Opthal + Neurology + ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the antidote for an Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor overdose e.g. taking too many tablets to treat Myasthenia gravis?

A

atropine- an anticholinergic

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2
Q

What is lateral medullary syndrome/Wallenberg?

A

occlusion of the PICA (posterior inferior cerebellar artery) due to a stroke

Symptoms include:
-contralateral loss of pain and temperature on body
-ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature on face
-dysphagia, hoarseness and loss of gag reflex
-ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome: miosis, ptosis, absence of sweating
-vertigo to fall to ipsilateral side and double vision (diplopia)
-ipsilateral ataxia

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3
Q

What is the difference between: glaucoma, cataracts, amblyopia, age-related macular degeneration (AMD), retinal detachment and retinoblastoma?

A

glaucoma: Eye pain or high pressure, headaches, Rainbow-coloured halos around lights, tunnel vision, AFFECTS PERIPHERAL VISION, nausea and vomiting

cataracts: Cloudy/blurry vision, Trouble seeing at night, Changes to the way you see colour, red lights in photos

amblyopia: “lazy eye”-reduced vision in the non-favored eye. This is the most common cause of SQUINT (if left untreated)/vision impairment in children

AMD: Blurred central vision, Black or dark spots in the center part of your field of vision, Wavy or curved appearance to straight lines

retinal detachment: floaters, flashes of light in one or both eyes (photopsia), blurred vision, Gradually reduced side (peripheral) vision, A curtain-like shadow over your field of vision, red eyes in photos

retinoblastoma: in children under 5, pupil is covered with white reflex

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4
Q

What is the definition of a chronic migraine/tension-type headache?

A

At least 15 days per month for >3 months in the absence of medication overuse

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5
Q

What is the difference between lesions in the broca’s and wernicke’s area?

A

B: short words/sentences: frontal lobe: expressive

W: what they say doesn’t make sense: temporal lobe: receptive

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6
Q

What is the first line long-term and short-term treatment for CLUSTER headaches?

A

Short-term = oxygen and triptan

long-term = Verapamil

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7
Q

Explain Weber and Rinne’s tests.

A

512 Hz

Weber’s
-Sound louder in bad ear= conductive loss
-sound louder in good ear=sensorineural hearing loss

LATERALISED TO UNAFFECTED EAR

Rinne’s
-hear noise better from ear rather than bone = no conductive hearing loss

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8
Q

Where is long term memory controlled in the brain?

A

The hippocampus in the middle temporal lobe

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9
Q

What is the acute and long-term (prophylactic) treatment for migraines?

A

acute = paracetamol + triptans (even in pregnancy)

for nausea: metoclopramide

prophylactic = propranolol (not in asthma) OR topiramate, amitriptyline, acupuncture (triptans can be used as prophylaxis for menstrual migraines)

avoid CHOCOLATE:
Chocolate
cHeese
cOCP
Caffeine
alcohOl
anxiety
travel
exercise

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10
Q

What information does the spinothalamic tract carry?

A

Pain
Temperature
Simple touch

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11
Q

What is heschl’s gyrus?

A

Primary auditory cortex

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12
Q

What is phenylephrine?

A

Sympathetic agonist used in the eyecauses dilation (mydriasis) and vasoconstriction in the Sclera (very white eyes)

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13
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease and what are the symptoms, diagnostic criteria, investigations and management?

A

Death of dopamine in the substantia nigra (basal ganglia)

Brain Bank Criteria

-unilateral tremor that occurs at rest and disappears with use of limbs: pill rolling
-bradykinesia (slow movement)
-shuffling gate
-rigid: cogwheel
-depression
-mask like expression
-REM sleep behaviour disorder
-postural hypotension

treatments:
-MR scan of brain: hummingbird, hot cross bun
-DAT scan
-SPECT scan
-Levodopa drug-dopamine agonists e.g. Ropinirole
-Monoamine oxidase inhibitors e.g. rasagaline
(Can give drugs as a patch too)

-ropinirol
-MDT: salt, ot
-falls assessent
-be aware of NMS

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14
Q

How is the frontal lobe assessed?

A

The stroop effect (words are in their colours)

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15
Q

What nerves supply the muscles of mastication and then tensor tympanum?

A

Mandibular division of the trigeminal.

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16
Q

What would a “hummingbird sign” and “hot cross bun sign” mean on an MRI?

A

It signifies Parkinson’s but there are different causes of Parksion’s.

two of which are below:
supranuclear palsy = hummingbird sign

multisystem atrophy = hot cross bun
this condition is just parkinsons but with autonomic features e.g. erectile dysfunction, postural hypotension, atonic bladder

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17
Q

What is the difference between a migraine, tension type headahce and a cluster headache?

A

migraine = unilateral + bilateral, pulsing, nausea/vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, lasts hours-days

tension type = bilateral, none of the above features

cluster = unilateral, conjunctival injection, lacrimation, nasal congestion, rhinorrhoea, eyelid swelling/drooping, lasts 15mins-3hours

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18
Q

What cranial is affected if there are problems with vision when going down the stairs?

A

4th cranial nerve- trochlear

if it is affected it cause the eye to be drawn upwards

patient can compensate by when giving them something to read they might tilt their head

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19
Q

What are the different types of seizures and the first line treatment for them?

A

-febrile convulsions = no specific treatment

-focal seizures: one part of the brain: hearing, speech, taste, memory, emotions, hallucinations and flashbacks —> lamotrigine or levetiracetam

-absence seizures: also called petit mal, rapid blinking of a few seconds of staring into space —> ethosuximide, sodium valproate

-generalised tonic-clonic seizures: fall to ground, muscle jerks, lose consciousness —> sodium valproate. Since this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy or women of child bearing age the next most appropriate drug is lamotrigine.

-Status epileptics - a seizure lasting 5 or more minutes or 2 or more seizures within a 5 minute period without the patient returning to normal between them = CHECK BLOOD GLUCOSE =

If IV access is available 1st line is lorazepam and if IV not possible then 1st line is either buccal midazolam or PR diazepamno recovery after 5mins —> 2nd dose of the above no recovery after 10mins —> IV levetiracetam or phenytoinno recovery 25-30mins —> anaesthetise and intubate

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20
Q

What is the difference between multiple sclerosis and motor neurone disease?

A

MS - autoimmune, can affect bladder control, can relapse, 20-40y/o
Treatment - aimed at reducing levels of inflammation. Corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, IV immunoglobulin.

MND - neurogenerative, only affects movement, gets worse, eye movements are SPARED, 40-70y/o
different types most common is Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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21
Q

What side does the tongue, jaw and uvula deviate to if there is a lesion?

A

Jaw + tongue = same side as lesion

uvula = opposite

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22
Q

What does the facial nerve do?

A

Lachryml glands and saliva glands

facial expression

anterior 2/3 tongue taste

stapedius muscle (stapes bone can undergoes osteogenesis?)

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23
Q

What cranial nerves innervate the eye muscles?

A

Oculomotor: classically “DILATED, FIXED pupil” medial, superior and inferior rectus + inferior oblique (DOWN and OUT)

trochlear: superior oblique

abducens: lateral rectus

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24
Q

What information does the dorsal column pathway carry?

A

Discriminative touch

conscious proprioception

vibration

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25
Q

What are the ADRs for cholinergics?

A

Diarrhoea
Urination
Miosis
Bradycardia
Emesis
Lethargy
Lacrimation
Salivation

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26
Q

What is Waardenburg syndrome?

A

Cells that control potassium secretion fail to migrate into the tissue leading to deafness.

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27
Q

Explain GCS.

A

3-15
8 or less intubate

TAKE BEST RESPONSE FROM BOTH SIDES

Eyes (4): normal, asked, pain, shut

Visual (5): normal, confused but able to answer, makes no sense, sounds, no voice

Motor (6): normal, defend pain (loaclises), flinches away (wihdraws), decorticate (abnormla flexion), decerebrate, no movement

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28
Q

What are Grommets?

A

used to treat glue ear: the empty middle part of the ear canal fills up with fluid. This can cause temporary hearing loss/tinnitus/pain.

It usually clears up within 3 months

a small tube placed in your child’s ear during surgery. It drains fluid away and keeps the eardrum open.The grommet should fall out naturally within 6 to 12 months as your child’s ear gets better.

Glue ear in Down’s syndrome/cleft palate in children or ADULTS in general should be referred to ENT

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29
Q

What is tropicamide?

A

Parasympathetic acetylcholine antagonist used in the eye

stops constricting of pupiltreated eye becomes very dilated

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30
Q

What drugs have affects on hearing (ototoxicity)?

A

Gentamicin
Loop diuretics e.g. furosemide

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31
Q

What is Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome?

A

AKA–> herpes zoster oticus (chickenpox)

-shingles outbreak affects the facial nerve near one of your ears
-painful shingles rash with blisters on the ear, facial paralysis, hearing loss in affected ear

Treatment: acyclovir or famciclovir AND corticosteroids like prednisone

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32
Q

What condition is most commonly seen in contact lens users that causes red, painful, light sensitive, gritty eyes?

A

keratitis —> same day referral to an eye specialist, stop wearing contacts, ab

Caused by pseudomonas

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33
Q

What affected nerve would cause the appearance of a “claw-like” hand?

A

ulnar nerve

2nd and 3rd finger bent

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34
Q

What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?

A

entropion: in-turning of the eyelids
ectropion: out-turning of the eyelids

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35
Q

What is fluorescein eye drops used for?

A

orange dye (fluorescein) and a blue light is used to detect: SEIDEL’s sign-foreign bodies in the eye to see how deep it is!!!!-can show corneal ulcers: caused by CONTACT LENSES or vitA deficiency

corneal ulcers are usually due to herpes simplex virus keratitis and can cause REDUCED corneal sensation —> topical aciclovir

you would also see HYPOPYON (white blood cells in eye)

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36
Q

How do you treat epistaxis?

A

haemodynamically stable = pinch nose for 10-15 mins and Sit with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open.
–> topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis: prescribe Naseptin–> is allergic to neomycin, peanut, or soya prescribe mupirocin

admission or referral to secondary care –> under 2 years of age or have a comorbidity (coronary artery disease) bleeding hasn’t stopped in 10-15mins = cautery with silver nitrate, packing or clipping of the sphenopalatine artery

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37
Q

What is acute viral labrynthitis and what is the difference between that and vestibular neuronitis?

A

sudden onset horizontal nystagmus, sensorineural hearing loss, nausea, vomiting and vertigo

Management:
-episodes are usually self-limiting
-prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness

vestibular neuronitis has NO hearing loss, but has horizontal nystagmus
HiNTs exam used—> prochlorperazine

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38
Q

What is the diagnosis of a patient with diabetes presenting with sudden appearance of floaters and sudden blurring of vision?

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

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39
Q

What is the difference between then anterior, posterior, central and Brown-Sequard cord syndrome?

A

anterior = loss of pain, temp, light touch and pressure, Sacral sparing

posterior = loss of proprioception, vibration, 2-point discrimination. Motor preservation

central = bilateral spastic paralysis and sacral sparing. Upper limbs affected more than lower

BS = -ipsilateral paralysis
-loss of ipsilateral proprioception and vibration
-loss of contralateral pain, temperature, light touch and pressure

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40
Q

What is the difference between Hutchinson’s pupil and Argyll-Robertson pupil?

A

Hutchinson’s = Unilaterally dilated pupil, unresponsive to light –> compression of the occulomotor nerve of the same side, by an intracranial mass (e.g. tumour, haematoma)

AR = Bilaterally small pupils that accommodate but don’t react to bright light –> neurosyphilis and diabetes mellitus

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41
Q

What drugs can cause tinnitis?

A

Aspirin and other NSAIDs

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42
Q

What is the difference between:
scleritis
episcleritis
pre-septal cellulitis
orbital cellulitis
optic neuritis?

A

scleritis = inflammation of the sclera, red, painful, watering, decrease in vision –> ophthalmologist, NSAIDs, steroids

episcleritis = red, NOT painful, watering, photophobia, phenylephrine blanches the episcleral vessels but NOT the scleral vessels –> conservative, artificial tears

pre-septal/peri-orbital cellulitis = children, red, swollen, painful eye of acute onset, symptoms associated with fever, ptosis, NO PAIN on moving eye –> referred to secondary care for assessment, oral antibiotics (co-amoxiclav)

orbital cellulitis = red, painful, proptosis (bulging), ptosis, reduced vision, PAIN ON EYE MOVEMENT –> admission to hospital for IV antibiotics, septic screen, CT head

optic neuritis = commonly associated with MS, unilateral decrease in vision, colour vision affected, pain on eye movement, Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD), central scotoma –> MRI and steroids

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43
Q

What is anterior uveitis ALSO KNOWN AS iritis?

A

Associated with autoimmune conditions e.g. ankylosing spondylitis, crohn’s

anterior chamber cells seen on slip lamp exam

red eye
pain
photophobia

Management:
-urgent review by ophthalmology
-cycloplegics (dilates the pupil which helps to relieve pain and photophobia) e.g. Atropine, cyclopentolate
-steroid eye drops

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44
Q

How do you treat bleeding after a tonsillectomy?

A

Primary, or reactionary haemorrhage most commonly occurs in the first 6-8 hours following surgery. It is managed by immediate return to theatre.

Secondary haemorrhage occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. Treatment is usually with admission and antibiotics.

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45
Q

How do you treat Chronic rhinosinusitis and what’re the symptoms?

A

facial pain: typically frontal pressure pain which is worse on bending forwardnasal discharge: usually clear if allergic or vasomotor. Thicker, purulent discharge suggests secondary infectionnasal obstruction: e.g. ‘mouth breathing’
post-nasal drip: may produce chronic cough

Management of recurrent or chronic sinusitis:
-avoid allergen
-intranasal corticosteroids
-nasal irrigation with saline solution

Red flags symptoms (IF ANY –> URGENT ENT REFERRAL)
unilateral symptoms
persistent symptoms despite compliance with 3 months of treatment
epistaxis

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46
Q

What is the difference, clinically, between:
Otosclerosis
Presbyacusis
Noise damage
Acoustic neuromas
Otitis media

A

Otosclerosis = genetic condition- runs in families, irregular bony formation in the middle ear, progressive conductive deafness, which typically presents in middle age. Tinnitus and vertigo may also be present, but are less common.

Presbyacusis = sensorineural gradual hearing loss in both ears and NO dizziness

Noise damage = sensorineural hearing loss

Acoustic neuromas = unilateral sensorineural hearing loss with DIZZINESS

Otitis media = NOT normal otoscopy

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47
Q

What is the treatment for a nosal/septal haematoma, not bleeding, just swollen and red?

A

urgent referral to ENT for drainage

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48
Q

What does retinal detachment present like and how do you treat it?

A

-Sudden painless loss of vision
-Dense shadow that starts peripherally progresses towards the central vision
-A veil or curtain over the field of vision
-Straight lines appear curved
-Central visual loss
-relative afferent pupillary defect

management:
-urgently referred to ophthalmologist for assessment with a slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy
-if caused by diabetes then treat this

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49
Q

What is a Cholesteatoma?

A

non-cancerous growth of squamous epithelium. Most common in patients aged 10-20 years. Being born with a cleft palate increases the risk of cholesteatoma around 100 fold.

Main features:
chronic ear infections
FOUL-smelling
non-resolving
discharge
hearing loss

Other features are determined by local invasion:
-vertigo
-facial nerve palsy
-cerebellopontine angle syndrome
-Otoscopy ‘attic crust’ - seen in the uppermost part of the ear drum

Management:
patients are referred to ENT for consideration of surgical removal

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50
Q

What is the first line abx for tonsilitis and what causes it?

A

Caused by strep progenies

CENTOR 3 or 4:
exudate, lymph nodes, fever, absence of cough —> Phenoxymethylpenicillin–> Clarithromycin if allergic

Fever can be recorded at any point not just the one at the consultation

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51
Q

What visual changes do digoxin and viagra have?

A

digoxin = yellow-green vision (dig for gold)

viagra = blue vision (‘the blue pill’)

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52
Q

What is a vestibular/acoustic schwannoma?

A

benign tumor–> overproduction of Schwann cells

unilateral hearing loss
tinnitus (ringing in the ear)
dizziness/loss of balance
facial numbness/weakness or paralysis on the side of the tumor

MRI to diagnose
urgent referral to ENT surgical removal
radiation
observation

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53
Q

What is acute epiglottitis?

A

emergency

Caused by h. influenzas B

Do not examine child’s mouth

chin is lifted and pushed forward with hands on floor (tripod position)

DDDD: dysphagia, drooling, dysphonia, distress

—> ceftriaxone, oxygen, endotracheal intubation potentially

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54
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

Infection from middle ear to mastoid bone

ear pain behind ear
history of otitis media
fever
swelling
red and tender over mastoid
external ear protrudes forwards
ear discharge if eardrum perforates

give IV abx- vanc or cef

complications —> meningitis

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55
Q

What is the difference between Non-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy and how do you treat it?

A

SUDDEN VISION LOSS

Seen in photo is TREATED diabetic retinopathy

Non-proliferative = microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots –> observation and if severe panretinal laser photocoagulation

proliferative = neovascularisation –> Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors and pan-retinal photocoagulation laserboth –> glycaemic control

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56
Q

What can cause stridor?

A

viral croup (treated with dexamethasone)
Airway blockage (cancer, foreign body)Trauma –> potentially tracheostomy
Swelling (tonsillitis epiglottitis)
Smoke or chemical inhalation
Neck surgery

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57
Q

What would be the fundoscopy findings of central retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion and how do you treat it?

A

Artery:
-sudden unilateral vision loss
-‘cherry spot’ on retina
-pale retina
—> IV acetazolamide, IV mannitol, ocular massage, intraarterial thrombolysis

Vein:
-sudden painless unilateral vision loss
-severe retinal haemorrhages ‘stormy sunset’
—>managed conservatively unless underlying condition, anti-VEGF, laser photocoagulation

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58
Q

What are the symptoms of acute sinusitis and how is it treated?

A

facial paintypically frontal pressure pain which is worse on bending forward

nasal discharge: usually thick and purulent
nasal obstruction

paracetamol/ibuprofen if symptoms for more than 10 days –> steroids –> mometasone 200 micrograms twice a day

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59
Q

What is age-related macular degeneration and the different types?

A

Most common cause of blindness
usually elderly women

symptoms:
-reduced vision acuity
-worse in dark
-flashing lights
-wavy lines: Amsler grid testing

investigations:
-fundoscopy: dry or wet?
-slit lamp microscopy

types: WET = subacute presentation, presence of neovascularisation —> anti-VEGF

DRY = gradual onset, Drusen —>give beta-carotene, vit C and E, zinc

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60
Q

What is the difference between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis? How do you treat and in pregnancy too?

A

viral = serous discharge, recent URTI

bacterial = purulent discharge, eyes may be ‘stuck together’ in the morning, itchy –> chloramphenicol eye drops but in pregnant woman use fusidic acid eye drops

BOTH = Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress

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61
Q

What is the difference between otitis media and otitis externa?

A

otitis media due to haemophilus = pain, ear tugging, BULGING of the tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, erythema tympanic membrane, fever, hearing loss, recent virus usually influenza –> -Paracetamol or ibuprofen
-nasal decongestants
-antibiotics: 5-7 day course of amoxicillin or erythromycin if allergic to penicillin ONLY if perforation, symptoms >4 days, systemically unwell, younger than 2 or immunocompromised-admit if children are younger than 3 months or have a high temperature

otitis externa due to CANDIDA= “Swimmers ear” (surfers get it), seen in eczema patients, pain, intense itching, debris in the ear canal, external canal/tympanic membrane may be erythematous–> topical abx +/- steroids
-if continues to spread = flucloxacillin
-if recurrent = antifungal

use ciprofloxacin if they have diabetes!!

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62
Q

What is Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A

seen in patients taking antipsychotic medication OR dopaminergic drugs (such as levodopa) for Parkinson’s disease, usually when the drug is suddenly stopped or the dose reduced

occurs within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic

-raised creatine kinase
-Acute kidney injury (secondary to rhabdomyolysis) and leukocytosis
-pyrexia
-muscle rigidity
-hypertension
-tachycardia and tachypnoea
-agitated delirium with confusion

management:
stop antipsychotics
IV fluids
give dantrolene or bromocriptine in selected cases

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63
Q

What is Samter’s trio?

A

The association of asthma, aspirin sensitivity and nasal polyposis:

-nasal obstruction
-rhinorrhoea, sneezing
-poor sense of taste and smell

Management:
-all patients with suspected nasal polyps should be referred to ENT for a full examination
-topical corticosteroids shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients

In patients with asthma, aspirin and other NSAIDs should be avoided as these may precipitate an asthma exacerbation

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64
Q

How do you treat a perforated ear drum?

A

no treatment and review the patient in 2 weeks and then 6 weeks.

In the majority of cases the tympanic membrane will heal without treatment in 6-8 weeks

Myringoplasty may be performed if the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself.

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65
Q

What is Weber’s syndrome?

A

midbrain stroke

left pupil- dilated and light reflexes are absent

Power is 3/5 bilaterally in both upper and low limbs.

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66
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

Inflammation of the eyelid margins

bilateral grittiness
sticky eyes
erythematous eyelid margins
worse in warm weather

hot compresses, removal of debris with cotton buds dipped in cooled boiled water, and artificial tears if patients report dry eyes

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67
Q

What would be the diagnosis of a patient getting dizzy on extending neck?

A

vertebrobasilar ischaemia

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68
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

DO NOT GIVE ASPIRIN - as this can cause Reye’s

rare disorder that can cause liver and brain damage affecting children and young adults under 20 years of age

symptoms:
-usually begin a few days after a viral infection, such as a cold, flu or chickenpox
-repeatedly being sick
-tiredness and lack of interest or enthusiasm
-rapid breathing
-seizures (fits)

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69
Q

What CSF findings would suggest bacteria, virus, TB and fungi?

A

-bacteria: increased neutrophils and protein, decreased glucose

-virus: increased lymphocytes

-TB: increased lymphocytes, very high protein and decreased glucose

-fungi: increased lymphocytes

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70
Q

What is the treatment for gingivitis?

A

simple gingivitis (painless, bleeds, red):
-review by a dentist

acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (painful, punched-out gums, halitosis (bad breath):
-refer the patient to a dentist
-oral metronidazole for 3 days
-chlorhexidine mouth wash
-analgesia

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71
Q

What is black hairy tongue?

A

desquamation of the filiform papillae –> tongue may be brown, green, pink or another colour

Predisposing factors:
poor oral hygienea
ntibiotics
head and neck radiation
HIV
intravenous drug use

** The tongue should be swabbed to exclude Candida and if recurrent Candida test for diabetes **

Management:
tongue scraping
topical antifungals if Candida

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72
Q

What is the treatment for squints in children?

A

-corrective glasses
-occlusion therapy OR penalization therapy -(atropine drops) - for amblyopia
-eye exercises
-surgery
-botox

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73
Q

What is the management of a subarachnoid haemorrhage and how does it present?

A

thunderclap headache with occipital headache with nausea

-non-contrast CT
-only lumbar puncture 12hrs from onset if CT was done MORE than 6hrs of onset and CT was normal: Xanthochromia
-refer to neurosurgery
-oral nimodipine
-coil to treat intracranial aneurysms

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74
Q

When could you not do a lumbar puncture and what would you do instead?

A

if there is raised ICP (bradycardia, irregular resps, widened pulse pressure, papilloedema, low GCS) for example in meningitis

also cannot do a LP in non-communicating (obstructive) hydrocephalus

if cannot do an LP then do a blood PCR instead

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75
Q

What symptoms are common in Ménière’s disease and how do you treat?

A

Feeling of ‘fullness’ and ‘pressure’—> betahistine

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76
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

A

vertigo and dizziness caused by changes in head position (rolling over in bed)

DIAGNOSED with Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

-resolves spontaneously after a few weeks to months
-Symptomatic relief may be gained by Epley manoeuvre

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77
Q

What are the complications of an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

-rebleeding
-hydrocephalus
-vasospasm
-HYPONATRAEMIA
-seizures
-SIADH

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78
Q

What are the facial bones–> need to know incase of a facial fracture?

A
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79
Q

What is Hutchinson’s sign?

A

rash on the tip or side of the nose.strong risk factor for ocular involvement –> Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus (HZO)

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80
Q

What is an ataxic gate?

A

loss of heel to toe walking

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81
Q

What is the difference between a thyroglossal cyst and a brachial cyst?

A

thyroglossal = moves with swallowing and protrusion of tongue, seen in children

brachial = mobile cyst lateral to midline, usually presents after a URTI

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82
Q

How do you withdraw from drugs after them causing medication overuse headaches?

A

simple analgesia + triptans: stop abruptly

opioid analgesia: withdraw gradually

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83
Q

When would you perform a CT head within 1hr/immediately?

A

-GCS < 13 on initial assessment
-GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
-suspected open or depressed skull fracture (laceration)
-any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
-post-traumatic seizure
-focal neurological deficit
-more than 1 episode of vomiting

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84
Q

What artery is affected in ‘locked-in’ syndrome?

A

basilar artery

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85
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

hereditary peripheral neuropathy –> motor loss

history of frequently sprained ankles
Foot drop
High-arched feet (pes cavus)
Hammer toes
Distal muscle weakness
Distal muscle atrophy
Hyporeflexia
Stork leg deformity

no cure

86
Q

What type of injury can present several weeks after the initial head injury?

A

subdural haematomas

87
Q

When do you remove tonsils?

A

grade 3 or 4 (tonsils beyond the pilars/tonsils extending to midline)

sore throats are due to tonsillitis

the person has five or more episodes of sore throat per year

symptoms have been occurring for at least a year

the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning

88
Q

What is Erb-Duchenne palsy (‘waiter’s tip’)?

A

due to damage of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5,C6)

may be secondary to shoulder dystocia during birth

the arm hangs by the side and is internally rotated, elbow extended

—> supportive management as usually resolves 6-12 months, physio

89
Q

What are absence seizures (petit mal)?

A

generalised epilepsy most commonly seen in children (typically 3-10 mostly girls)

-absences last a few seconds and are associated with a quick recovery
-seizures may be provoked by hyperventilation or stress
-the child is usually unaware of the seizure
-they may occur many times a day
-EEG: bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern

sodium valproate (not in women/child bearing age) and ethosuximide

90
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

-autosomal dominant neurodegenerative condition
-chromosome 4
-progressive and incurable
-degeneration of cholinergic and GABA neurons in basal ganglia

features usually after 35 years old:
-chorea
-jerky movements
-personality changes: angry!!
-dystonia
-saccadic eye movements

Treatment:
-tetrabenazine to treat chorea
-Anti-depressants/anxiolytics to treat psychiatric symptoms
-feeding tubes

91
Q

When can you drive again after a stroke and seizure?

A

1 stroke = 1 month
multiple strokes = 3 months

seizure = 6 months if no cause or 12 months with no seizures

92
Q

How do you treat a stroke?

A

Investigations:
-FAST screening tool (public)
-ROSIER score (medical): MUST RULE OUT HYPOGLYCAEMIA first
-non contrast head CT and rule OUT haemorrhagic stroke

acute:
-aspirin 300mg
-Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms or haemorrhage has been definitively excluded
-thrombectomy + thrombolysis if present within 4.5 hrs
-thrombectomy between 6-24hrs
-SAFE swallow assessment

chronic:
-clopidogrel or aspirin + MR dipyridamole if cannot take clopidogrel
-statin if cholesterol >3.5
-carotid artery endarterectomy: if stroke is in carotid territory and stenosis is >70%

If it’s a HAEMORRHAGIC STROKE:
-surgical intervention
-only treat high BP if they present within 6hrs and systolic between 150 and 220
-stop any anticoags and REVERSE it
-avoid statins

93
Q

What is gliobastoma multiforme?

A

Most common primary brain tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis (~ 1yr).

-solid tumours with central necrosis and a rim that enhances with contrast
-vasogenic oedema
-Treatment is surgical with postoperative chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy
-Dexamethasone is used to treat the oedema

94
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

autoimmune disorder- antibodies to acetylcholine receptors

-muscle fatigability (weaker during periods of activity and slowly improve after periods of rest)
-“hanging jaw”
-diplopia
-proximal muscle weakness: face, neck
-ptosis
-dysphagia
-more common in women

Associations:
thymomas, anaemia, RA, thyroid, SLE, thymic hyperplasia

Management:
-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. pyridostigmine
-thymectomy

in a myasthenic crisis:
-plasmaphersis
-IV immunoglobulins

AVOID BETA BLOCKERS

95
Q

What is Klumpke’s paralysis?

A

Damage to T1 due to traction/trauma

ALL FINGERS ARE BENT
loss of intrinsic hand muscles
clawed hand

96
Q

What are the differentials for a headache?

A

-migraine/tension/cluster
-history of cancer: mets or venous sinus embolism
-CO2 retention
-trigeminal neuralgia: abrupt unilateral electric like shock pains, worse when touching E.g. brushing teeth, shaving, makeup —» carbamazepine
-SOL: raised ICP, papilloedema, worse when lying flat and on straining
-meningitis: bloods, CSF, imaging

97
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

inflammation of the brain

(kinda presents like meningitis)
-fever
-headache
-psychiatric symptoms
-seizures
-vomiting
-cold sores if HSV encephalitis

heat CT before LP
CSF fluid
PCR for HSV enteroviruses
MRI
Bloods

—> IV acyclovir

98
Q

What is a disadvantage of levodopa?

A

nausea but tends to resolve after a few weeksHave to give a few times a day minimum 3- short half life

99
Q

What is Progressive supranuclear palsy aka “Steele-Richardson-Olszewski syndrome”?

A

postural instability and falls

patients tend to have a stiff, broad-based gait

impairment of vertical gaze (down gaze worse than up gaze - patients may complain of difficultly reading or descending stairs)

parkinsonism
bradykinesia is prominent
cognitive impairment
primarily frontal lobe dysfunction

Management:
poor response to L-dopa

100
Q

What is dystonia?

A

Loss of co-ordinated contraction between muscle groups

childhood –> lower limb and trunk involvement
adult –> cervical most common

Dystonia can be confused with cerebral palsy, however usually cerebral palsy has an abnormal MRI due to trauma at birth

treatment: levodopa, anticholinergics, gabapentin, deep brain stimulation, botox

101
Q

What is the difference between tics and Tourette’s syndrome? and what is the treatment?

A

Diagnosis of Tourette’s Syndrome requires combination of motor and vocal tics, where as tics is just one of them

-Tics will resolve by adult life
-For persistent/severe tics consider antipsychotics e.g. aripiprazole
-Very severe cases –> Deep Brain Stimulation

102
Q

What does the parietal lobe control?

A

sensory (light, hearing, temperature, smell etc.) perception and integration

103
Q

What is allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Usually seen with hayfever and may be seasonal

bilateral symptoms:
itchy
swollen erythema

—> 1st: topical or systemic antihistamines 2nd: sodium cromiglicate

104
Q

What would you suspect if you were examining a back with a tuff of hair on it or a birth mark?

A

Spina bifida- non fusion of vertebral arches during development

three types:
-myelomeningocele: most severe and neurological defects
-occulta: birth mark or hair patch
-meningocele

risk can be reduced by taking of folic acid supplements during pregnancy

105
Q

What is the preferred way to support nutrition in patients with MND?

A

Percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG)

106
Q

What extra tests can be run to help find the cause of a stroke in a ‘young’ (under 55y/o) person?

A

blood tests including thrombophilia and autoimmune screening

107
Q

Where do the cranial nerves exit at the skull base?

A

it may say what is jugular foramen syndrome? And then whatever nerves pass through this are affected and cause those specific symptoms!

108
Q

What is Kallmann’s syndrome?

A

-delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
-X-linked recessive trait

**The clue given in many questions is lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty **

Features:
‘delayed puberty’ hypogonadism, cryptorchidismanosmiasex hormone levels are lowLH, FSH levels are inappropriately low/normalpatients are typically of normal or above-average height

Management
-testosterone supplementation
-gonadotrophin supplementation

109
Q

Learn what a normal fundus looks like.

A

THIS IS OF THE LEFT EYE AND THE OPTIC DISC IS ON THE LEFT SIDE

110
Q

How can you tell if it is an UMN or LMN glossopharyngeal cranial nerve lesion?

A

UMN: donald duck speech

LMN: nasal speech

111
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

seen in association with small cell lung cancer and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer.

It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder

repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength

-girdle weakness (affects lower limbs first)
hyporeflexia
gets better with exercise

treatment of underlying cancer
immunosuppression, for example with prednisolone and/or azathioprine

112
Q

What investigations could be done for neuromuscular junction disorders e.g. Myasthenia gravis, lambert-eaton syndrome

A

serum anti-AchR antibodies

CT-TAPice pack test: ptosis should inprove after 2mins of ice

Tensilon test: give an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase

113
Q

What nerves are damaged if the patient cannot make an okay sign or make a fist with their hand?

A

okay sign = anterior interosseous nerve

fist = median nerve

114
Q

What does papilloedema look like?

A

Blurred disc margins

115
Q

What is shown in the CT and what would it cause?

A

Middle cerebral artery bleed

contralateral hemiparesis (weakness on one side of body)
facial droop
aphasia/dysphagia
contralateral hemiparesis (weakness on one side of body)

116
Q

What is the difference between subdural and an extradural haematoma?

A

Extra: due to trauma, loses then regains then loses consciousness I.E. lucid interval, craniotomy and evacuation of haematoma

sub: CT, observe conservatively, surgical decompression, monitor ICP, stop or reverse anticoagulants

**remember if there is another bleed opposite to the haematoma this might be a contracoup injury

117
Q

What are the causes of TLOC and the differences between them?

A

-epilepsy/seizure: minutes, tongue bite, confusion
-syncope: reflex (vasovagal, emotional, fainting), orthostatic (Parkinson’s, alcohol, haemorrhage), cardiac (arrhythmias, MI, PE), hypoglycaemia seconds, no confusion, rarely tongue bite

118
Q

What is a pituitary adenoma?

A

common benign tumours but usually never found

symptoms can be:
-excess of a hormone (e.g. Cushing’s disease, acromegaly (too much growth hormone: big hands and jaw, CARPAL TUNNEL), amenorrhea and galactorrhea due to excess prolactin)
-depletion of a hormones
–> hypopituitarism
-headaches
-bitemporal hemianopia–> compression of the optic chiasm

treatment:
-bromocriptine
-TRANSSPHENOIDAL surgery
-radiotherapy

119
Q

What is pituitary apoplexy?

A

Sudden enlargement of a pituitary tumour due to haemorrhage or infarction

hypertension, pregnancy, trauma, anticoags –> RISKS

-sudden onset headache
-vomiting
-neck stiffness
-visual field defects: classically bitemporal superior quadrantic –> compressing optic chiasm from BELOW
-features of pituitary insufficiencye.g. hypotension/hyponatraemia secondary to hypoadrenalism

MRI
STEROIDS
surgery
fluid balance

120
Q

What is a craniopharyngioma?

A

benign brain tumour ABOVE the pituitary gland

again can present with:
weight gain
struggling to see car wing-mirrors
diabetes insipidus
headaches
vision loss: bitemporal inferior quadrantic –> compressing optic chiasm from ABOVE
vomiting
difficult to conceive

treatment: surgery, radiotherapy

121
Q

What are the complications of otitis media?

A

-perforation of tympanic membrane —> chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)
-hearing loss
-labyrinthitis
-!!!!! mastoiditis !!!!!!
-meningitis
-brain abscess
-facial never paralysis

122
Q

What tool is used to measure disability or dependence in activities of daily living?

A

Barthel index

123
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Acute unilateral facial nerve paralysis due to infection, inflammation etc.

-LMN palsy: forehead is affected (opposite for UMN lesion)
-post-auricular pain (behind ear)
-altered taste
-dry eyes

treatment:
-oral prednisolone within 72hrs
-eye care: lubricants and drops as they cannot control eye movements
-refer urgently to ENT if no improvement in 3 weeks

124
Q

What is the difference between Huntington’s and MND/ALS?

A

Huntingtons- jerky movements

MND- muscle weakness/paralysis

125
Q

What is gingival hyperplasia?

A

overgrowth of gums

caused by:
-phenytoin
-ciclosporin
-calcium channel blockers e.g. nifedipine
-AML cancer

126
Q

How can you tell the difference between a TIA and a stroke?

A

TIA does not show on an MRI whereas a stroke does

127
Q

What is Paroxysmal hemicrania (PH)?

A

severe, unilateral headache, usually in the orbital, supraorbital or temporal region

last less than 30 minutes and can occur multiple times a day

completely responsive to treatment with indomethacin

128
Q

What is acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG)?

A

Rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) stops aqueous outflow

risks:
-long sighted (hypermetropia)

symptoms:
-Pain
-eye or head
-semi dilated non-reacting pupil
-decreased acuity
-symptoms worse when in the dark
-hazy cornea

investigations:
-tonimetry to assess raised IOP
gonioscopy

Management:

Emergency:
-combination of eye drops (pilocarpine, beta blocker, alpha-2-agonist)
-IV acetazolamide
-steroids

long term: laser peripheral iridotomy

129
Q

What are cataracts?

A

light doesn’t reach retina

symptoms:
-Cloudy/blurred vision
-hard to distinguish colours
-lights appear brighter
-defect in red reflex

investigations:
-opthalmoscopy
-slit lamp exam

risks:
all the usual ones plus hypocalcaemia

Management:
-early stages = stronger glasses
-surgery: complications include endophthalmitis, retinal detachment, posterior capsule opacification

130
Q

What’s the difference between a stye and chalazion (Meibomian cyst)?

A

Chalazion = firm, painless lump

131
Q

What is Holmes-Adie pupil?

A

Benign condition usually seen in women

-unilateral
-dilated pupil
-when it constricts it stays small for a long time
-slow accommodation

Holmes-Adie syndrome also presents with absent ankle/knee reflexes

132
Q

What nerve controls constriction of pupil?

A

Third cranial nerve (oculomotor)

133
Q

What is nasolacrimal duct obstruction?

A

Persistent watery eye in an INFANT—> massage lacrimal duct

134
Q

What is orbital compartment syndrome?

A

Ophthalmic EMERGENCY due to ocular trauma/raised IOP-eye pain/swelling-proptosis (bulging)-‘rock hard’ eyelids —> urgent lateral canthotomy for decompression

135
Q

What is posterior vitreous detachment?

A

Separation of vitreous membrane from retina

-Sudden appearance of FLOATERS
-FLASHES of light
-blurred vision
-cobweb across vision
-dark curtain = retinal detachment too

no treatment if healed in 6months and if not then surgery

136
Q

What is primary OPEN-angle glaucoma?

A

often only picked up at routine optometry appointments:
-peripheral visual field loss
-optic disc cupping

treatment:
1st: 360° selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT) to people with an IOP of ≥ 24 mmHg
2nd: prostaglandin analogue eyedrops
3rd: beta-blockers
4th: surgery trabeculectomy

137
Q

What opthalmic drug can cause brown pigmentation of the iris and increased eyelash length?

A

prostaglandin analogue e.g. latanoprost

138
Q

What is retinitis pigmentosa?

A

night blindness
tunnel vision

139
Q

When should mouth ulcers be referred to oral surgery?

A

Two week wait is needed to oral surgery when mouth ulcers presist for greater than 3 weeks

140
Q

What’s the difference between acute angle and primary open glaucoma?

A

Acute = sudden loss of vision, pain, red eye

Primary = gradual peripheral field loss of vision, diabetes and short sighted as risk factors

141
Q

In ophthalmology, do MRI’s have contrast or no contrast?

A

WITH contrast

142
Q

What are the different classification of strokes?

A

1.unilateral hemiparesis/hemisensory loss of face, arm & leg
2.homonymous hemianopia
3.higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphagia, speaking

Total anterior circulation infarct = 1, 2 and 3 are present

Partial anterior circulation infarct = only 2/3 are present

Lacunar infarct = has 1 of the following:
-unilateral weakness/sensory deficit
-pure sensory stroke
-ataxic hemiparesis

Posterior circulation infarct = has 1 of the following:
-cerebellar/brainstem syndromes
-loss of consciousness
-isolated homonymous hemianopia

Other differentials include lateral medullary syndrome and Weber’s syndrome

143
Q

What is cerebellar syndrome?

A

DANISH
D - Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria (past-pointing), patients may appear ‘Drunk’
A - Ataxia (limb, truncal)
N - Nystamus (horizontal = ipsilateral hemisphere)
I - Intention tremour
S - Slurred staccato speech, Scanning dysarthria
H - Hypotonia

causes: PASTRIES
paraneoplastic syndrome
abscess
stroke/sclerosis
traumaraised ICP
infection
ethanol
spinocerebellar ataxia

144
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

-no cure-women-20-40 y/o-two types: relapsing-remitting and secondary progressive disease (symptoms between relapses)

-visual: optic neuritis, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening in vision after rise in body temperature)
-sensory: pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia
-motor: spastic weakness, ataxic gate, temor
-urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction

MRI = plaques and Dawson fingers
CSF lumbar puncture = oligoclonal bands

treatment–>
-acute relapse = high dose steroids (methylprednisolone) for 5 days
-prophylaxis = natalizumab (monoclonal antibodies)
-to treat spasticity = gabapentin and baclofen

145
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

Suddenshort term (minutes to hours)painlessloss of vision in one eyecaused by TIAs, strokes, GCA etc.give:anticoagstreat the underlying problem: hypertension, diabetes, stroke etc.

146
Q

What is an essential tremor?

A

Autosomal dominant condition affecting both upper limbs

-postural tremor: worse on outstretched arms-improved with alcohol and rest

—-> propranolol

147
Q

What is subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

due to vitamin B12 deficiency

-distal tingling/burning/sensory loss is symmetrical and tends to affect the legs more than the arms
-impaired proprioception and vibration sense
-muscle weakness, hyperreflexia, and spasticity
-upper motor neuron signs typically develop in the legs first
-brisk knee reflexes
-absent ankle jerks
-sensory ataxia → gait abnormalities
-positive Romberg’s sign

148
Q

What are the different types of aphasia?

A

receptive (Wernicke’s) = world salad = lesion in temporal lobe supplied by left MCA

expressive (Broca’s) = one word answers = lesion in frontal lobe supplied by left MCA

Conduction = speech is fluent but cannot repeat = lesion in arcuate fasiculus

Global = communicate using gestures = affects all above areas

149
Q

What is autonomic dysreflexia?

A

spinal cord injury at, or above, T6 level-severe hypertension, flushing and sweating above the level of injury

-triggered by faecal impaction or urinary retention

–> remove stimulus and treat hypertension

150
Q

What are the symptoms of lesions in the parietal, occipital, temporal, frontal and cerebellum?

A

parietal = sensory, apraxia, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia

Occipital = homonymous hemianopia, blindess

Temporal = wernicke’s, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, cannot recognise faces

Frontal = broca’s, inappropriate behaviour, repetition, loss of smell

Cerebellum = gait ataxia, intention temor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, nystagmus

151
Q

What are the side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome
dizziness
ataxia
hyponatraemia

152
Q

What is the flow of CSF fluid?

A

lateral ventricles
3rd ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius)
4th ventricle (via foramina of Magendie and Luschka)
Subarachnoid space

153
Q

What cardiac drug can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

amiodarone

154
Q

What is the pterion and what artery is associated with it?

A

Region of the skull that has easy access to the middle miningeal artery

155
Q

What symptoms would you see if someone had a focal seizure in the temporal, frontal, parietal and occipital lobe?

A

temporal = rising epigastric sensation, deja vu, grabbing/plucking

frontal = head/leg movements, posturing, Jacksonian march

parietal = paraesthesia

occipital = floaters/flashes

156
Q

What is Friedreich’s ataxia?

A

autosomal recessive on chromosome 9

10-15 year olds

-gait ataxia
-kyphoscoliosis
-absent ankle jerks
-cerebellar ataxia
-optic atrophy

157
Q

Would you be more or less concerned about a headache triggered by cough, valsalva, sneeze or exercise?

A

More worried

158
Q

What is a cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

blood clot in the cavernous sinus (hollow spaces under brain behind each eye socket)

-periorbital oedema
-ophthalmoplegia: 6th nerve damage typically occurs before 3rd & 4th
-trigeminal nerve involvement may lead to hyperaesthesia of upper face and eye pain
-central retinal vein thrombosis

159
Q

What is idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

classically seen in young, overweight females

headache
blurred vision
papilloedema
enlarged blind spot

Management:
-weight loss
-acetazolamide
-furosemide
-analgesia
-VP shunt
-refer to ophthal/neuro

160
Q

What is the most common complication of meningitis?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

161
Q

What drug should be given to reduce raised ICP in traumatic brain injuries?

A

IV mannitol (dexamethasone is used in infections etc)

162
Q

What is the difference between non-epileptic seizures (pseudoseizures) and true epileptic seizures?

A

Pseudo:
gradual onset
Eyes closed
rapid breathing

true:
tongue biting
raised prolactin

163
Q

How can you tell the difference between Bell’s palsy (facial nerve palsy) and a stroke?

A

Bell’s:
-forehead cannot wrinkle
-taste changes
-hearing changes
-dry eyes/throat
-hours to days
-younger patients

stroke:
-forehead CAN wrinkle-body weakness, pins and needles
-trouble walking
-vision changes
-seconds to minutes
-older patients

164
Q

How do you treat a foreign body in the eye that appears to be brown?

A

Usually means it’s metal

Remove it and give chloramphenicol

165
Q

What are the stages of hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Keith-Wagener

1- increased light reflex
2- arteriovenous nipping
3- cotton wool exudates, blot haemorrhages
4- papilloedema

166
Q

What is the commonest cause of blindness worldwide?

A

Cataracs

167
Q

Learn the field effect scene on different parts of the optic tract.

A

2 Optic chiasm: bitemporal hemianopia

3 optic tract: right homonymous hemianopia

4 right homonymous superior quadrantanopia

168
Q

A patient had a stroke and was left with this eye field defect. Where did the stroke occur?

A

Left parietal lobe

169
Q

What is the legal requirement for vision for the DVLA?

A

6/12 in ONE eye at least

the second number, i.e. 12 ^, the higher the number the worse the vision

170
Q

Learn the normal anatomy of the eye.

A
171
Q

Are acids or alkalis (ammonia) worse for the eyes?

A

Alkalis but remember battery acid is still an emergency

172
Q

What are the different types of cataracts?

A

Nuclear

posterior subcapsular

cortical

173
Q

How can you differentiate between pre-septal and orbital cellulitis?

A

Pre-septal usually has a history of insect bite

174
Q

What is sympathetic ophthalmia?

A

BILATERAL uveitis following an eye injury (the eye injury could have been in one eye)

175
Q

What artery is most likely affected in an extradural haematoma and what can this cause?

A

Middle meningeal artery expansion of the haematoma could lead to brain uncal herniation which this presses the ocularmotor nerve (3rd) caused a fixed and dilated pupil

176
Q

What is arteriovenous malformations?

A

a group of blood vessels form incorrectly and get tangled usually happens in birth but symptoms may never appearcan cause strokes, seizures, buzzing or rushing sound in ears, headache, vision changes, etc

177
Q

How is phenytoin measured?

A

the dose of the drug in the blood should be measured before the next dose if changing dose or toxicity

178
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

dominant inherited progressive muscle weakness and wasting

-muscle stiffness
-cataracts
-cardiac arrhythmias
-slurred speech
-bowel problems
-behavioural/personality problems

no cure

179
Q

If a patient presents to GP with TIA symptoms that happened within 7 days previously, what do you do?

A

Give aspirin immediately before referring to a specialist

If it was an acute TIA (happening now)/if they’re on anticoags then immediately for CT head first

180
Q

What is the treatment for impacted ear wax?

A

1 weeks of olive oil drops then review

181
Q

What vessel is most likely damaged in a subdural haematoma?

A

Bridging veins

182
Q

What are some differentials for multiple sclerosis?

A

Cord injury/compression, cervical myelopathy, stroke, Guillian-Barre syndrome

183
Q

How do you treat restless leg syndrome e.g. ‘antsy’, ‘creeping sensation’?

A

ropinirole

184
Q

How do you treat a brain abscess?

A

IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole

185
Q

What is ‘Saturday night palsy’?

A

compression of the radial nerve

wake up after drinking unable to extend wrist

physio and splinting

186
Q

How does normal pressure hydrocephalus present?

A

urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia

187
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

Inflammatory disorder of the nose

Sneezing
Bilateral nasal obstruction
Clear, nasal discharge
Post nasal drip
Nasal pruritus

Avoid allergen
Oral or intranasal antihistamines
Intranasal steroids
Oral steroids

188
Q

What is Todd’s Paralysis?

A

neurological condition experienced by individuals with epilepsy, in which a seizure is followed by a brief period of temporary paralysis, usually on one side of the body

no treatment

189
Q

What is the ROSIER tool used for?

A

recognition of stroke in the emergency room

-rule out hypoglycaemia too

190
Q

What are the features of Cushing’s triad?

A

Hypertension
Bradycardia

191
Q

How can you tell the difference between Parkinson’s disease and drug induced Parkinsonism?

A

Drug induced has a rapid onset and is bilateral

Drug induced does not usually have rigidity and a rest tremor

192
Q

What drug can cause Parkinsonism?

A

Antipsychotics

193
Q

How can you tell the difference between Parkinson’s disease and progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)?

A

PSP:
Usually has a history of instability and falls
Impairment of vertical gaze
“Plause sign”- clapping doesn’t stop

194
Q

What is diabetic maculopathy?

A

Structural changes due to diabetes:
Thickening and distortion of fovea

Management —> VEGF if visual acuity changes

195
Q

What is a side effect of panretinal photo coagulation for diabetic retinopathy?

A

Decrease in night vision

196
Q

Learn the circle of Willis.

A
197
Q

Label the brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla, cerebellum) on the MRI.

A

The purple blob is one side of the cerebellum

198
Q

Learn where the basal ganglia is on a brain MRI.

A
199
Q

What investigations are needed to identify the cause of a stroke?

A

General stroke:
ECG: 24hr
CT
MRI
Echo
USS Doppler
Lipid screen

Young stroke <50:
Same as above: also looking for patent foramen ovale (PFO) right to left shunting
Social factors
Thrombophillia screen
Autoimmune screen
Pregnancy
Sickle cell
HIV

200
Q

How can you tell the difference between a haemorrhagic and a ischaemic stroke on a CT?

A

White: haemorrhagic
Black: ischaemic

201
Q

How would you treat hypertension acutely in a stroke patient who’s had thrombolysis (alteplase)?

A

This cannot be done if already bleeding and a common side effect of this treatment is hypertension

If the BP rises to >185/110 OR any neurological signs of a raised ICP give IV labetalol 10mg and can repeat this if needed

202
Q

What scoring system is used to quantify how SEVERE the stroke is?

A

NIHSS score

203
Q

If someone on a DOAC has had a stroke what should be done?

A

DOAC stopped for 2 weeks whilst on aspirin then restart

204
Q

How do you treat a TIA?

A

Aspirin 300mg UNLESS:
-bleeding disorder
-taking an anticoagulant
-taking aspirin already

If more than 1 TIA (crescendo TIA) then admit

MRI (NOT CT HEAD) and carotid Doppler

Long term:
Clopidogrel
Statin
Carotid endarterectomy if in carotid territory >70% stenosis
Cannot drive until seen by a specialist

205
Q

What is a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

Benign tumour of parotid gland

Age 40-60
Slow growing
Painless
Unilateral face swelling

Surgery

206
Q

How do you interpret audiograms?

A

-anything above the 20 line is normal (green line)
-if air and bone are below = sensorineural loss
-if air is below = conductive
-if both are affected but air is worse = mixed hearing loss

207
Q

How can you tell the difference between bacterial meningitis and encephalitis from a lumbar puncture?

A

Bacterial meningitis = raised neutrophils

Encephalitis = raised lymphocytes

208
Q

Young girl seizures in the morning/after sleep deprivation?

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

209
Q

Give examples of UMN and LMN conditions and the symptomatic differences.

A

UMN:
Stroke, MS, brown-sequard, B12 deficiency, MND
-increased tone (rigid), reduced power, hyperreflexia, upgoing Babinski

LMN:
MND (both), Guillain-Barre, trauma, compression
-wasting, decreased or normal tone, reduced power, reduced/absent reflexes, normal or no movement babinski

210
Q

What is motor neurone disease (MND)?

A

Progressive disease no cure
Two types: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis or progressive bulbar palsy (affects swallowing and talking)

-cranial nerve, UMN, LMN exams
-FBC, U+Es, CRP, ESR, B12
-CT/MRI
-nerve conduction studies
-refer to neurology

Management:
-riluzole slows progression
-quinine for cramps
-gabapentin for spasticity
-NIV breathing for muscle weakness
-**MDT/palliative referral **
-CBT/SSRIs for mental symptoms
-PEG tube for nutrition
-OT/physio

211
Q

What are the causes of sudden loss of vision?

A

-retinal detachement
-vitreous haemorrhage
-posterior vitreous haemorrhage
-glaucoma
-GCA
-central artery occlusion
-central vein occlusion
-diabetic retinopathy
-hypertensive retinopathy