Oral Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What is the minimum flight crew required?
A
2, One pilot and one co-pilot
2
Q
What is the maximum number of people allowed?
A
22 total
19 passengers and 3 crew members or number of seatbelts installed, whichever is less
3
Q
What is the Global 6500 wingspan?
A
94’
4
Q
What is the length of the Global 6500?
A
99’ 5”
5
Q
What is the tail height of the Global 6500?
A
25’ 6”
6
Q
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
A
68’ for landing gear
128’ for wing clearance
7
Q
What is the maximum taxi/ramp weight?
A
99,750 lbs
8
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A
99,500 lbs
9
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
78,600 lbs
10
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A
58,000 lbs
11
Q
What is the center of gravity range?
A
20% to 41% MAC
12
Q
What is the minimum/maximum runway slope?
A
+- 2%
13
Q
May operations from unprepared runways be conducted?
A
No
14
Q
What is the normal circling approach configuration and category?
A
Slats out / flaps 30
Vref +10 until maneuvering is complete and on final
CAT C minimums
15
Q
What is the prioritization of checklists?
A
Emergency procedures
Relevant normal procedures
Caution procedure
Advisory procedures
16
Q
What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff or landing near water above maximum landing weight?
A
Outflow valve 2 closed
One pack off
17
Q
MMO
A
0.89 Mach
18
Q
Vmo above 8,000’
A
340 KIAS
19
Q
Vmo below 8,000’
A
300 KIAS
20
Q
What is turbulence penetration speed?
A
300 KIAS / .80M
21
Q
What is the maximum certified operating altitude?
A
FL510
22
Q
What is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
A
10,000 feet pressure altitude
23
Q
What is the max/min ambient temperature for takeoff?
A
+50 degrees Celsius
-40 degrees Celsius
24
Q
What is the max tailwind component for engine start?
A
20 knots
25
During engine starting, if a tailwind is causing an observed N1 rotation, what procedure must be used?
Extended Dry Crank (EDC) for 30 seconds followed by an immediate auto start.
Note: This time is part of the 3 minutes of started operation controlled by the FADEC.
26
When winds exceed 20 knots, what is the restriction for thrust during taxi?
Minimum thrust
27
What procedure on takeoff must be used if the crosswind component exceeds 20 knots?
Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS
28
What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
10 knots
29
What is the maximum authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps?
18,000 feet
30
At what altitude must flight spoilers be retracted on approach?
300 feet AGL
31
Are there any limitations on the use of MAX spoilers?
MAX spoilers is restricted to abnormal or emergency procedures
32
What is the maximum slats extended speed?
225 KIAS
33
What is the maximum flaps 6 speed?
210 KIAS
34
What is the maximum flaps 16 speed?
210 KIAS
35
What is the maximum flaps 30 speed?
185 KIAS
36
What is Vlo?
200 KIAS
37
What is Vle?
250 KIAS
38
What is the tire limiting speed?
196 knots ground speed
39
What is Vmcg?
82 KIAS
40
What is Vmca?
88 KIAS
(Takeoff configuration)
41
What is Vmcl?
87 KIAS
(Landing configuration)
42
Which pumps supply normal hydraulic power to the hydraulic system?
The 3A pump which operates continuously
43
How many hydraulic ACMP pumps may be operating on the ground while on APU power?
1
44
Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps?
Systems 1 and 2 by pumps 1A and 2A
45
How is the hydraulic reservoir quantity accurately checked before engine start?
Turn in the “B” pump to pressurize the system
Note: The quantity indications are only accurate when the system is pressurized.
46
What is the normal hydraulic operating pressure?
3000 PSI
47
What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Global 6500?
SKYDROL LD-4
HYJET IV-A
48
What is the priority for hydraulic ACMP pumps?
3A - 3B - 2B - 1B
49
With the hydraulic ACMP “B” pump switches set to AUTO, when will the pumps activate?
Either slats or flaps not IN/0 and motion has stopped
System low pressure is detected (1800 PSI)
50
In flight, when hydraulic system 1 or 2 low pressure is detected, how long with the “B” pumps operate once activated?
Minimum of 5 minutes after normal pressure is restored.
Note: Pressure dipping below 1800 PSI will reset the clock. Pilot selection of the applicable ACMP control switch to either ON or OFF cancels the 5-minute timed sequence
51
How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed?
Selecting the HYD SOV switch “closed”
Pulling the fire DISCH handle
Note: Hydraulic fluid is both lubrication and cooling for the hydraulic pump. Closing the SOV will destroy the pump
52
What are the electrically driven hydraulic pumps and associated AC buses?
1B - AC Bus 3
2B - AC Bus 2
3B - AC Bus 1
3A - AC Bus 4
53
What hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?
System 3
Note: The landing gear, steering and brakes are isolated from the number 3 system when the RAT deploys. The RAT only powers the flight controls
54
What is the normal RAT accumulator pre-charge pressure?
1000 PSI at 15 degrees Celsius
White gauge
A placard near the accumulator shows the correct pressure for the current outside temperature
55
What is the normal hydraulic system brake accumulator pre-charge pressure?
500 PSI at 15 degrees Celsius
Black gauge
A placard near the accumulator shows the correct pressure for the current outside temperature
56
How is hydraulic fluid cooled?
Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks
Note: Left wing - systems 1 and 3
Right wing - system 2
57
What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?
Four 40 kava engine driven generators (60kVa for 5 minutes and 80 kVa for 5 seconds)
One 40 kVa APU generator (45 kVa on the ground)
One 9 kVa Ram Air Turbine (when all other AC sources have been lost)
58
How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?
Eight total
Four primary buses: 1,2,3,4
Four secondary buses: 1A, 2A, 3A, AC ESS. Bus 4 is divided into bus 4 and AC essential bus.
4,8 or 9 are all valid answers
59
What is the purpose of the AC power center (ACPC)
Protects, controls, and distributes AC power to the main AC buses
Note: Located in the baggage compartment
60
In the event of a single generator operation, which AC buses are automatically shed?
AC buses 2 and 3
Note: this results in AC buses 2A and 3A also being shed.
Losing 2 TRUs will cause the shedding of one DC bus
61
What does an external AC “AVAIL” light on the electrical panel indicate?
External AC power is connected
Power is the correct phase, voltage, and frequency
External Power is not online
62
During single-generator operations, which bus or buses are the last to shed?
AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 4
63
Where is the external AC panel?
Aft Service Control Panel
Note: left rear, aft of the hydraulic access panel
64
Which buses are powered with external AC connected and on in “normal mode”?
All AC and DC buses are powered
65
Where is the external DC power receptacle?
Under the APU
66
What is powered with external DC power?
APU start controller bus; can start APU only
67
What are the 6 primary DC power sources?
TRU 1, TRU 2, ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2
Avionics Battery
APU Battery
68
How many AC buses can 1 generator power?
2 buses
69
What are the 4 main DC buses?
DC Bus 1 and 2
DC ESS Bus
BATT Bus
Note: There are two battery direct buses in addition to the list above
70
How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole source of power?
Minimum of 15 minutes
Note: with AC power - DC power is supplied through the battery chargers to power the two Battery Direct buses, BATT and DC ESS buses
71
How do you know when a battery is not being charged?
An amber “CHARGER” indication next to the battery on the ELEC synoptic page
A cyan message in the CAS window, “APU or AV BATT CHGR FAIL”
72
Which DC Buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation?
DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2
Note: The remaining TRU will power the BATT bus and ESS bus. With 1 TRU failure, no buses are lost
73
What is the purpose of the DC POWER EMERGENCY OVERRIDE switch?
During loss of all DC power (i.e. complete failure of the DCPC)
Allows ESS TRU 1 and 2 to bypass the DCPC and power the SPDA’s directly through contractors within ADCPD boxes
74
Can the pilot reset a thermal circuit breaker from the EMS CDU?
No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location
75
Will a physical CB set a CAS message?
Yes
76
How do you know a CB has tripped?
A cyan “CB TRIP” CAS message
77
How do you determine the location of an open CB?
EMS CDU no location means an “electrical CB” or relay
EMS CDU location listed for a physical CB
78
When does the RAT automatically deploy?
Immediately with loss of all AC power when flaps and slats are not fully up
Immediately after failure of both engines
After a 14 sec delay with loss of all AC power when flaps and slats are up
79
What systems are not monitored by EMS?
Completion or cabin item
Note: This includes all the items on the CB panel above the pilot’s head
80
When does the RAT generator go off line?
Below 147 kts
81
On RAT generator power, when are the DC buses isolated
When the flaps are moving
Not more than 45 seconds
82
If a generator is reset after the RAT has deployed, how can normal power be restored?
Turn the RAT generator OFF
83
Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located?
Accessory Gear Box
Engine core
Fixed cowl
Note: There are two separate “loops”. Each “loop” has three “elements”. Each of the “elements” has a different temperature
84
What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles?
Halon
85
During an engine fire, what fire warning annunciations appear?
The respective fire DISCH handle illuminates
“L or R ENG FIRE” CAS with master warning lights
Fire box in EPR indicator
Aural warning voice message, “Left or Right Engine Fire”
86
What five events occur when the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled?
Fuel feed SOV closes
Hydraulic SOV closes
AC VFGs de-powered
Pneumatics PRSOV closes
Fire bottle squibs armed
87
What procedure must be used with the APU FIRE DISCH handle during an APU fire if the second fire extinguisher requires discharging?
Move the lockout pin to the right, while rotating the DISCH handle to the opposite direction
88
How is a DISCH handle operated when it is not illuminated, i.e. during emergency evacuations?
Press the release button (manual override) under the handle
89
What happens when the APU FIRE DISCH is pulled?
APU Fuel SOV closes
APU Ignition shut off
Pneumatics PRSOV closes
APU power shutoff (to FADEC)
Fire bottle squibs armed
90
Does pulling the FIRE DISCH handle command an immediate engine shutdown?
No. The fire handle closes the fuel feed SOV; the engine will run a few seconds to empty the line.
Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch
91
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what will the FADEC command after 5 sec?
Automatic shutdown of the APU, but NO fire bottles
92
May the APU be left unattended?
No. There is no provision for automatic fire discharge
93
Which smoke detectors are installed on “green” configuration aircraft?
Forward avionics bay
Aft avionics bay
Baggage compartment (not connected until the interior is installed)
Avionics Rack (global 5000 only)
Note: Additional detectors are installed per customer specifications
94
How is fire suppression for the baggage compartment, lavatories and cabin closets provided?
Portable fire extinguisher
Smoke detectors
95
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance for: ground operations, takeoff, landing?
Less than 19,450 wing tank fuel load - 1,100 fuel imbalance
19,450-20,250 - 1,100 to 600lbs
Greater than 20,250 - 600 lb imbalance
96
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight?
1,100 lbs
97
At what level of fuel imbalance will the auto transfer system activate?
400lbs
98
What is the maximum usable fuel load during pressure refueling?
Total: 45,100lbs
Wing: 15,050lbs
Center: 12,700 lbs
After Aux: 2,300 lbs
Note: on hot days (above approximately 12 degrees Celsius) the tanks will fill to maximum volume before reaching the specified weight
99
The fuel in the center tank is considered USABLE under what 2 conditions?
Each wing is full at departure and planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300
Note: dependent on power setting, fuel flow below FL300 may be higher than the transfer rate from the center or aft tanks
100
The fuel in the aft tank is considered usable under what 2 conditions?
Each wing contains atleast 5,500lbs of fuel at departure and the planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300
101
If use of the center/aft tank is planned, what is the minimum fuel tank load?
500 lbs to ensure transfer-pump priming
Note: Advisory wires discuss a replacement of the center wing pumps with lower fuel inlets to allow more complete emptying of the center wing tank. All of the aircraft in the vision fleet should have the new pumps
102
What is the minimum fuel for a go-around?
600 lbs / wing
Note: This assumes a max pitch attitude of 10 degrees
103
What are the limitations when using wide cut of CIS fuels?
Operation limited to 13,000 feet until the bulk fuel temperature is below 15 degrees Celsius.
Recirculation is prohibited
104
What are the 2 limitations associated with the FRTT (fuel re-circulation)
Prohibited when using wide cut or CIS fuels
Asymmetric operation is prohibited
105
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?
+5 degrees Celsius
Note: Minimum bulk fuel temperature for start is -40 degrees Celsius
106
When must the fuel cross-feed be selected “OFF”
Takeoff and landing
107
Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled?
Forward or aft aux tanks
108
How is positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight?
Ram air via NACA scoops
Note: On the ground, the NACA scoops provide ventilation and relieve build-up of vapor pressure
109
At what fuel quantity is operation of the pressure relief valves prohibited?
Wing tank greater than 11,800 lbs
Center tank greater than 8,000 lbs
Note: There is a placard next to the valves to indicate this limitation.
The aft tank does not incorporate a pull handle
110
What does the FMS “FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE” message on the HSI indicate?
Difference between FMQGC and FMD fuel quantity reading greater than 2% of the BOW (approximately 1080 lbs)
Note: This is your only indication of a possible fuel leak
111
Where does the “FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE” message appear?
On the PFF, inside the HSI
Also an amber “MSG” appears
Note: There are no checklists for messages appearing in the HSI
112
When does FRTT (fuel return to tank) automatically operate?
Above 34,000 feet
Any individual fuel temp sensor below -20 degrees Celsius or average of all temp sensor below -9 degrees Celsius
Note: Activated by the FMQGC; automatically deactivated when wing tank temp is greater than 5 degrees Celsius or when the altitude is below 33,800 feet
113
When do the AC wing boost pumps operate?
Engine run switches to “on”
XFEED SOV is selected open
AC power is available
Note: There are 2 AC pumps per wing tank; each AC pump is capable of providing 900-6500 lbs/hr depending on the frequency of the VFG providing the AC power
114
Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed?
Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead, installed in the engine feed line.
Closed via the associated fire discharge handle.
115
When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing tank begin?
Wing tank quantity below 93%
Continues until wing reaches 97% full
Note: Fuel transfer is controlled by the FMQGC and commands the applicable center transfer pumps on. There are no pilot controls.
116
When do fuel transfer from the AFT tank start?
If either wing tank falls to below 5,500 lbs
Note: The FMQGC opens both aft aux transfer SOVs and starts the 2 AC transfer pumps. Automatic transfer stops when quantity is less than 100 lbs in the aft tank.
117
What happens when the pilot selects the XFEED SOV to open?
All 4 AC primary fuel pumps will operate, regardless of the ENG RUN switch position.
118
When will the AC primary fuel pumps operate regardless of the ENGINE RUN switch position?
XFEED SOV to open
Note: This ensures both main tanks feed during engine inoperative operation.
119
Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?
Right wing tank
Note: After the APU creates a 400 lb imbalance, the fuel system will balance the mains. Once airborne, fuel transfer from the center tank will balance the mains
120
Which fuel pumps operate autonomously? (No pilot control)
Center tank transfer pumps
121
How is fuel moved from the forward aux fuel tank to the center tank?
Transfer ejector receiving motive flow during fuel movement from the center to a wing feed tank
Via gravity flow at a slower rate
122
When does wing transfer automatically initiate?
Lateral fuel imbalance of 400 lbs or more
Note: A transfer SOV opens and the inside DC pump starts (on heavier side)
123
When is automatic wing transfer inhibited?
Flap position greater than 0 degrees
Low fuel condition less that 600 lbs / wing
DC aux pump is supplying fuel feed to an engine (AC primary fuel pump failure)
124
Why must the crew monitor “manual operation of the wing to wing transfer system?
No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection provided to stop operation
125
Where is power for the Refuel/Defuel panel taken?
APU battery direct bus through a DC power source
Note: No requirement for AC power
126
During the refuel SOV test, what does display of the “SOV FAIL” message in the PRESEL window indicate?
Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full
Note: Stop the fuel tender pump to make sure that fuel does not spill.
During the test, the fuel load increase should not be visible on the tank displays within 30 seconds
127
Which engines are installed?
BMW Rolls-Royce BR700-710A2-20
128
Max ITT during ground start?
700 degrees celsius
Note: Auto shutdown happens at 700 degrees Celsius on the ground only
129
Max ITT during air start
850 degrees Celsius
Note: Auto shutdown happens at 700 degrees Celsius on the ground only
130
Max takeoff ITT
900 degrees Celsius
5 min with all engines operating
10 min with one engine inoperative
131
Max takeoff N2
99.6%
5 min with all engines operating
10 min with one engine inoperative
132
Max takeoff N1
102.0 %
5 min with all engines operating
10 min with one engine inoperative
133
Max continuous ITT
860 degrees Celsius
134
Max continuous N2
98.9%
135
Max continuous N1
102.0%
136
How does the pilot know when engine limitations are exceeded?
The numbers turn red
137
What RPM range must be avoided during ground operations?
Steady operation between 66-80% N1 prohibited
138
At what RPM should started engagement not be attempted?
42% N2
Note: The starter can’t engage above 42% RPM. The FADEC commands the starter air valve closed above 45% N2
139
What are the start duty cycles?
3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 minutes off
Note: After 3 minutes of operation, the start valve closes automatically. A 15 second period with the starter valve closed will reset the clock. The start valve will not open until the 15 second wait timer has expired
140
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?
-40 degrees Celsius
141
What should the minimum oil temperature be before increasing thrust above idle?
+20 degrees Celsius
Note: This is the point the number changes from amber to green
142
What is the maximum engine oil temperature?
+160 degrees Celsius
Note: The readout turns red when limitations are exceeded
143
How much thrust do the engines supply at sea level?
14,750 lbs at sea level up to ISA +20 degrees Celsius
144
How is thrust management controlled throughout all phases of flight?
Full authority digital engine control (FADEC)
An electronic engine controller (EEC) is a major component of the FADEC
Note: The terms EEC and FADEC are used interchangeably
145
Describe the 2 main engine rotating assemblies
Single-stage LP fan driven by a two-stage LP turbine
Ten-stage HP compressor driven by a two-stage HP turbine
146
How is the FADEC powered during normal engine operation?
Via the dedicated generator on the accessory gear box
Should the dedicated generator fail, the FADEC reverts to aircraft power
Note: Aircraft power operates the FADEC below 45% N2 rpm
147
The EEC/FADEC controls idle speed to ensure proper operation of which services?
Cowl anti-ice
Cabin pressurization
Generator operation
Protection against water ingestion
Note: Idle speed is not adjusted for wing anti-ice, however, the N2 display will turn white below 76% N1
Wing anti-ice may be operated at any RPM unless the wing indications become amber
148
What is maximum oil consumption?
0.2 liters / hr
Or
0.21 US quarts / hr
149
When can the engine oil levels be accurately checked?
Between 5 and 30 min after shutdown
Note: Oil quantities are displayed before engine start and after shutdown, not necessarily when servicing is allowed
150
When is engine oil replenishment allowed?
On the ground with engine off
Reservoir quantity greater than 1.5 qt
Between 5 and 30 min after shutdown
OAT -12 degrees Celsius or above
151
If you miss the engine oil replenishing time window and need to add oil what do you do?
Run the engine for 10 min to reset the clock to replenish
152
How is oil quantity checked?
Oil quantity is displayed on the status page below the EICAS
A visual sight gauge on the side of the oil reservoir behind a small access door.
153
Where is the oil replenishing tank located?
In the aft equipment bay, left side, forward of the door
154
What is the capacity of the oil replenishment tank?
6 quarts
155
How is engine oil cooled?
Fuel cooled oil heat exchanger
156
What is the total engine oil quantity?
12.8 quarts max
Note: Typically fill to approximately 11.0 quarts via oil replenishment system. This is the automatic shutoff point
157
When is the engine oil quantity not accurate?
Between 5.2 and 9.0 quarts
158
Which fuel shutoff valve closes after selecting the ENGINE RUN switch to OFF?
HPSOV within the fuel metering unit
159
When is high idle commanded by the EEC?
Airplane is in the approach configuration
if the EEC cannot determine the configuration
Note: when a steep approach is selected in the FMS, the engines are allowed to reduce to low idle in flight
If the cowl anti-ice is ON, engine idle will be advanced to maintain proper temperature
160
What is “Rotorbow”?
Uneven cooling of the HP spool may cause the turbine shaft to bend slightly
Motoring the engine will cause more even temperatures within the engine core and less vibrations during start
161
When should “Rotorbow” dry cranking be expected during automatic engine starts?
Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of engine shutdown
Note: if you are in a Rotorbow situation and have a tailwind for the start, there are no indications for the pilot to know the Rotorbow procedure will be followed.
Turning the battery off may clear the FADEC clock
162
What are the two auto start air envelopes and associated airspeeds?
ATS ENVELOPE (less than or equal to 249 KIAS)
WINDMILL ENVELOPE (greater than or equal to 250 KIAS
Note: A cyan message tells you which envelope you are in. The ECL will automatically display the correct checklist
163
When will the engine start sequence automatically abort on the ground?
ENGINE RUN switch to OFF
N2 speed not greater than or equal to 15% after 120 seconds from ENG RUN to ON
Idle speed not achieved after 120 sec after HPSOV open
Starter cutout not reached within starter duty timer (180 sec after starter valve open)
ITT exceeding start limit (700 degrees)
164
What is the engine “Quick Relight” function?
If the ENG RUN switch is placed to OFF, then returned to ON within 30 sec, the engine will relight
165
When does the “ENG FLAMOUT” message appear?
When the N2 reduces abnormally and an automatic relight has failed
166
What is the maximum altitude for engine relight?
30,000 feet
167
When does the “Engine Flameout” CAS post?
After the EEC tried to auto-relight the engine by turning on the IGNs
If N2 is less than 35% the EEC shuts off the IGN and closes the fuel HPSOV, then the flameout CAS is posted
168
What is the maximum available reverse thrust above 65 KIAS?
70% N1 for 30 seconds
Note: The EEC controls this value and reduces power appropriately
169
What are the thrust reverser limitations?
Must not be selected in flight
Not permitted for touch and go landings
May not back up the airplane
170
How are the thrust reversers controlled and actuated?
Controlled by the EEC
Actuated by the respective engine hydraulic system
171
What will occurs if a thrust reversers becomes unlocked?
EICAS message
Aural warning “L or R Reverser Unlocked”
Thrust retarded to idle (regardless of thrust lever position)
Red REV icon if the door is open
Note: In normal operation, all valves are aligned for closing and locking the reverser. To unlock the reverser, the reverser must be powered closed, unlocked, then powered open. Multiple failures must happen in a particular order to cause a reverser to become unlocked
172
What is the APU type?
RE 220
173
What is the maximum APU RPM?
106%
Note: At 106%, the APU will automatically shut down. The APU is governed by the FADEC to 100%
174
What is the maximum altitude for APU generator operations?
45,000 feet
Note: Electrical load is limited above 37,000 feet (Associated HYD pumps must be turned off)
Pneumatic operation limited above 30,000 feet
175
What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU
37,000 feet
176
What is the maximum altitude for bleed-air extraction from the APU?
30,000 feet
177
What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
-40 degrees Celsius
178
How many start attempts are permitted on the APU?
3 per hour
Note: Maintenance instructions say 5 minutes between starts and a 60 min rest after the third start
A cold soaked APU may require more than 3 start attempts in-flight. (Fuel lines could be frozen)
179
What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning operation?
45 degrees Celsius
Note: The aircraft and the APU may operate up to 50 degrees Celsius. Start the right engine and use the engine to cool the cabin
180
What is the maximum load rating for the APU?
40 KVA up to 37,000 feet without restriction
45 KVA when on the ground
181
What is the limitation for the APU if powering an AC Bus above 37,000 feet?
The associated Hydraulic pumps must be selected “off”
182
When does the APU door position appear in the status page?
In conjunction with an “APU DOR FAIL” caution message
183
Can you dispatch with the APU door open?
Yes, with restrictions
Note: located in airborne auxiliary power chapter in DDG.
APU can windmill without lubrication
184
What is the timeframe window to replenish the APU oil
15 to 45 min after shutdown
185
When is it recommended to top off the APU oil reservoir?
STATUS page indication shows less than 4.5 quarts
Low oil level warning illuminates at 3.5 quarts
Note: The oil indication system will show quantities before start and after shutdown, not necessarily in the refill envelope
During normal operations the APU rarely needs additional oil
186
What conditions must be met before using the oil replenishing system?
APU shutdown atleast 15 min
Oil reservoir has atleast 1.5 quarts
DC power available from the BATT BUS
Both engines off
Aircraft is on the ground
Note: the oil indication system will not show quantities until the aircraft is on the ground with power and APU shutdown
Disconnecting batteries before servicing oil will delete the clock value and require an additional 15 min wait before servicing oil
187
What will occurs if the APU run switch is selected to the run position prior to the end of the 60 second cool down period?
The APU returns to 100% and resumes normal operation
Note: Smart fix advises that bleed air may not be available after this kind of restart
188
When is manual operation of the APU LCV (Load Control Valve) not possible?
Wing anti-ice is active
Left engine pressure regulating valve is manually opened
Right engine pressure regulating valve and cross bleed valve are manually opened
Note: Manually selecting the APU bleed will not power the anti-ice
You would be significantly deviating from normal operations for any of those conditions
189
What automatic shutdowns are available on the ground but not in flight?
APU Fire (shutdown only no extinguisher)
High Oil Temp
Low Oil Pressure
Low Oil Pressure (LOP) switch failed
Loss of both EGT Sensors
Reverse Flow
Under-speed (greater than 80%)
190
When does the APU automatically shutdown in flight?
FADEC failure
Inlet door not in commanded position
Loss of Over-speed protection
Over-speed (106%)
Loss of speed sensing
DC power loss
191
How is emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished?
BATT MASTER switch selected OFF with no AC power in
APU FIRE DISCH handle pulled
APU SHUTOFF button (push and release on the external service panel)
APU compartment SHUTDOWN BUTTON (push and release red button on forward bulkhead APU compartment)
Slow start
Over-temp
192
What are the primary functions of the bleed air system?
Transfer bleed between primary and secondary ports
Control the pressure of the bleed air
Control the temperature of the bleed air
Supply bleed air for engine starting
Supply bleed air for the wing and cowl anti-ice system
193
What is the bleed air from the engines used for?
Air conditioning and pressurization
Cowl and wing anti-ice
Engine starts
Notes: The APU is the primary source for engine starting on the ground. The engines are the primary source for starting in flight. The APU can’t supply air for anti-ice ops
194
What is the pack discharge temp range for manual mode operation?
5-60 degrees Celsius
Note: This condition is driven by a checklist. When selecting MAN control, pack output temps appear on the synoptic page. One pack must be selected off
195
What is the normal cabin pressure differential?
10.33. PSI at FL420 (from Cabin pressure chart)
196
What is the maximum cabin differential?
10.73 PSI
Note: “CABIN DELTA P” warning at 10.85 PSI
197
What is the maximum negative pressure differential?
-0.5 psi
198
What is the maximum pressure differential during taxi and takeoff?
0.1 psi
199
What is the maximum pressure differential on landing?
1.0 psi
200
Above what altitude is AUX PRESS prohibited?
41,000 feet
Note: AUX PRESS is operated via a checklist containing all the appropriate limitations and restrictions.
