Optho #2 Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

what is the number one cause of blindness in working age Americans?

A

diabetes!

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2
Q

what is more important to control in order to maintain a healthy retina and to prevent retinopathy; blood glucose or hypertension?

A

The UK study found that blood pressure control was just as important as glycemic control in preventing diabetic retinopathy

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3
Q

what are the first signs of diabetes in the retina?

A

micro aneurysms (are leaky)

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4
Q

what are the intermediate signs of diabetes of the retina?

A

dot and blot hemorrhages
hard exudates
cotton wool spots (infarction of nerve fiber layer)
Macular edema

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5
Q

what single factor is the most common cause of visual impairment in diabetic retinopathy?

A

macular edema (Pg 166)

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6
Q

what does non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy mean?

A

That the patient is in the initial stage of retinal damage

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7
Q

what percent of diabetes get macular edema that causes visual impairment?

A

5-15%

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8
Q

what do exudates look like on the retina?

A

small white blotches, often in a “ring” formation

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9
Q

what does a hemorrhage look like on the retina?

A

increased redness and unable to see vessels clearly because of blood.

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10
Q

what do you see in severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (AKA pre-proliferative retinophathy)?

A
increased vascular tortuosity and hemorrhage
venous beading (not bleeding)
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11
Q

Of patients diagnosed with severe NPDR, what percent will develop into proliferative diabetic retinopathy within one year?

A

40%

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12
Q

what do you see in severe proliferative retinopathy?

A

Neovascularization! (this can occur anywhere on the retina, optic disk, and also in the iris causing glaucoma)

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13
Q

how do you treat neovascularization of the retina?

A

photocoagulation (laser) and anti-VEGF

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14
Q

Besides hemorrhage, new vessel formation also increase retinal detachment. Why?

A

Because with the formation of new vessels there is also a lot of fibrous tissue that causes traction on the retina resulting in detachment.

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15
Q

what is DME?

A

diabetic macular edema

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16
Q

what is FBS?

A

foreign body sensation

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17
Q

what is CRAO?

A

central retinal artery oclusion

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18
Q

what is CNVM?

A

choroidal neovascular membrane

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19
Q

what is PDR?

A

proliferative diabetic retinopathy

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20
Q

what is CSME?

A

clinically significant macular edema

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21
Q

why is photo-coagulation (laser) done on the retina? 2x

A

1) reduces the oxygen demand of the retina to reduce the VEGF released reducing the amount of new vessel formation
2) directly kills new vessels

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22
Q

What is PRP?

A

pan retinal photocoagulation

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23
Q

Is PRP effective?

A

Yes, it can reduce severe visual loss by at least 50% and as much as 90% if done at the right time.

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24
Q

What anti VEGF is often prescribed to help with neovascularization?

A

Ranibizumab (Lucentis)

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25
when should you start screening diabetics every year?
once they are post pubertal and have had diabetes for 5 years or more
26
T/F diabetic retinopathy slows during pregnancy?
False, it actually progresses much quicker so an evaluation needs to be done every trimester!
27
Arteriolar sclerosis causes the retinal arteries to change in appearance. what is the normal progression?
1) normal appearing vasculature 2) increased light reflex (called copper wire arterioles) 3) loss of light reflex (called silver wire arterioles)
28
BRVO leads to what findings?
retinal hemorrhages and cotton wool spots
29
BRAO leads to what findings?
arteriol occlusion causing whitening of the retina in that area and cherry red spot if involving the fovea.
30
In a person with giant cell, what do you give the patient for treatment?
systemic prednisone
31
ACUTE high blood pressure (greater than 200/120) result in what effects in the retina? 5x
``` exudates cotton wool spots flame hemorrhages subretinal fluid Optic disk swelling (resembling papilledema) ```
32
the most common/sensitive changes of the retinal vessels associated with chronic hypertension are?
#1 attenuation of retinal arterioles a) focal narrowing of vessels b) A/V crossing changes
33
T/F Lowering of the intraocular pressure, decrease in corneal sensitivity and transient loss of accommodation are all normal with pregnancy?
True
34
T/F there is an increased risk of chorioretinopathy and uveal melanomas during pregnancy?
True
35
T/F women with gestational diabetes are not more at risk for retinopathy?
True
36
sarcoidosis causes anterior uveitis. what parts of the eye are involved?
Iris, ciliary body, and cornea
37
Sarcoidosis also causes posterior uveitis. What part of the eye is affected?
The choriod
38
what is posterior synechiae?
adherence of the lens to the iris
39
neurosarcoidosis can present with what ocular findings?
CN 3 and 6 palsy | Optic neuropathy
40
Juvenile RA is frequently associated with which eye condition?
iritis
41
Iritis is also common to which 3 other systemic diseases involving the joints?
Reiters ankylosing spondylitis Behcets syndrome
42
what is a kerotic precipitate?
inflammatory cells that stick onto the posterior surface of the cornea with anterior uveitis
43
which 4 rheumatological diseases are known to cause keratitis sicca (dry eye syndrome)?
Sjogrens SLE RA Sarcoidosis
44
Cotton wool spots, CMV retinitis, and kaposi sarcoma of the eylids are the most common complications all associated with which disease?
AIDS
45
what is the leading cause of visual loss in patients with AIDS?
CMV retinitis (only takes weeks to months)
46
what eye disease develops from untreated congenital syphilis?
acute interstitial keratitis with uveitis | usually between 5 and 25 years old and bilateral if congenital and unilateral if aquired
47
what should you do if you suspect syphilitic uveitis?
check spinal fluid
48
what causes a fluffy white to yellow superficial retinal infiltrate that can lead to an overlying vitrious haze and eventual viritis?
candida infection of the eye. This is common along with herpes zoster.
49
what do you give to treat candidiasis of the eye? 2x
amphoteracin B or voriconazole
50
what is hutchinsons sign?
Vesicles on the tip of the nose, or vesicles on the side of the nose, precedes the development of ophthalmic herpes zoster.
51
T/F Herpes zoster can cause anterior uveitis without the associated skin lesions?
true
52
what is the most common cause of unilateral proptosis?
thyroid disease just like in bilateral proptosis
53
You have a guy with HIV and hemorrhage, what is the #1 cause of this?
CMV (candida and toxo are also common with HIV but usually do not present with hemorrhage)
54
T/F Glaucoma is asymptomatic in most patients until it is very advanced?
True
55
What are the disadvantages of having glaucoma in African americans.
Higher prevalence earlier onset more difficult to treat 8X as much blindness
56
vertical lengthening of the cup on the optic nerve means what? (Vertical Cupping)
pathological! most likely Glaucoma
57
what causes congenital glaucoma?
failure of trabecular meshwork to develop.
58
If you see big eyes and cloudy corneas in a baby, what should you think and not miss?
congenital glaucoma
59
who is at highest risk for acute glaucoma?
hyperopics Asians elderly
60
what are the two anesthetics used for the eye?
Proparacaine | Tetracaine
61
which 3 drugs are frequently used in optho for mydriatics and work by blocking cholinergic receptors?
Tropicamide Cyclopentolate Homatropine
62
which drug is an andrenegric stimulating drug that is used as a mydriatic?
Phenylephrine
63
what is declofenac?
NSAID
64
what is Ketorolac?
NSAID
65
T/F anti cholinergic drugs not only cause mydriasis but also cycloplegia?
true
66
T/F mydriatics are more effective in people with blue eyes compared to those with brown eyes?
True
67
what are the 3 major sypathomimetic drugs used to reduce eye injection?
Naphazoline Phenylephrine Tetrahydrozaline
68
what is triflurdine used for?
treating opthalmic herpes simplex (not zoster)
69
How do beta blockers reduce ocular pressure?
Reduces aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body
70
what is levobunolol?
Beta blocker (1 &2)
71
what is Cartenolol?
Beta blocker (1 &2)
72
why is Betaxolol different from the other beta blockers?
It is Beta 1 selective so it doesn't have the pulmonary side effects
73
what is pilocarpine and how does it work on the eye?
cholinergic stimulating drug increases aqueous outflow by causing the iris to constrict. (also lacrimation, salivation, perspiration, nausea)
74
what is brimonidine?
alpha 2 agonist that lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous production and increasing aqueous outflow
75
what is apraclonidine and what does it do?
alpha 1 and 2 agonist that decreased IOP by decreasing aqueous production and increasing aqueous outflow
76
How do prostaglandins help with glaucoma?
they increase outflow through the trabecular meshwork
77
what is latanoprost?
prostaglandin
78
How do you identify prostaglandins?
-prost suffix (bimatoprost, travoprost)
79
what are the only drugs used for long term glaucoma treatment?
CA inhibitors
80
what are the 3 most common Carbonic anhydride inhibitors?
Acetazolamide Methazolamide Dichlorphenamide
81
what are Droxolamide and brinzolamide?
topical CA inhibitors
82
amioderone has what effect on the eye?
decreased vision bilateral optic disc swelling pigmented deposits on cornea
83
bisphosphonates have what effect on the eye? (-dronates)
conjunctivitis scleritis uveitis
84
chloroquines (originally for malaria) are also used to treat RA, SLE, ect. What effects does it have on the eye?
corneal deposits and retinopathy
85
corticosteroids to what to the lens?
cause posterior capsule cateracts
86
What does ethambutol do to vision?
red/green color blindness and permanent visual loss
87
what is Rifabutin? what does it do to the eyes?
Antiviral med used for mycobacterium avium complex. | Can cause severe uveitis.
88
what is Tadalifil? Vardenafil?
same as Sildenafil (phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor)
89
what causes intraoperative floppy iris syndrome?
Tamsulosin (alpha 1 antagonist) not reversed when stopped.
90
What does topiramate do to the eye?
It can cause bilateral angle closure glaucoma because of ciliary body swelling