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Opthalmology Flashcards

(70 cards)

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1
Q

accomodation

A

ability of the lens to change shape and vary the amount it refracts light

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2
Q

presbyopia

A

diminishing ability of the lens to accommodate - usually occurs with increasing age

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3
Q

Cataract

A

any opacity of the lens

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4
Q

Phacoemulsification

A

Surgery for cataracts where the lens is removed and replaced via a small self-sealing incision in the cornea

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5
Q

myadrisis

A

pupil dilation to allow more light to enter the eye - sympathetic innervation of dilator pupillae (arranged radially)

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6
Q

miosis

A

pupil contraction to allow less light to enter the eye - parasympathetic innervation (carried by oculomotor) of sphincter pupillae (encircles the pupillary margin)

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7
Q

anterior uveitis

A

inflammation of the iris +/- the ciliary body

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8
Q

intermediate uveitis

A

inflammation of the posterior ciliary body and nearby peripheral retina and choroid

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9
Q

posterior uveitis

A

inflammation of the retina and choroid

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10
Q

panuveitis

A

inflammation of the entire uveal tract (iris, ciliary body and choroid,

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11
Q

cycoplegia

A

paralysis of the ciliary muscle

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12
Q

rod cells

A

cells in the neural retina which detect contrast and movement

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13
Q

cone cells

A

cells in the neural retina which detect colour and detail

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14
Q

heterophoria

A

misalignment of the eyes

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15
Q

heterotropia

A

constant misalignment of the eyes

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16
Q

latent strabismus

A

misalignment of the eyes when vision is dissociated - cover/uncover test

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17
Q

ambylopia

A

‘lazy eye’ - inability to achieve full visual acuity despite corrected refractive error. Due to eye and brain failing to communicate

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18
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

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19
Q

incomitant strabismus

A

angle of deviation changes with direction of gaze

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20
Q

concomitant strabismus

A

angle of deviation remains the same with all directions of gaze

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21
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognise common objects despite an intact visual apparatus

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22
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

transient, painless loss of vision

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23
Q

amblyopia

A

reduced visual acuity with no demonstrable organ defect

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24
Q

anopthalmos

A

congenital absence of the eyeball

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25
blepharitis
inflammation of the eyelid
26
chemosis
conjunctival swelling
27
colobloma
congenital cleft due to failure of some portion of the eye or eyelid to complete growth
28
cycloplegic
a drug which paralyses accommodation and dilates the pupil
29
dacrocystitis
infection of the lacrimal sac
30
ectropion
turning out of the eyelid
31
entropion
turning inwards of the eyelid
32
enucleation
complete surgical removal of the eyeball
33
hypermetropia
long-sightedness (close objects are blurred)
34
myopia
short-sightedness (commonly due to elongated eyeball ) distant objects are blurred.
35
astigmatism
refractive error which due to cornea having greater curvature in one plane compared to another i.e. rugby ball shaped rather than football shaped.
36
nystagmus
rapid, involuntary movements of the eye ball in any direction
37
ptosis
drooping of the eyelid
38
exophthalmos
abnormal protrusion of the eyeball
39
RAPD causes
extensive retinal detachment | optic neuritis
40
Cover/uncover test, which eye is the fixating eye?
movement will only be seen when covering the fixating eye
41
Differentiating episcleritis and scleritis
In episcleritis, the injected vessels are mobile when gentle pressure is applied on the sclera. In scleritis, vessels are deeper, hence do not move
42
Features of herpes zoster opthalmicus
vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself Hutchinson's sign: rash on the tip or side of the nose. Indicates nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement
43
Manegement of herpes zoster opthalmicus
oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days ideally started within 72 hours intravenous antivirals may be given for very severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review
44
Retinal Changes in diabetic retinopathy
Mild - 1 or more microaneurysm Moderate - microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spot Severe - blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms in 4 quadrants, venous beading in at least 2 quadrants, intraretinal microvascular abnormalities Proliferative - retinal neovascularisation - may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, fibrous tissue forming anterior to retinal disc
45
ARMD | types and causes
degeneration of photoreceptors dry - formation of drusen wet - choroidal neovascularisation leads to blood and serous fluid leakage
46
(4) ARMD risk factors
increasing age smoking family Hx CVS risk factors
47
Presentation of ARMD (5)
``` subacute loss of vision difficulty seeing in the dark variable vision day to day flashing/flickering lights 'glare' around objects. ```
48
Mx of ARMD
dry - antioxidants | wet - anti-VEGF, laser photocoagulation
49
Causes of cataracts (9)
``` increasing age smoking alcohol diabetes corticosteroid use trauma radiation exposure myotonic dystrophy hypocalcemia ```
50
Presentation of cataracts(5)
``` gradual onset decrease in VA faded colours glare halos around lights ```
51
Mx of cataracts
optimise vision - glasses and increased lighting | surgery - replace the lens with an artificial one
52
compliciations of phacoemulsification
posterior capsule opacification posterior capsule rupture retinal detachment inflammation of the aqueous or vitreous humour
53
Retinal detachment presentation
Dense shadow that starts peripherally progresses towards the central vision A veil or curtain over the field of vision Straight lines appear curved Central visual loss
54
Vitreous haemorrhage presentation
Large bleeds cause sudden visual loss Moderate bleeds may be described as numerous dark spots Small bleeds may cause floaters
55
Argyll-Robertson Pupil
a pupil that accommodates but does not react to light | seen in neurosyphilis and diabetes
56
causes of mydriasis (4 plus 3 drug groups)
``` third nerve palsy Holmes-Adie pupil traumatic iridoplegia phaeochromocytoma congenital ``` Drugs: topical mydriatics: tropicamide, atropine sympathomimetic drugs: amphetamines, cocaine anticholinergic drugs: tricyclic antidepressants
57
What is a Holmes-Adie pupil?
A benign condition most commonly seen in women. usually a unilateral dilated pupil once the pupil has constricted it remains small for an abnormally long time slowly reactive to accommodation but very poorly (if at all) to light
58
Causes of papilloedema (5)
``` space-occupying lesion: neoplastic, vascular malignant hypertension idiopathic intracranial hypertension hydrocephalus hypercapnia ```
59
What is acute closed-angle glaucoma?
physical obstruction of aqueous flow through the trabecular network resulting in a sudden onset raised intraocular pressure, causing optic neuropathy
60
what is chronic open-angle glaucoma?
increased resistance in the trabecular network results in increased IOP which causes optic neuropathy
61
presentation on acute closed-angle glaucoma (7)
acutely painful eye or headache decreased visual acuity pain exacerbated by mydriasis - dark room red eye seeing haloes around lights corneal oedema systemic upset e.g. nausea, vomiting, abdo pain
62
risk factors for acute closed-angle glaucoma (3)
increasing age pupillary dilatation hypermetropia
63
management of acute closed-angle glaucoma
urgent Opthalmology referral reduce aqueous secretions - acetazolamide constrict pupil - pilocarpine eye drops
64
risk factors or chronic open-angle glaucoma (7)
``` increasing age family hx being black myopia hypertension diabetes corticosteroids ```
65
presentation of chronic open-angle glaucoma (3)
insidious - often detected at routine appointments decreased peripheral vision, initially nasal scotoma decreased VA
66
fundoscopy findings in chronic open-angle glaucoma(5)
``` optic disk cupping (cup:disk ration >0.7) optic disk pallor bayonetting of vessels cup notching disk haemorrhage ```
67
management of chronic open-angle glaucoma
1st - prostaglandin analogue eyedrops 2nd - beta-blocker eye drops 3rd surgery or laser therapy
68
What is Nasolacrimal duct obstruction? management?
imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct causes eye-watering Around 1 in 10 infants have symptoms at around one month of age teach parent lacrimal duct massage
69
risk factors for vitreal haemorrhage (5)
``` Diabetes Trauma Anticoagulants Coagulation disorders Severe short sightedness ```
70
staging of hypertensive retinopathy
``` I Arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity Increased light reflex - silver wiring II Arteriovenous nipping III Cotton-wool exudates Flame and blot haemorrhages IV Papilloedema ```

Finals (34 decks)

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