection)

89
Q

What are the 2 cutaneous populations of flora on the skin?

A

Transients - Influenced by hygiene

Resident - Stable and predictable

90
Q

Body has how many cells?

A

10 to the 13th (most microbes in skin are gram + cocci)

91
Q

Gastrointestinal tract has how many microbes in colon?

A

10 to the 14th (10X as many cells in our body)

92
Q

What causes disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses?

A

True pathogen

93
Q

How do you restore normal resident flora?

A

Probiotics - return good microbes back to body

Appendix stores all intestinal bacteria so can replenish if needed

94
Q

What causes disease when the host’s defenses are compromised?

A

Opportunistic pathogens

95
Q

What is the minimum number of microbes required for infection called?

A

Infectioous Dose (ID)

96
Q

How do pathogens attach to their host?

A

Adhesion

97
Q

What are toxic to white blood cells?

A

Leukocidins

98
Q

What dissolves extracellular barriers and penetrate cells?

A

Exoenzymes

99
Q

What pathogens has strong specificity for a target cell?

A

Exotoxins

100
Q

What are A-B Toxins?

A

Hemolysins

101
Q

What releases LPS as part of the outer membrane of Gram - cell walls?

A

Endotoxins

102
Q

What are the 4 stages of clinical infection?

A

Incubation
Prodrome
Invasion
Convalescence

103
Q

What is the time from initial contact with a pathogen to appearance of symptoms?

A

Incubation and Prodrome

104
Q

In what stage of clinical infection does the agent multiply but damage is insufficient to cause symptoms?

A

Incubation and Prodrome

105
Q

In what clinical infection stage does the microbe multiply to high levels, become established and begin showing more specific signs and symptoms?

A

Invasion

106
Q

In what clinical infection stage does the patient begin to defeat the infection, symptoms lessen, vision improves, and redness, swelling and discharge reduce?

A

Convalescence

107
Q

What type of infection remains confined strictly to the specific tissue or area infected?

A

Localized infection

108
Q

What is a localized infectious agent inoculated into the conjunctiva and causes disease elsewhere in the body?

A

Focal infection

109
Q

What infection spreads through the bloodstream to other tissues and organs?

A

Systemic infection

110
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  1. Tumor - swelling
  2. Rubor - redness
  3. Calor - heat
  4. Dolor - pain
  5. Functio laesa - loss of function
111
Q

What occurs when microorganisms multiply and travel in the bloodstream?

A

Septicemia

112
Q

What is it called when there are small numbers of bacteria present in the blood (not necs. causing disease)?

A

Bacteremia

113
Q

What is it called when there are small numbers of viruses present in the blood?

A

Viremia

114
Q

What would you call an individual infected with a microbe but showing no signs of infection?

A

Asymptomatic

115
Q

What is a person, symptomatic or not, that spreads infection to others?

A

A Carrier

A Reservoir of infection

116
Q

Soil, water and air are what type of reservoir?

A

Nonliving reservoirs

117
Q

When an infected host infects another with a communicable disease

A

contagious

118
Q

What are the modes of transmission for infection?

A

Direct - physical contact

Indirect - from infected host to an intermediate then to another host (fomite)

119
Q

What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections?

A

E. coli (gut)
Pseudomonas (wet areas, water)
Staphylococcus (skin)
2-4 million cases/yr 90,000 deaths

120
Q

Why practice universal precautions?

A

to prevent the spread of infections

121
Q

What is the study of the frequency and distribution of disease?

A

Epidemiology

122
Q

What is collecting, analyzing and reporting data on rates or occurrence called?

A

Surveillance

123
Q

What is the number of people in a population that have died?

A

Mortality

124
Q

What is the number of people in a population with disease?

A

Morbidity

125
Q

What is the principal government agency responsible for keeping track of infectious disease nationwide?

A

Centers for Disease Control (CDC) in Atlanta, GA

126
Q

What is morbidity with a steady frequency over time in a particular locale?

A

Endemic

127
Q

What is morbidity with occasional cases at irregular intervals?

A

Sporadic

128
Q

What is morbidity with increasing prevalence of a disease beyond expectations?

A

Epidemic

129
Q

What ocular disease always leads to an epidemic if source is not controlled with quarantine?

A

Infectious Pink Eye or Epidemic Keratoconjunctivitis (EKC)

130
Q

What culture media absorbs oxygen, slows penetration of oxygen into medium, and is used for growing anaerobic bacteria?

A

Reducing media

131
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation?

A

Limits spread and destroys pathogens
Removes cellular debris
Initiates tissue repair

Ocular Pathology & Pharmacology 1 (3 decks)

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