Oral Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

What documentation is required for a pilot during the IFR checkride?

A

Pilot license, government photo ID, medical certificate.

This documentation is essential for verifying the pilot’s qualifications.

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2
Q

What documentation is required for the airplane during the IFR checkride?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, Operating Handbook, Weight and Balance.

These documents ensure the aircraft is compliant with regulations.

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3
Q

What aircraft inspections are required and how often must they be completed?

A
  • Annual: every 12 calendar months
  • VOR: every 30 days
  • 100-hour (for hire)
  • Altimeter/Pitot-static: every 24 calendar months
  • Transponder: every 24 calendar months
  • ELT: every 12 calendar months
  • ELT battery: at half of useful life or 1 hour of continuous use.

ADs are handled with the annual inspection unless they are recurring.

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4
Q

What is the correct logging information for VOR checks?

A

D.E.P.S. – Date, Error, Place, Signature.

This information is crucial for maintaining accurate records of VOR checks.

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5
Q

What is the allowable error for VOR checks?

A

Dual +/- 4
VOT +/- 4
VOR Ground +/- 4,
VOR Air +/-6

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6
Q

What are the ways to obtain a clearance for an IFR flight?

A
  • Ground control (e.g. RNT)
  • Clearance Delivery frequency (e.g. PAE) or phone (A/FD)
  • Call ATC from the air after taking off VFR
  • FSS in the air or by phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF)
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7
Q

What are the effects of icing on an aircraft?

A
  • Changes flight characteristics:
    Increases stall speed
    Increases drag
    Increases weight
    Decreases lift
    Decreases thrust.
  • Affects instrument readings
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8
Q

How should a pilot land an aircraft if ice has formed on it?

A

In the 172, approach 75kt, flaps up, land flat

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9
Q

What should a pilot do if they encounter ice while flying 2000’ above MEA and at 0 C?

A

Descend to above-freezing temps

Climbing or descending can help avoid further ice accumulation.

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10
Q

You are at MEA and have picked up ice. What could you do?

A
  1. ATC’s minimum vectoring altitude might get you above freezing
  2. Climbing might get you above clouds or into very cold air where ice won’t form
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11
Q

You just started to pick up ice, what is something else you can do?

A

While climbing or descending might get you to non-icing conditions, turning back to where you know there was no ice is often the best bet. You may have just encountered a front.

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12
Q

What is the frequency for a Flight Service Station (FSS)?

A

122.2.

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13
Q

What’s a SIGMET?

A

Inflight weather advisory for significant meterological hazards. Cover an area of 3000+ sq mi.
Issued for severe icing, dust storms, turbulance, and volcanic ash.

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14
Q

What’s a convective SIGMET?

A
  • Embedded thunderstorms
  • A line of thunderstorms
  • Thunderstorms with heavy precipitation affecting 40%+ of an area at least 3,000 square miles
  • Surface winds 50+ knots due to severe thunderstorm
  • Hail 3/4+ inches in diameter
  • Tornadoes
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15
Q

How long are AIRMETS and SIGMETS valid?

A

AIRMET: 6 hrs
SIGMET: 4 hrs
Conv. SIGMET: 2 hrs

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16
Q

You are stabilized and your VSI suddenly jumps, what is the cause?

A

Wind shear: a sudden change of wind speed and/or direction over a short distance

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17
Q

When is it necessary to report equipment failure?

A

91.187 requires reports of malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight and the degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired and the nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.

IFR pilots are also required to report any safety-of-flight issue, so failure of required equipment should also be reported.

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18
Q

Do you have to report VSI failure?

A

No, it’s not required and its failure is unlikely to endanger the flight.

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19
Q

If the VSI fails, what’s the likely cause?

A

Static port blockage

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20
Q

What’s the allowable altimeter error?

A

75’

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21
Q

What are the fuel requirements for an IFR flight?

A

To reach the destination plus 45 minutes without an alternate, or to reach the destination, then the alternate, plus 45 minutes with an alternate.

Don’t fail to include approach/missed time

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22
Q

What instrument readings change as a result of using alternate static air?

A

VSI will jump momentarily and airspeed and altitude will read high

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23
Q

What ATC reports are required?

24
Q

What is the minimum crossing altitude (MCA)?

A

The altitude that must be reached at a specific fix when crossing it.

25
What is the standard lapse rate for temperature changes with altitude?
2°C every 1000 feet. ## Footnote Understanding this rate helps pilots manage altitude changes effectively.
26
What should a pilot do if they lose communications after receiving a clearance?
Follow the AVEF routing and MEA for altitude. ## Footnote * AVEF: fly Assigned, Vectored, Expected, and Filed routes in that order of preference. * MEA: fly the highest of the Minimum IFR, Expected, and assigned altitude.
27
What is the best case scenario when you lose communications?
If VFR, land at the nearest airport and inform ATC ## Footnote Squawk 7600 on the transponder
28
When can you descend below your enroute altitude?
Not until you’re established on a segment of the approach
29
What are obstacle departure procedures?
Procedures to ensure clearance from obstacles during departure
30
Are obstacle departure procedures mandatory?
No, they are optional
31
What does SID stand for?
Standard Instrument Departure
32
Does a SID provide obstacle clearance?
Yes
33
What does STAR stand for?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route
34
What does 'Clear Tyler One arrival' signify?
Routing only, does not give altitude clearance
35
What does 'Descend via Tyler One arrival' allow?
Follow both published routing and altitudes
36
Where do you find the airport elevation on an approach plate?
Top of the Briefing Strip Information section ## Footnote Also on the airport sketch
37
What are the minimums for KTTD RNAV approach?
1000 feet circling
38
What does MSA stand for?
Minimum Safe Altitude
39
What is the altitude indicated for MSA at KTTD?
6500 feet
40
What does the dotted line on an approach plate indicate?
Missed approach
41
What is the lightweight line on an approach plate called?
Feeder Route
42
Why is it important to brief how the final approach course meets the runway?
To know what to expect when breaking out
43
What does the circled V and P on an airport diagram denote?
VASI and PAPI
44
What does the inverse 'D' symbol on the approach plate mean?
Declared runway distance is available
45
What is a circling-only approach?
An approach that requires circling due to final approach course alignment issues (>30º) or excessive descent requirements (>400ft/nm)
46
What is the procedure if a missed approach is initiated while circling?
Do a climbing turn toward the runway and continue turning until established on the missed approach course
47
When can ATC assign a visual approach
When the pilot has the airport or preceding aircraft in sight.
48
What are the minimums for a visual approach?
1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility
49
What is a contact approach?
An approach relying on maintaining visual references with the ground, remaining clear of clouds with 1 statute mile visibility. ## Footnote It is crazy.
50
What are the standard squawk codes?
* 1200 VFR * 7500 Hijack * 7600 Lost Comms * 7700 Emergency
51
What is the standard emergency frequency?
121.5
52
What symbol denotes the ILS Localizer Course?
Standard ILS feather appears where the signal can identify an intersection.
53
What is the squiggly line box for?
ARTCC remote facilities
54
How do RCOs appear?
On IFR Low charts, they appear as bullseye dots with boxed text pointing at them. On VFR charts they appear by themselves or as part of a rectangular blue VOR box.
55
What is CRM in aviation?
Crew Resource Management