Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Gen Exam 1 > OR > Flashcards

OR Flashcards

1
Q

Leading cause of medical errors/patient harm

A

ineffective communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ineffective communication causes about ___ % of sentinel events.

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common med errors

A

opioids
muscle relaxants
antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1 in ___ anesthetics are assoc. w/ an error

A

133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

OR temp
when is it higher?

A

68-73 F
burns, peds, greater body exposure, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypothermia risk factors

A

wound infxn
higher blood loss
impaired coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

OR humidity

A

30-60%

too low = greater airborne motility (infxn risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

OR air exchange frequency

A

25x/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How loud can it get in the OR?

A

70-80 decibels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fire Triad

A

Ignition source
Oxidizer
Fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fire risk factors

A
  • Increased risk w O2 concentration of 30% or greater
  • Surgery above the xiphoid
  • Laser surgery and surgery in the airway
  • Alcohol-based skin preps that don’t dry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fire prevention

A

*COMMUNICATION
*O2 <30%
*let alcohol dry
* Wet gauze around the area to prevent
* Turn O2 down for 2-3 min before surgeon needs cautery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Airway Fire

A
  1. Turn off gas source
  2. Stop vent
  3. Pull breathing tube
  4. Pour saline in the airway
  5. Reintubate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CO2 extinguisher
when to use
pros

A

Safe during external and internal exposure for fires in the OR

Nontoxic
readily dissipates
less likely to cause thermal injury
not liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Electric shock is produced by ___.

A

current

NOT VOLTAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do line isolation monitors do?

A
  • Continuously monitors the integrity of an isolated power system
  • Does not provide complete protection from electrocution

alarms @ 2-5 mA
alarm = leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is more common?
microshock
macroshock

A

macroshock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OR power is ____. Machines in the OR are ___.
(grounded/ungrounded)

A

OR = ungrounded
machines = grounded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum harmless current

A

5 mA (miliamps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cause for macroshock?

A

damaged/faulty equipment wiring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Isolation transformer

A

isolates the operating room power supply from ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F
You can use the outlets in the back of the anesthesia machine for equipment.

A

False
don’t plug stuff into the back of the machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If the line isolation monitor starts alarming, what does this mean? Are we all gonna die?

A

alarms at 2-5 miliamps

reading is not the actual current flowing
it is how much current WOULD flow in the event of a second fault (a second fault could/would be bad)

does not indicate a hazardous situation

it indicates that OR is no longer isolated from the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If the line isolation alarms, do we unplug life support machines?

A

No
unplug all other nonvital equipment, as this may be reason for alarm

vital equipment can be safely used but do not plug in more equipment, as it can introduce a second fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Electrosurgical Units (cautery)
* Doesn’t usually produce shock effects * Remember placement of the return plate on the patient * Bipolar cautery is usually used for much smaller/finer areas to have more control
26
When and how to disable cardiac implants
when cautery is used placing a magnet over the AICD device during electroconvulsive therapy
27
Electrosurgical units can interfere with what other equipment?
ECG CO pulse ox
28
ALARP
as low as reasonably possible (exposure to ionizing radiation)
29
Factors to protect from radiation
time distance sheilding
30
Can gas sampling lines be reused?
No
31
Whats the number 1 occupational hazard in anesthesia?
substance abuse
32
Macroshock starts at....
1+ mA
33
How much amperage is needed to cause vfib?
100 mA
34
Touching a faulty piece of equipment in the OR causes...
IPS (Instant Power Supply) to be converted into grounded system
35
What is needed to increase risk to macroshock?
a second piece of faulty equipment
36
T/F The Line Isolation monitor prevents shock
False only able to alert increased risk of shock
37
ground-fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
monitors hot and neutral wires ensures equal current flow interrupts power if difference is detected
38
In the case of faulty equipment, current may flow thru the person touching it and trip the ____.
ground-fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) GFCI trip: disconnects the current flowing through an unintended ground path (even if the current is too small to trip a typical circuit breaker)
39
Risks for hypothermia
Wound infection increased intraoperative blood loss impaired coagulation
40
What does a leak check of the machine's low-pressure system evaluate? Why is this so important?
The integrity of the anesthesia machine from the flowmeters to the common gas outlet. Important: Leaks in this circuit can lead to hypoxia and/or patient awareness
41
Does a manual positive-pressure leak test check the integrity of the unidirectional valves?
No This test does not check the integrity of the unidirectional valves
42
What are the risk of hypothermia in the patient?
Wound infection increased intraoperative blood loss impaired coagulation
43
What if the humidity in the OR is too low or high?
Humidity too high: damp or moist supplies (contamination) Humidity too low: increases incidence of static changes & airborne motility of particular matter (vector for infection) *Maintained between 30-60% humidity
44
What should you do if there is fire on the patient?
Turn off gases Remove drapes & burning materials Extinguish flames with water, saline, or fire extinguisher Assess pt’s status, devise care plan, assess for smoke inhalation
45
What should you do if the line isolation monitor’s alarm is activated?
Check gauge to determine if true or false alarm Gauge reads **> 5 mA = likely a faulty piece of equipment** plugged into IPS Identify fault equipment by unplugging each piece of equipment Remove unneeded equipment from room *If faulty piece is needed for life support then it can be safely used
46
What is a line isolation monitor (LIM)?
Continuously monitors the integrity of an isolated power system Primary purpose: alarm if power system is no longer “ungrounded” due to faulty equipment. If a faulty piece of equipment is connected to the IPS, this will change the system back to a conventional grounded system; the faulty piece of equipment will continue to function normally Reading LIM indicates how much current would flow in the event of a first fault - it would require a second fault to create a dangerous situation
47
What is an isolation transformer?
Supplies underground power to OR Uses electromagnetic induction to induce a current in the ungrounded or secondary winding of the transformer from energy supplied to the primary winding Prevents shock from occurring in the OR by isolating the electrical power system and keeping it ungrounded
48
What are the OSHA occupational limits on radiation exposure?
OSHA dose limit for whole body radiation is 1.25 rem per calendar quarter *not to exceed a 5-rem annual whole body-dose of ionizing radiation
49
How are various anesthesia equipment kept clean? (Airway equipment, anesthesia machine, face masks)
Wiped down in the morning and in between each case by cleaning staff. Circuits/masks are replaced for every single pt
50
What are the CVC insertion, a-line insertion, and regional anesthesia precautions?
Sterile technique is maintained
51
Describe the fire triad?
Ignition: electrosurgical cautery, laser Oxidizer: oxygen, nitrous oxide (Anesthesia) Fuel: endotracheal tube, drapes, surgical supplies, surgical prep (alcohol, chlorhexidine)
52
What are the CDC Tier I and II precautions?
Tier 1: standard precautions - Used for all patients Tier 2: transmission-based precautions for pts with known/suspected infections Contact: gown + gloves Droplet: mask for workers + mask on patient Airborne: N95 masks for workers + mask on patient
53
How can you prevent an OR fire?
Keep inspired O2 low (< 30%) Wet gauze around the area Turn down O2 for 2-3 min before surgeon needs cautery Communicate/Timeouts
54
When should you wash your hands in the operating room?
after induction before and after entering OR follow universal precaution
55
Discuss the one needle, one syringe, and one time campaign.
The CDC’s and SIPC’s campaign to provide guidance on safe infection and medication vial management to eliminate unsafe medical injections
56
What is the AANA's position statement on infection control during an anesthetic?
Per AANA they “support patient safety through the use of evidence-based infection prevention and control practices”
57
What should you do if there is fire on the patient?
Turn off gases Remove drapes & burning materials Extinguish flames with water, saline, or fire extinguisher Assess pt’s status, devise care plan, assess for smoke inhalation
58
What effects do the anesthetic gases have on the health care worker?
Studies have not shown any evidence conflicting evidence headaches, possible DNA damage due to exposure to high levels, cancer, miscarriage per Barash
59
How many air exchanges occur per hour in the operating room?
CDC: minimum of 15 total air change per hour National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA): 25
60
At what temperature is the operating room usually maintained?
between 68-73°F Kept warmer for: burns, large surface area exposed (i.e., plastic surgery), pediatric patients, trauma

Gen Exam 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions