ORAL DIAGNOSIS Pathology and Diagnosis pt 2 Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
___ is a group of neoplasms of bone marrow. what are the precursors?
A
- leukemias
- lymphocyte or myeloid precursors
2
Q
in leukemias, malignant cells occupy and replace normal marrow cells, including ___. the malignant cells are also released into the ___
A
- megakaryocytes (platelet forming cells)
- peripheral blood
3
Q
what are the causes of leukemias?
A
- genetic factors, such as chromosome translocations
- environmental agents (benzene, radiation)
- viruses (human T-lymphotropic virus 1)
4
Q
classification of leukemia is based on ___ and ___
A
cell lineage and whether the disease is acute or chronic
5
Q
what are the clinical features of leukemia?
A
- bleeding (owing to reduced platelets), fatigue (owing to anemia), and infection (owing to agranulocytosis) are important clinical signs of leukemias
- infiltration of gingival tissues by leukemic cells is common in chronic monocytic leukemia; gingiva is red, boggy, and hemorrhagic
6
Q
what is the treatment for leukemias?
A
chemotherapy is quite successful for acute leukemias, but is less so for chronic leukemias
7
Q
odontogenic cysts are derived from cells that are associated with ___
A
tooth formation
8
Q
in odontogenic cysts, the stimulus for cystic change is unknown in all cysts except for ___ and ___
A
periapical cysts and some odontogenic keratocysts (keratocystic odontogenic tumors)
9
Q
what is the most common odontogenic cyst? what is it always associated with?
A
- periapical (radicular) cyst
- always associated with a nonvital tooth
10
Q
how do periapical cysts form?
A
- necrotic pulp causes periapical inflammation (can be acute or chronic)
- rests of malassez within a dental granuloma epithelialize the lesion, resulting in the formation of a cyst
11
Q
describe the difference in acute and chronic periapical cysts
A
- if acute, a periapical abscess forms after periapical inflammation
- if chronic, a dental granuloma (granulation tissue and chronic inflammatory cells) forms after periapical inflammation
12
Q
how is a periapical cyst treated?
A
RCT, apicoectomy, or tooth extraction with apical curettage
13
Q
how does a dentigerous cyst manifest radiographically?
A
a radiolucency around the crown of an impacted tooth
14
Q
which teeth are most commonly affected by dentigerous cysts?
A
third molars and canines
15
Q
an eruption cyst is a ___ cyst that occurs over a tooth that has erupted into the submucosa
A
dentigerous cyst
16
Q
in dentigerous cysts, the epithelial lining from reduced enamel epithelium has the potential to transform into ___
A
ameloblastoma
17
Q
a ___ is a unilocular or multilocular lucency in the lateral periodontal membrane of adults
A
lateral periodontal cyst
18
Q
where are most lateral periodontal cysts located?
A
most are found in the mandibular premolar region and are associated with a vital tooth
19
Q
___ is the soft tissue counterpart of a lateral periodontal cyst
A
gingival cyst of the adult
20
Q
gingival cysts of a newborn present as ___ resulting from ___
A
multiple small gingival nodules resulting from cystification of rests of the dental lamina
21
Q
gingival cysts of the newborn are also called ___. what are inclusion cysts in the palates of infants called?
A
- bohn’s nodules
- epstein’s pearls
22
Q
what is the treatment for gingival cysts of the newborn?
A
none
23
Q
odontogenic keratocysts (keratocystic odontogenic tumors) are lesions that may be clinically aggressive, recurrent, or associated with which syndrome?
A
nevoid basal cell carcinoma (gorlin) syndrome
24
Q
what characterizes nevoid basal cell carcinoma (gorlin) syndrome?
A
- multiple odontogenic keratocysts
- numerous cutaneous basal cell carcinomas
- skeletal abnormalities
- calcified falx
- other stigmata
25
mutation of which gene is evident in syndrome-related odontogenic keratocysts and probably in many solitary cysts
PTCH tumor suppressor gene
26
why are odontogenic keratocysts now termed keratocystic odontogenic tumors?
the new terminology reflects the concept that the lesion is a neoplasm with cystic architecture rather than a developmental cyst
27
the lining epithelium of odontogenic keratocysts is ___ and ___
thin and parakeratinized
28
how do orthokeratinized odontogenic cysts compare to odontogenic keratocysts?
orthokeratinized odontogenic cysts are less common and have much lower recurrence rate and is not syndrome-associated
29
calcifying odontogenic cysts are rare odontogenic cysts of unpredictable behavior. what is their recurrence?
has potential, especially for the solid variant
30
what characterizes calcifying odontogenic cysts microscopically?
- ghost cell keratinization
| - ghost cells may undergo calcification that may be detected radiographically (lucency with opaque foci)
31
what is the cutaneous counterpart of calcifying odontogenic cysts?
malherbe calcifying epithelioma or pilomatricoma
32
are glandular odontogenic cysts common? what is another name for them?
- rare
| - sialo-odontogenic cysts
33
are glandular odontogenic cysts (sialo-odontogenic cysts) aggressive?
may be locally aggressive and exhibit recurrence potential
34
the glandular odontogenic cyst (sialo-odontogenic cyst) name is derived from ___
glandlike spaces and mucous cells in epithelial lining
35
odontogenic tumors are bone tumors that are unique to the jaws, and the lesions are derived from ___ cells involved in the formation of teeth
epithelial or mesenchymal cells
36
are odontogenic tumors typically malignant?
- no, they are almost always benign
| - some may exhibit aggressive behavior and may have significant recurrence potential
37
ameloblastoma is a benign but aggressive odontogenic tumor with significant recurrence potential, especially if treated ___
conservatively
38
which variant of ameloblastoma is less aggressive and less likely to recur?
cystic variant (cystic ameloblastoma)
39
___ or ___ ameloblastomas exhibit banal behavior
peripheral or gingival
40
very rare malignant ameloblastomas are known as ___ and ___
malignant ameloblastoma and ameloblastic carcinoma
41
there are several microscopic subtypes of ameloblastomas, all of which mimic to some degree the ___
- enamel organ
| - no difference in behavior
42
what is the treatment for ameloblastoma?
ranges from wide excision to resection (want to avoid conservative treatment)
43
calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor is also called ___
pindborg tumor
44
calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumors (pindborg tumors) are rare odontogenic tumors with unusual microscopy. describe their microscopy
sheets of large epithelioid cells with areas of amyloid, some of which may become calcified
45
how do calcifying epithelial odontogenic (pindborg) tumors compare to ameloblastomas?
similar age distribution and location but less aggressive than ameloblastomas
46
___ is an uncommon to rare odontogenic hamartoma that contains epithelial duct-like spaces and calcified enameloid material
adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
47
where do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors occur? do they recur?
- 2/3 in the maxilla, 2/3 in females, 2/3 in the anterior jaws, and 2/3 over the crown of an impacted tooth
- does not recur after conservative treatment
48
___ is an uncommon to rare tumor of myxomatous connective tissue (primitive-appearing connective tissue containing little collagen similar to dental pulp)
odontogenic myxoma (fibromyxoma)
49
which jaw do odontogenic myxomas (fibromyxomas) affect?
either jaw
50
how do odontogenic myxomas (fibromyxomas) present radiographically?
radiolucency often with small loculations (honeycomb pattern)
51
how are odontogenic myxomas (fibromyxomas) treated?
- surgical excision
| - moderate recurrence potential owing to lack of encapsulation and tumor consistency
52
central odontogenic fibroma is a rare tumor of dense ___ with strands of ___
dense collagen with strands of epithelium
53
how do central odontogenic fibromas present radiographically?
well-defined radiolucency in either jaw; often multilocular
54
how are central odontogenic fibromas treated?
surgical excision with few recurrences
55
cementifying fibroma can be considered similar or identical to ___
ossifying fibroma
56
radiographically, how does a cementifying fibroma present?
- well-circumscribed lucency
| - some lesions are lucent with opaque foci
57
what population and location is cementifying fibroma common in?
- adults and young adults
| - typically in the body of the mandible
58
how is cementifying fibroma treated?
curettage or excision, rare recurrence
59
___ is a well-circumscribed radiopaque mass of cementum and cementoblasts replacing the root of a tooth
cementoblastoma
60
how are cementoblastomas treated?
- lesion is excised and the associated tooth is removed with the lesion because of intimate association
- no recurrence after excision
61
what are the clinical features of periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
- cause unknown, no treatment requried
- commonly seen at the apices of one or more mandibular anterior teeth
- no symptoms; vital teeth
- most frequently seen in middle aged women
- starts as circumscribed lucency, which gradually becomes opaque
- if entire jaw is involved, termed florid osseous dysplasia
62
what is the difference between an ameloblastic fibroma and an ameloblastic fibro-odontoma?
- the latter lesion has an odontoma
| - otherwise, they are the same lesion
63
which population is most affected by ameloblastic fibromas and ameloblastic fibro-odontomas? which location most common?
- children and teens
| - typically seen in mandibular molar regions
64
how do ameloblastic fibromas and ameloblastic fibro-odontomas present radiographically?
- unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
| - ameloblastic fibro-odontomas will present as a radiolucency with an opacity (odontoma)
65
what are the microscopic characteristics of ameloblastic fibromas and ameloblastic fibro-odontomas?
encapsulated myxomatous connective tissue lesion containing strands of epithelium
66
how are ameloblastic fibromas and ameloblastic fibro-odontomas treated?
enucleation or excision; rarely recurs
67
___ is an opaque lesion composed of dental hard tissues
odontoma
68
what are the two types of odontomas?
- compound type contains miniature teeth
| - complex type compose of a conglomerate mass
69
how are odontomas treated?
curettage, no recurrence
70
___ is a common fibro-osseous lesion that can be considered similar or identical to cementifying fibroma, although some may reach considerable size
ossifying fibroma
71
what are the clinical features of ossifying fibromas?
- radiographically appears as either well-circumscribed lucency or a lucency with opaque foci
- seen in adults and young adults, typically in the body of the mandible
- a variant known as juvenile ossifying fibroma occurs in younger patients and may exhibit aggressive behavior
72
what are the microscopic characteristics of ossifying fibromas?
fibroblastic stroma in which new bony islands or trabeculae are formed
73
what is the treatment for ossifying fibromas?
curettage or excision, rare recurrence
74
fibrous dysplasia is an uncommon to rare unencapsulated fibro-osseous lesion assiciated with mutations of the ___ gene, affecting proliferation and function of ___ cells
- GNAS1 gene
| - fibroblasts and osteoblasts
75
what are the clinical features of fibrous dysplasia?
- involves the entire half jaw, more common in maxilla
- affects children and typically stops growing after puberty
- radiographic pattern is diffuse opacity (ground glass)
76
describe the mccune albright syndrome associated with fibrous dysplasia
- polyostotic (more than one bone) fibrous dysplasia
- cutaneous cafe au lait macules
- endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty)
77
how is?fibrous dysplasia treated
surgical recontouring for cosmetic appearance
78
___ is a circumscribed opaque mass of bone and osteoblasts that commonly affects young adults, with 50% of patients having associated pain
osteoblastoma
79
how is osteoblastoma treated?
surgical excision with few recurrences
80
microscopically, bone (nonodontogenic) lesions have ___ in common
multinucleated giant cells (important for diagnosis)
81
___ is a reactive red to purple gingival mass believed to be caused by local factors
peripheral giant cell granuloma
82
where are peripheral giant cell granulomas typically found?
gingiva, typically anterior to permanent molar teeth
83
peripheral giant cell granuloma is composed of which cells?
fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells, similar to a central giant cell granuloma
84
how is peripheral giant cell granuloma treated?
- excision that extends to periosteum or periodontal ligament
- occasional recurrences are seen
85
___ is a nonodontogenic tumor that exhibits unpredictable clinical behavior; some are aggressive and have recurrence potential, whereas other have a bland course
central giant cell granuloma
86
how do central giant cell granulomas present radiographically?
- radiolucency
| - sometimes loculated
87
what age group are central giant cell granulomas common in? what is the common location?
- teenagers
| - anterior mandible
88
central giant cell granulomas are composed of which cells?
fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells, similar to peripheral giant cell granulomas
89
what is the treatment for central giant cell granulomas?
- excision, but occasional recurrence are encountered
| - medical management (calcitonin or interferon) for large lesions is a possible option
90
___ is a pseudocyst that is composed of blood-filled spaces lined by fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells
- aneurysmal bone cyst
| - not a true cyst because, although there are cyst-like spaces, there is no epithelial lining
91
how do aneurysmal bone cysts present radiographically? which age group?
- multilocular lucency
| - typically in teenagers
92
what is the cause and treatment for aneurysmal bone cysts?
- cause unknown
| - excision and occasional recurrences
93
hyperparathyroidism is also called ___, and is a result of ___
- von recklinghausen's disease of bone
- multiple bone lesions results from effects of excessive levels of parathormone
- may be caused by functioning parathyroid tumor or compensatory parathyroid hyperplasia secondary to renal failure, malabsorption, or vitamin D deficiency
94
what are the clinical features of hyperparathyroidism (von recklinghausen's disease of bone)?
- multiple radiolucent foci of fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells as well as loss of lamina dura around tooth roots
- systemic signs include kidney stones, metastatic calcification, osteoporosis, neurologic problems, and arrhythmias (in addition to elevated parathormone and alkaline phosphatase)
95
cherubism is an autosomal ___ condition of the jaws in children
dominant
96
what are the clinical features of cherubism?
- symmetrical bilateral swelling of one or both jaws
- stabilizes after puberty and requires no treatment
- loculated radiolucencies described as having soap bubble appearance
97
how does cherubism present microscopically?
- giant cells
| - distinctive perivascular collagen condensation may also be seen
98
what are two other names for langerhan's cell disease?
- idiopathic histiocytosis
| - langerhan's granulomatosis
99
all forms of langerhan's cell disease represent abnormal proliferation of ___
langerhan's cells
100
what are the radiographic features of langerhan's cell disease?
punched out lesions or lucencies around tooth roots (floating teeth)
101
what are the microscopic features of langerhan's cell disease?
- eosinophils are mixed with the tumor's langerhan's cells
| - some langerhan's cells are multinucleated
102
what is the treatment and prognosis for langerhan's cell disease?
- treatment is variable, including excision, low-dose radiation, and chemotherapy
- prognosis is very good when the disease is localized
- acute disseminated form is usually fatal
103
paget's disease is a progressive metabolic disturbance of many bones, including which ones?
spine, femur, cranium, pelvis, and sternum
104
what is the cause and treatment for paget's disease?
- cause is unknown
| - treatment is generally symptomatic
105
what age group does paget's disease typically affect?
adults older than 50
106
describe the jaw involvement in paget's disease. other than the jaws, what are the signs/symptoms?
- symmetrical enlargement
- dentures become too tight
- diastemas and hypercementosis may appear
- other signs/symptoms include bone pain, headache, and altered vision and hearing (canal sclerosis)
107
in paget's disease, ___ may complicate surgery because ___
bleeding, because bone is highly vascular in early stages
108
what are late complications of paget's disease secondary to bone sclerosis?
jaw fracture and osteomyelitis
109
how does paget's disease present microscopically?
- osteoblasts and multinucleated osteoclasts are found in abundance
- as lesion advances, dense bone with numerous reversal or growth lines is seen, giving the tissue a mosaic pattern
110
what is the treatment for paget's disease?
- directed at suppression of bone resorption and deposition
| - bisphosphonates (and to a lesser extent, calcitonin) have shown efficacy
111
what is the microscopic differential diagnosis for giant cell lesions of bone?
- central giant cell granuloma
- hyperparathyroidism
- aneurysmal bone cyst
- cherubism
112
what are the classifications of langerhan's cell disease?
- eosinophilic granuloma (chronic localized form) - solitary or multiple bone lesions
- hand-schuller-christian disease (chronic disseminated form) - bone lesions, exophthalmos, and diabetes insipidus
- letterer-siew disease (acute disseminated form) - bone, skin, and internal organ lesions
113
is inflammation of bone (and bone marrow) or osteomyelitis common in the jaws?
- yes
- most lesions are assocaited with extension of periodontal or periapical inflammation
- others are associated with trauma to the jaws
114
___ is a nonodontogenic lesion that is the result of acute inflammation fo bone and bone marrow of the jaws
acute osteomyelitis
115
what are the causes of acute osteomyelitis?
extension of periapical or periodontal disease, fracture, surgery, and bacteremia
116
what are the most common bacterial infectious agents responsible for acute osteomyelitis?
staphylococci and streptococci
117
what are the signs/symptoms of acute osteomyelitis?
pain, paresthesia, and exudation are typically present
118
when do radiographic changes present in acute osteomyelitis?
diffuse lucency appears only after inflammation has been present for an extended perio
119
what is the treatment for acute osteomyelitis?
appropriate antibiotic and drainage of the lesion
120
___ is a nonodontogenic lesionof bone that is the result of chronic inflammation of bone and bone marrow of the jaws
chronic osteomyelitis (chronic osteitis)
121
what are the signs/symptoms of chronic osteomyelitis?
milder to moderate pain and possibly an exudate
122
what is the radiographic presentation of chronic osteomyelitis?
lucent or mottled radiographic pattern
123
how is chronic osteomyelitis treated?
antibiotics and sequestrectomy
124
___ is form of chronic osteomyelitis that involves the periosteum
chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periosteitis (garre's osteomyelitis)
125
chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periosteitis (garre's osteomyelitis) is usually associated with ___
carious molar in children
126
what is the radiographic presentation of chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periosteitis (garre's osteomyelitis)?
lucent or mottled radiographic pattern plus concentric periosteal layering
127
how is chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periosteitis (garre's osteomyelitis) treated?
tooth removal and antibiotics
128
___ is a form of chronic osteomyelitis that involves bone sclerosis (opacity) resulting from low grade inflammation, usually secondary to chronic pulpitis
focal sclerosing osteomyelitis (condensing osteitis)
129
how is focal sclerosing osteomyelitis (condensing osteitis) diagnosed?
asymptomatic and found on routine examination (radiographic)
130
what is the treatment for focal sclerosing osteomyelitis (condensing osteitis)?
determine and address the cause, and possibly endodontics
131
___ is a form of chronic osteomyelitis that involves bone sclerosis (opacity) resulting from low-grade inflammation, usually secondary to chronic pulpitis or periodontal disease
diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
132
what are the signs/symptoms of diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis?
low-grade pain, swelling, or drainage may be present
133
what are late complications of diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis secondary to densely sclerotic bone?
jaw fracture and osteomyelitis
134
what is the treatment for diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis?
determine and address the cause and possibly antibiotics
135
___ is a form of chronic osteomyelitis characterized by exposed bone in maxillofacial region for longer than 8 weeks in a patient who has received a bisphosphonate medication
bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaws
136
what is the usual presenting symtpom of BRONJ?
jaw pain
137
what are the projecting outcomes of BRONJ?
tooth mobility, infection, sequestration, and pathologic fracture
138
in BRONJ cases, risk of development is much greater with IV bisphosphonates as opposed to oral drugs, and osteonecrosis is more likely to develop in areas of ___
oral trauma
139
what is the treatment for BRONJ?
conservative local measures such as chlorhexidine rinses, antibiotic therapy, and conservative surgery
140
malignancies manifesting bone include ___
sarcomas, lymphomas or leukemias, and metastatic carcinomas
141
what is a frequent presenting symptom of malignancies manifesting in bone?
numb lip, which represents neoplastic invasion of nerves
142
___ is a sarcoma in which new bone (osteoid) is formed
osteosarcoma
143
what is the cause of osteosarcoma?
unknown, although an association with several specific genetic alterations has been detected
144
what are the signs and symptoms of osteosarcoma?
- pain, swelling, and paresthesia are typically present
| - PDL invasion results in uniform widening
145
what is the mean age of patients affected by osteosarcoma?
- 35 years old
| - ranges from 10-85 years
146
which jaw is more commonly affected with osteosarcoma?
mandible
147
most malignant jaw tumors are microscopically ___ lesions
low grade
148
describe the treatment and prognosis of osteosarcoma
- treated with resection and usually neoadjuvant chemotherapy (preoperative ) or adjuvant chemotherapy (postoperative)
- 5 year survival rate 25-40%
- prognosis is better for mandibular tumors than for maxillary tumors
- initial radical surgery results in survival rate of 80%
149
___ is a rare sarcoma of the jaws in which cartilage is produced by tumor cells
- chondrosarcoma
| - clinical features and treatment are similar to osteosarcoma
150
___ is a rare "round cell" malignant radiolucency of children
ewings sarcoma
151
how is ewings sarcoma treated?
aggressive multimodality therapy with a fair prognosis
152
what are the malignancies most commonly metastatic to the jaws?
- adenocarcinoma of the breast
- carcinoma of the lung
- adenocarcinoma of the prostate
- adenocarcinoma of the colon
- carcinoma of the kidney (renal cell)
153
metastatic carcinoma that metastasizes to the jaw presents with which signs/symptoms? how is it noted radiographically?
- pain, swelling, and especially paresthesia
| - ill-defined lucent to opaque radiographic changes are noted
154
white sponge nevus is an autosomal ___ condition secondary to mutations of ___ or ___
- dominant
| - keratin 4 or 13
155
how does white sponge nevus present clinically?
asymptomatic white, spongy-appearing buccal mucosa bilaterally
156
how is white sponge nevus diagnosed? what is the treatment?
- biopsy for diagnosis
| - no treatment necessary
157
the term epidermolysis bullosa encompasses several ___ and one ___
- genetic conditions
| - acquired disease
158
hereditary patterns associated with epidermolysis bullosa range from ___ to ___
autosomal dominant to autosomal recessive
159
what is clinically common to all forms of epidermolysis bullosa?
the appearance of bullae from minor trauma, especially over elbows and knees
160
what are the characteristic oral lesions associated with epidermolysis bullosa?
- blisters, scarring, and hypoplastic teeth
| - seen in the severe recessive form
161
hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a rare autosomal ___ condition in which telangiectatic vesssels are seen in ___, ___, and occasionally ___
- dominant
| - mucosa, skin, and occasionally viscera
162
in hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, ___ or ___ are an occasional source of bleeding
red macules or papules (telangiectasias)
163
what is a frequent presenting sign of hereditary hemorrhagic telantiectasia?
- epistaxis (nosebleed)
| - oral bleeding may also occur
164
cleidocranial is an autosomal ___ condition manifested by many alterations, especially of teeth and bones
dominant
165
what are the most distinctive features of cleidocranial dysplasia?
- delayed tooth eruption and supernumerary teeth
- hypoplastic or aplastic clavicles
- cranial bossing
- hypertelorism
166
___ is an X-linked recessive condition that results in partial or complete anodontia
hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
167
in addition to partial or complete anodontia, patients with hereditary ectodermal dysplasia may also have hypoplasia of ___
other ectodermal structures, including hair, sweat glands, and nails
168
gardners syndrome is an autosomal ___ disorder
dominant
169
what are the clinical characteristics of gardners syndrome?
- intestinal polyps
- osteomas
- skin lesions
- impacted permanent and supernumerary teeth
- odontomas
170
which syndrome involves intestinal polyps that have a very high rate of malignant conversion to colorectal carcinoma?
gardners syndrome
171
what are two other names for osteoporosis?
albers-schonberg disease and marble bone
172
___ is a generalized bone condition that may be inherited as an autosomal dominant (less serious) or recessive (more serious) trait
osteoporosis (albers-schonberg disease, marble bone)
173
in osteoporisis, lack of bone remodeling and resorption leads to ___
bone sclerosis
174
what are the complications associated with osteoporosis?
bone pain, blindness and deafness from sclerosis of ostia, anemia from sclerosis of marrow, and osteomyelitis secondary to diminished vascularity
175
___ is a rare group of hereditary conditions that affect enamel tissue intrinsically
amelogenesis imperfecta
176
T or F:
| in amelogenesis imperfecta, anterior teeth in the primary dentition only are affected
- false
| - all teeth of both dentitions are affected
177
what are the dental characteristics of amelogenesis imperfecta?
- enamel is typically yellow in color, reduced in volume, and pitted
- dentin and pulps are normal
- although teeth are soft, there is no increase in caries rate
178
T or F:
| due to softening of enamel in amelogenesis imperfecta, there is a significant increase in caries rate
false - no increase in caries rate
179
what is the dental treatment for amelogenesis imperfecta?
represents a cosmetic problem that is treated with full crown coverage
180
dentinogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal ___ condition in which there is intrinsic alteration of ___
- dominant
| - dentin
181
which teeth are affected in cases of dentinogenesis imperfecta?
all teeth of both dentitions
182
describe how teeth are affected in cases of dentinogenesis imperfecta
- teeth have yellow or opalescent color
- extreme occlusal wear secondary to enamel fracture (poor dentin support)
- short roots, bell shaped crowns, and obliterated pulps
183
dentinogenesis imperfecta may be seen with what other hereditary condition?
osteogenesis imperfecta
184
what is the dental treatment for dentinogenesis imperfecta?
represents a cosmetic problem that is treated with full crown coverage
185
dentin dysplasia is an autosomal ___ condition in which there is intrinsic alteration of ___
- dominant
| - dentin
186
which teeth are affected in cases of dentin dysplasia?
all teeth of both dentitions
187
describe how teeth are affected in cases of dentin dysplasia
- teeth have normal color
- pulps are bliterated but may have residual spaces (chevrons)
- roots are short and are surrounded by dental granulomas or cysts that may contribute to tooth loss
188
what is the dental treatment for dentin dysplasia?
teeth are not good candidates for restoration
189
regional odontodysplasia is a dental abnormality of unknown cause. what are some possible causes that have been suggested?
- genetics
- trauma
- nutrition
- infection
190
describe the clinical and radiographic presentation of regional odontodysplasia
- a quadrant of teeth exhibit short roots, open apices, and enlarged pulp chambers
- the radiographic appearance of these teeth has suggested the term "ghost teeth"
191
what is the dental treatment for regional odontodysplasia?
teeth are usually extracted because of the poor quality of enamel and dentin
