Oral Exam Guide Flashcards
(238 cards)
1
Q
Engine Abort Start Criteria
A
No light off (10 sec after fuel flow)
Rapid rise in ITT close to limit
Hot Start
Hung Start
Unusual noise/vibe
Abnormal engine indications
Oil pressure doesn’t reach 34psi after stabilized
2
Q
When may a Thruflight Setup Check be performed in lieu of a full Setup Check?
A
- Crew keeps the same aircraft
- Flight crewmembers remain the same, provided one flight crewmember remains on board
- Aircraft remains energized
- No maintenance action has been taken
3
Q
When must a Terminating Check be accomplished?
A
When the aircraft is to be completely powered down or left unattended
4
Q
When is the After Start Check accomplished?
A
After completion of the second engine start
5
Q
What limitations exist for using the ALT/TO thrust mode for takeoff?
A
- Anti-skid must be operative
- ALT/TO may be used on wet runways, provided wet runway performance data is used
- Prohibited on slippery (wet ice) runways
- Prohibited if warnings of windshear or downdrafts are reported
- Prohibited when no ALT/TO performance data is provided for a runway with a Special Departure Procedure
6
Q
What are the requirements for a low-RVR takeoff?
A
Whenever the airport of departure meets takeoff minimums, but not PIC landing minimums, a takeoff alternate is required.
7
Q
What is the proper response to windshear on takeoff?
A
- Apply maximum available thrust
- Disengage the autopilot, press the TO/GA buttons to activate the windshear escape mode and rotate smoothly at a normal rate to the command bar.
- Adjust pitch attitude smoothly an in small increments to control vertical speed and altitude. Flight Crewmembers should be aware that speed may decay below reference speeds and that stick forces necessary to maintain increased pitch attitude may be well above normal.
- Maintain present configuration (gear and flaps) until terrain contact is no longer a factor
8
Q
Where is the APU located?
A
In the tailcone of the aircraft, just aft of a titanium firewall.
9
Q
How does the APU receive its fuel?
A
Normally, the APU receives fuel from tank #2. However, if the opposite side electric pump on the fuel panel is turned ON, the APU can draw fuel from tank #1 if the crossfeed switch is selected to the LOW 2 position.
10
Q
What controls the starting and normal operation of the APU?
A
The APU operates under the full authority if its own FADEC
11
Q
What does turning APU master knob to the ON position do?
A
Turning the APU master knob to the ON position energizes the FADEC, commands the fuel shutoff valve in the belly of the aircraft to open, and enables APU indication and alarms on the EICAS
12
Q
Which electrical busses can the APU energize as the sole source of electrical power?
A
In flight:
All of the busses, minus the shed busses
On the ground:
All of the busses, assuming the shed bus switch is in the OVRD position
13
Q
How is a fire detected by the APU?
A
By its own dedicated fire loop
14
Q
How is a fire extinguished in the APU?
A
By its own dedicated extinguishing bottle
15
Q
What is the primary component of the avionics integration system?
A
The E145 is equipped with a variety of highly integrated computers and displays so as to reduce pilot’s workload while providing high reliability and redundancy. This feature is achieved by providing different paths to each type of data. While there are numerous computers and displays, arguably the most important of them are the two IC-600 Symbol Generators (SGs). The SGs interface work with many of the aircraft systems; they receive data from multiple inputs and send the appropriate information to the 5 CRT screens in the cockpit.
16
Q
The #1 Data Acquisition Unit (DAU) provides data for which engine and airplane systems
A
DAU 1 is dedicated to collect data from the forward airplane systems and #1 engine
17
Q
The #2 DAU provides data for which engine and airplane systems?
A
DAU is dedicated to collect data from the aft airplane systems and #2 engine
18
Q
What are the primary and secondary channels of the DAU, and what is their function?
A
Each DAU is a dual-channel unit, with a primary (A) and backup (B) channel, which are pilot-selectable through the DAU reversionary button. In the event of a primary channel failure, an EICAS message will be generated (DAU 1(2) A FAIL), and some engine information and system data will be missing from the EICAS. Per the QRH, the channel B will be selected through the DAU reversionary button, and some (not all) information will be recovered
19
Q
Which unit can be used as a backup display to the main display panels?
A
The Radio Management Units (RMUs)
20
Q
How many system pages can be displayed on the MFD
A
5
- Fuel
- Electrical
- Environmental and Ice Protection
- Hydraulic and Brakes
- Takeoff (Doors)
21
Q
What is the maximum number of messages that can be displayed at one time on the EICAS?
A
The EICAS, without using the EICAS scroll bezel, can hold 15 messages.
22
Q
What information is displayed on the EICAS screens?
A
EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alert System. It is responsible for presenting analog engine indications and some systems parameters like flaps, landing gear, spoilers and trim positions, total fuel quantity, APU and environmental information. In the upper right corner of the screen, the display presents crew awareness messages (warnings, cautions and advisories).
23
Q
What is the takeoff and landing inhibition logic, and when does it become effective
A
Hides non critical eicas messages.
T/O- V1-15kts to RA above 400ft, after 1 minute or CAS less than 60 KTS (abort TO)
LND- 200RA to plane on ground over 3 secs or after 1 minute
24
Q
How many channels does the Aural Warning Unit have (AWU)? How is the system powered?
A
There are two channels for the AWU, A (primary) and B (backup). The system is powered by two busses – Essential and DC
25
What configurations will get an unsatisfactory takeoff warning test?
- Flaps are not in a takeoff configuration (9, 18, 22)
- Parking brake is set
- Pitch trim is out of the green range
- Any spoiler panel is deployed
26
What 2 critical items does takeoff config not check?
Gust lock and engines running
27
What does the EGPWS provide?
Terrain Clearance Floor, Terrain Look Ahead Alerting and Terrain Awareness Display
28
How are stalls detected?
SPS system. One computer box with 2 independent channels. 2 AOA sensors and airspeed to detect. 2 Shaker/Actuators. PLI populates. and on speed band amber shaker/red pusher
29
Does the stick shaker still work if an SPS channel fails? Does the stick pusher still work?
The SPS needs two functioning channels to activate the stick pusher, but only one for the stick shaker
30
Can the stick pusher be overridden? how does the system push the yoke forward?
Yes. The pusher can be overridden by pressing the red quick disconnect button on either pilots yoke.
via the stick pusher actuator
31
What are the main DC and AC power Sources
- Four independent engine-driven generators
- One APU starter-generator
- Two Ni-Cad batteries
- One lead-acid backup battery
- External power receptacle
32
How is ac power supplied and what runs off ac power?
AC inverter 115VAC. TCAS, EGPWS, Windshear
33
Assuming a cold, dark airplane to begin with, what happens when the battery switches are turned to AUTO?
Battery contactors 1 and 2 close, and the Electrical Distribution Logic configures the system so that all busses (minus the shed busses) are energized
34
Describe normal operation system configuration?
```
Rule of 5
5- two systems
4- two systems
3- one system
2- one system lose sheds
1- one system lose sheds
```
35
how are shed buses supplied power on the ground?
GPU
3 Gens online
1 Gen online and override
36
Between the APU and GPU - Which power source has priority?
Whenever the Ground Power Unit is selected by the pilots as the electrical power source for the aircraft, it has priority over all internal sources of power.
37
Which Generators are on which engines?
ENG 1 = GEN 1/3
| ENG 2= GEN 2/4
38
When is GEN OVLD displayed?
Over 400A
39
What can the APU power?
in flight- everything except sheds
| on ground- everything including sheds (if in OVRD)
40
Can the batteries be charged by the APU?
Yes
41
Can the batteries be charged by the GPU?
No
42
Which battery starts the APU?
Battery 2
43
How long can the aircraft batteries provide backup power for the electrical system?
In Flight 40 mins in essential.
On ground 10-15 minutes because aircraft isnt in essential mode.
44
When do the engine-driven generators come online?
Roughly 56.4% N2
45
Where can all generator information be found?
On the electrical page of either pilot’s MFD
46
What critical items are on the hot busses?
Engine fire bottles
47
What is the purpose of the OVRD function of the Shed bus switch?
To allow the shed busses to be energized when less than 3 generators are online
48
If a bus fault occurs, what will happen?
If a bus failure produces an over current, the GCU isolates the system networks by opening the bus tie contactors
49
Stabilized approach criteria
```
1000ft
Landing configuration
Glide path with 1000 or less vs
On track
Above idle thrust trending to approach speed
```
At 500ft
Speed +10 -0 from approach speed
50
How does the APU provide power for the electrical system?
Once the APU is started, the generator is able to provide power for the entire electrical system on the ground with the Shed bus switch in the OVRD position. In flight, it is able to supplement generators or replace an off-line generator. Regardless of being in flight or on the ground, the APU line-contactor is what connects or disconnects the APU to/from the electrical system. The APU line contactor operators under the authority of the EDL, or can be manually manipulated by selecting or de-selecting the APU generator push-button
51
What do inverters do?
They convert DC to AC
52
What systems do the inverters provide power to?
TCAS, GPWS and Windshear Computer
53
What, in general, does the fire protection system consist of?
The system consists of fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines and APU. The baggage compartment is also provided with a smoke detection system and extinguishing system. In addition, the lavatory compartment is equipped with a dedicated smoke detection system, and a lavatory waste container fire extinguishing system. All in all, there are 6 fire extinguishing bottles. In addition to the internal fire detection and extinguishing systems, there are 2 portable halon fire extinguishers installed at the front and rear of the airplane that can be used to extinguish small fires in the cockpit or main cabin area. A single water fire extinguisher also exists.
54
How is an engine fire detected?
Through a dedicated fire loop. Inside the fire loop contains a fixed volume of inert gas (Helium) and a gas-impregnated (Hydrogen) core material. This gas is responsible for sensing an over-heat condition. When an over-heat is detected, a pressure switch sends a fire (alarm) signal, which generates indications in the cockpit. When a fire is detected, the respective engine’s T-handle illuminates, an EICAS warning is generated (ENG1 (2) FIRE) and an aural warning is generated. The visual warnings of a fire remain activated as long as the fire signal exists. The aural warning may be cancelled by pressing the master warning light.
55
How is a fire in the baggage compartment detected and extinguished?
Fire in the baggage compartment is detected through a smoke detection system. The system consists of two smoke detection modules installed on the compartment ceiling. Whenever smoke is detected, an EICAS warning is presented (BAGG SMOKE). The message disappears when smoke is no longer present. Two fire extinguishing bottles are installed in the rear electronic compartment for baggage compartment fire protection. One of the bottles is an instantaneous, one-time discharge, while the other provides a metered discharge of the fire extinguishing agent. The latter fire extinguishing bottle provides a discharge for approximately 50 minutes. Discharge of both of these fire bottles is controlled by one button in the cockpit, labeled BAGG, which is located on the center portion of the overhead panel.
56
What actions occur when a T-handle is pulled?
H-ENG Driven HYD SOV
A- ENG Bleed Air valve
L- ENG Lip Air Valve
F- Fuel SOV (Belly)
57
How is an engine fire extinguished?
An engine fire can be extinguished two ways. The first way is to simply pull the respective engine’s T-handle. By pulling the associated T-handle, the fire is isolated from elements that could allow the fire to grow, or flame out the fire in its entirety. The second way is to rotate the T-handle, which discharges one of the two engine fire bottles (A or B) into the associated engine.
58
How is an APU fire extinguished?
By a dedicated fire bottle. When the APU fire extinguishing button is pressed, the APU fuel shutoff valve closes, an APU shutdown is initiated and the fire extinguishing bottle is discharged into the APU.
59
How many fire bottles exist?
Six fire bottles exist. There are:
- Two for the engines
- One for the APU
- Two for the baggage compartment
- One for the lavatory waste compartment
60
How does the pilot know that a component of the fire detection system has failed?
An integrity switch inside the fire loops constantly monitor the loop’s integrity. In the event of a tear or break in the fire loop, the pressure inside the loop drops, which triggers the pressure switch inside the loop to send a fire-detect fail signal to the EICAS.
61
How many smoke detectors are in the lavatory? Can the pilots control the lavatory waste container extinguishing bottle?
There is one smoke detector in the lavatory. A single fire extinguishing bottle is installed in the lavatory waste compartment. Discharge of this bottle is not accomplished by the pilots, but by sensitive heads that melt under high temperatures, which open an outlet passage on the extinguishing bottle.
62
How many smoke detectors are installed in the baggage compartment
There are 2 smoke detectors located on the compartment ceiling.
63
What occurs following a baggage compartment smoke detector detecting a fire?
A signal is sent to deactivate the baggage compartment fan and illuminate the baggage fire extinguisher button on the Fire Detection/Extinguishing panel. When smoke is no longer present, the baggage compartment fan is reactivated and the baggage fire extinguisher button light turns off
64
How is a fire detection test accomplished, and what are the indications that the test was passed?
Press Fidex button at least 2 seconds but no more than 10 seconds (10 secs will shut down the apu) if test done incorrectly wait 6 seconds before reattempting the following should be noted:
- Both Master Warning and Caution are illuminated
- Both fire handles are illuminated
- BAGG EXT button is illuminated
- EICAS Warnings – ENG 1(2) FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE
- EICAS Cautions – ENG 1(2) FIREDET FAIL, APU FIREDET FAIL
- Aural warning buzzer generates
65
Is there a cockpit indication for lavatory smoke?
Yes. When lavatory smoke is detected, a LAV SMOKE Warning is generated on the EICAS
66
Is it possible to discharge the engine fire bottles on a cold, dark airplane?
Yes. The electrical element of the engine fire protection system is powered via a Hot bus, meaning it is possible to discharge one of the fire extinguishing bottles on a completely powered down airplane.
67
How can the pilots tell when an engine or APU fire extinguishing bottle has been used?
- E1 (2) EXTBTLA INOP
- E1 (2) EXTBTLB INOP
- APU EXTBTL INOP
68
What are the powered flight control surfaces?
The only flight controls that receive hydraulic assistance are the rudder and ailerons - They are mechanically actuated with hydraulic assistance.
69
How can the elevator pitch trim be operated, and where is this indicated?
Elevator pitch trim can be operated electronically by two split switches on each pilot’s control column (main channel). These switches, when moved, send a signal to an electric motor to position the entire horizontal stabilizer, thereby reducing control column forces. In the event of a main channel failure, pitch trim can be operated on a backup channel by an additional split switch on the aft portion of the center pedestal. Indications of pitch trim position are on the EICAS, and are represented by a numerical system and green band.
70
What does the elevator disconnect device handle do?
It mechanically disconnects the two elevators (left and right) from one another via the torque tube, and allows the free elevator to resume pitch control
71
How are the ailerons, rudder, spoilers and speed brakes actuated? How do the rudder and ailerons operate in the event of a hydraulic failure?
The ailerons, rudder, spoilers and speed brakes are actuated hydraulically. In the event of a total hydraulic failure, the rudder and ailerons are mechanically actuated.
72
Can hydraulic assistance to the ailerons and rudder be shut off? If so, how
Yes, via 4 push buttons on the hydraulic section of the overhead panel. There are two aileron shutoff buttons, which are normally selected to allow hydraulic assistance to the aileron systems. There are also two rudder shutoff push buttons, which are also normally selected to allow hydraulic assistance to the rudder system. When pressed (released), the associated control actuator is disabled and hydraulic assistance is removed from that particular system.
73
What does the EICAS message RUDDER OVERBOOST mean, and when would that message be displayed?
The message means that both rudder system hydraulic actuators are pressurized above 135 knots.
74
What three conditions must occur to activate rudder hardover protection?
- Rudder deflected above 5 degrees +/- 1 degree
- Force above 130 lbs. on the pedal to counteract rudder deflection
- Both engines running above 56% N2
75
What is the gust lock system, and how does it lock the elevator?
The system acts directly on the elevator panels and prevents them from moving. When engaged, locking pins, driven by an electro-mechanical actuator (commanded by the gust lock lever) place the locking pins in place, preventing elevator movement.
76
How are the flaps actuated?
By two electric flap motors. The flap lever provides 5 detent settings (0, 9, 18, 22 and 45). When the flap lever is moved, a signal is transmitted to the Flap Electronic Control Unit (FECU) to move the flaps to the commanded setting
77
What is the purpose of the flap velocity sensors? what condition causes these to fail?
They are responsible for monitoring the speed of the flap motors. In the event that flap panel asymmetry is detected, the flap system is disabled.
78
What conditions must be met for ground (inboard) spoilers to open?
- Airplane on ground
- Main landing gear wheel speed greater than 25 knots
- Both engine thrust lever angles set to below 30 degrees or both engines N2 below 56%
79
What conditions must be met for the speed brakes (outboard spoilers) to open?
- Speed brake lever set to OPEN
- Thrust lever angle of both engines set to below 50 degrees
- Flaps at 0 or 9 degrees
80
Under what conditions is the stick pusher inhibited?
- On the ground (except during SPS test)
- Below 0.5 Gs
- If the quick disconnect button is pressed
- Below 200 ft. AGL (if RA is failed, this condition reverts to a 10 second delay after takeoff)
- If any SPS cutout buttons are released
- Above 200 KIAS
- If one SPS channel is inoperative
81
What are the travel limits of the rudder?
+/-15 degrees on the ground and in flight
82
How many rudder actuators are there?
The rudder PCU is a dual hydraulic unit, simultaneously powered by both hydraulic systems. Each PCU hydraulic circuit controls the hydraulic power to one respective rudder actuator. Because of this, the rudder system is divided into Rudder System 1 and Rudder System 2.
83
What would happen to the rudder if the hydraulic system lost power?
Both rudder systems would lose hydraulic assistance, and the rudder would operate purely mechanically.
84
Describe some of the main system components of the fuel system
The fuel system, in general, is divided into two separate systems, and is separated by a cross-feed valve, which is controllable by the pilots. Fuel is fed by gravity into a collector box in each main wing tank. From there, the collector boxes in each side of the wing stub keeps the electrical pump inlets submerged. To prevent pump cavitation, ejector pumps and flap valves ensure enough fuel is in the collector boxes at all times. Inside each main wing tank there are 3 electric pumps which send fuel to the engines. One pump is capable of supplying fuel for both engines and APU under all flight phases, except for takeoff and go around. The pumps are assisted by engine driven fuel pumps (1 for each engine) that are capable of suction feeding the engines up to FL250 in the event that no electric fuel pumps are available. The ventral tank has a collector box in its front center with two electrical pumps inside. When ventral fuel transfer occurs, fuel goes from the ventral tank to each main wing tank.
85
What provides high pressure fuel to the engines?
The Fuel Pump and Metering Unit (FPMU) controls and supplies fuel to the engine nozzles at correct pressure and flow rate for engine start, correct engine operation, and engine stop. There is one FPMU for each engine
86
What is another function of the FPMUs?
On top of providing high pressure fuel to the engines, the FPMUs are responsible for controlling the compressor variable geometry vanes (CVG).
87
How are the main tanks divided?
By a cross-feed valve
By manipulating the cross-feed valve via the cross-feed switch, pilots can de-energize the currently selected electric fuel pump in either wing tank. This allows fuel from one side of the fuel system to feed the opposite side engine or APU. Said another way: Under normal circumstances, pilots cannot transfer fuel between main wing tanks, but instead use fuel from one side of the fuel system to feed both sides.
88
How is the aircraft fueled?
By either pressure or gravity
89
What are the magna-sticks, and how are they used?
Three measuring sticks under each wing allow the pilots to verify fuel quantity prior to departure
90
What does the FUELING DOOR OPN EICAS caution message mean?
That the refueling panel door is open
91
What does the E1 (2) FUEL LO PRESS EICAS message mean?
That fuel pressure has dropped below 6.5 psi.
92
Can the cross-feed valve be open during the takeoff or go-around phases of flight?
No.
It is important to know this because as of right now, there isn’t a dedicated checklist item that states the cross-feed valve must be closed. Prior to departure and before landing, it is the pilot’s responsibility to check the EICAS for the FUEL XFEED OPEN advisory and place the crossfeed knob to the OFF position at the appropriate time.
93
What is MIN/TO fuel?
The minimum fuel which must be onboard prior to becoming airborne, which allows the flight to operate as released. This is calculated by adding the Burn, Holding, Alternate Burn, Reserve, and Missed Approach fuel totals.
94
When does a destination alternate need to be listed on the flight plan?
16VITSUBK
| there's an exemption for international
95
How far away can a takeoff alternate airport be from the departure point?
250 NM.
| 1 ENG still air cruise
96
What are the weather minimums required for the destination airport?
A flight may not be released or operated under IFR unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums at the ETA.
97
Exemption 17347
WWAC worst weather always controlling. Exemption 17347 is relief from conditional statements in TAF. 2 alts required. 50/50/100 rule. Uses derived minimums. 200 and 1/2 or 400/1
98
When are two alternate airports required?
17347 or marginal at dest and first alternate. marginal is 100-1/2 above landing minimums
99
Are circle-to-land procedures authorized?
Yes, although there are limitations. CommutAir is authorized to fly circle-to-land approaches to visual approach minimums only, e.g., 1000 feet HAA or MDA, whichever is higher, and 3 miles visibility.
100
What are the LAHSO requirements?
- Available landing distance to the hold-short point of 6,000 feet
- Dry runway
- Flaps 45 must be used
- No tailwind component
- No windshear reports on ATIS or pilot-reported in the previous 20 minutes
- Vertical guidance – Electronic (ILS) or visual (VASI or PAPI only)
- Compliance with the rejected landing procedure (RLP) if required. This information will be disseminated by FDC NOTAMS
- Night LAHSO will be conducted only where approved FAA Lighting Configuration for LAHSO is installed and operational
101
Are we authorized to do ferry flights under FAR Part 91? What about positioning flights?
Yes, and yes.
102
when is a release amendment required.
---
103
Can we ever exceed a holdover time?
The short answer is: no. The expanded answer is: If a holdover time of the anti-icing fluid will be exceeded prior to crossing the hold-short line, and icing conditions exist, a pre-takeoff contamination check of the aircraft must be performed to ensure that all critical surfaces of the aircraft are free from contamination. Currently, there are no company employees or vendors that are trained to accomplish this check outside of the aircraft – Because of this, a pre-takeoff contamination check is currently not authorized.
104
What is the clean aircraft concept?
FAR’s state that no person may takeoff an aircraft when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft.
105
What are the critical surfaces of the EMB-145
wings, flaps, ailerons, stabilizer, rudder, engine inlets, vents, drains, probes
106
What are special airports, and what are the PIC’s responsibilities when operating to them?
The FAA has designated certain airports for operations as “special airports” due to surrounding terrain, obstructions or complex approach or departure procedures. No person may act as PIC to or from such an airport unless within the preceding 12 calendar months: flown into, other pilot flown into or pictorially trained
107
What must occur if a checklist has been interrupted for more than 1 minute
The checklist must be re-started from the beginning
108
what is a MEL, CDL, NEF
MEL- mx deferral
CDL- deferral for missing
NEF- non essential furnishing
109
Regarding MEL procedures, can pilots accomplish maintenance (M) procedures?
The (M) symbol indicates a requirement for a specific maintenance procedure which must be accomplished prior to operation with the listed item inoperative. Normally, these procedures are accomplished by maintenance personnel; however, other personnel (such as the pilots) may be qualified and authorized to perform certain functions under the supervision of maintenance (over the phone, for instance). Procedures requiring special knowledge or skill, or requiring the use of tools or test equipment, should be accomplished by maintenance personnel
110
What is sterile cockpit, and how is the flight attendant made aware of it being in effect?
no talking, distractions unrelated to safe flight operations in all critical phases. This includes taxi up to 10k and reversed on the way down unless cruise phase is below 10k
111
How many systems are there?
There are 2 independent hydraulic systems
112
What items are located on the #1 system? What about the number 2 system?
Everything on each system is labeled on the Hydraulic section of the overhead panel. However, landing gear operation is unique to system 1, while the emergency/parking brake operation is unique to system 2.
113
What is the minimum fluid quantity required for dispatch?
1 liter
114
What is the priority valve, and what does it do?
If the # 1 hydraulic system is powered by the # 1 electric pump and the landing gear is commanded to retract, the valve will provide minimum flow to the landing gear system and give priority to the flight control surfaces. In this case, the landing gear will operate through stored accumulator pressure
115
When do the standby pumps operate?
The pumps normally operate in the AUTO mode, turning on whenever associated hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 PSI, or when N2 drops below 56.4%.
116
If an engine fails on takeoff, will the hydraulic systems be affected in any way?
Assuming the electric standby pumps are in the AUTO mode, neither of the hydraulic systems will be lost, and normal operation will be possible.
117
How are the main pumps driven
By the N2 via the tower shaft. The engine-driven pumps are a part of the accessory gear box on each engine
118
Prior to conducting the hydraulic test, what EICAS message should be present?
STEER INOP
119
How can the pneumatic anti-icing system be enabled?
The pneumatic anti-ice system is fully automatic. Under icing conditions in flight, the entire system protection is activated. On the ground, there is a system protection built in which inhibits the wing and stabilizer anti-ice valves from opening whenever wheel speed is below 25 knots. This inhibition can only be overridden when performing a test of the pneumatic anti-ice system. In the event fails to automatically engage in icing conditions, per the QRH, the ice detection override knob may be set to ALL to engage the system.
120
What surfaces does the thermal (pneumatic) anti-icing system cover?
- Engine nacelle (lips)
- Wing leading edges
- Horizontal stabilizer leading edges
121
What are the electrically heated areas
- Windshields
- Pitot tubes, pitot-static tube, AOA sensors, TAT probes and pressurization static ports
- Lavatory water drain and water service nipples
122
When do the electrically heated areas receive heat?
Any time an engine is running, all the electrically heated elements receive heat, with the exception of the TAT probes, which only receive heat when the engine lips are receiving pneumatic heat.
123
How does the system automatically detect icing conditions? How will the crew know if the system is functioning properly?
There are 2 ice detectors installed at the left and right nose section of the aircraft. They are designed to pick up ice quickly, and once ice is being detected, a signal is transmitted to activate the pneumatic anti-ice system. During icing encounters, the icing signal remains valid for 60 seconds, and an advisory (ICE CONDITION) is displayed on the EICAS. Simultaneously, an internal ice detector is heated to de-ice the unit and probe. When the probe is de-iced, its natural frequency is recovered and heating of the probe ceases. With the natural frequency of the probe restored, the probe is cool enough to once more monitor ice buildup. This cycle then repeats itself until icing conditions no longer exist.
124
Can thermal anti-icing be provided by the APU?
No, it cannot. While the engines have multiple stages of compression, the APU only has one, and is not able to provide dense/hot enough air to run the thermal anti-ice system.
125
Where does anti-ice bleed air for the horizontal stabilizer come from
Normally from engine bleed number 1 (left side of the pneumatic system). However, limited anti-ice capability can be provided by a single engine bleed up to 15,000 feet
126
How is ground and in-flight icing defined?
in flight TAT less than 10 and visible moisture
on ground less than 10 OAT and visible moisture below 1700AGL
127
How is engine lip anti-icing provided? Can it be manually selected?
The engine anti-ice valves open automatically as a function of system logic. They will receive an electrical input to open when the ice detection override knob is set to AUTO and any ice detector is activated. The valves can be manually commanded to open by placing the ice detection override knob to ALL or ENG, or by testing the ice protection system per AOM procedures.
128
When are the horizontal stabilizer and win anti-icing systems inhibited?
On the ground, with a wheel speed of less than 25 knots. This is to prevent structural damage caused by surface heating.
129
How is minimum compressor speed (N2) maintained during low thrust settings in icing conditions?
The FADEC for each engine provides an automatic logic to ensure a minimum available thrust during icing conditions, even during low thrust settings to compensate for increased bleed air consumption. This is done automatically with no pilot intervention, any time the aircraft is in flight and icing conditions are detected.
130
What is the desired holding configuration of the aircraft when holding in icing conditions?
gear up
flaps up
min 200KIAS
131
What is the nosewheel turning range with rudder pedals alone?
5 degrees
132
What is the nosewheel turning range with full tiller deflection and rudder pedals?
76 degrees
133
Do you need a fully operating nosewheel steering system in order to steer the aircraft with the rudder pedals?
No, although in the event the steering system has been disengaged, turning ability through the rudder pedals alone is a function of rudder authority (airspeed).
134
How does the landing gear operate?
The landing gear is electronically commanded, hydraulically actuated and mechanically locked. When the landing gear lever is placed to the UP or DOWN position, a signal is transmitted to the Landing Gear Electronic Unit (LGEU) which subsequently allows hydraulic fluid to either extend or retract the landing gear. Landing gear extension and retraction is provided by hydraulic system 1. The main gear retracts inboard, while the nose gear retracts forward. Each main gear leg is mechanically linked to its respective door, which remains open when the gear is down. The doors close automatically when the main landing gear is retracted. The nose gear landing doors are hydraulically actuated and operate in sequence with the nose gear.
135
What is the minimum parking brake pressure?
Although parking brake pressure is not monitored directly by the pilots, a caution message, EMRG BRK LO PRES, is displayed on the EICAS in case of low pressure inside the #2 accumulator.
136
What are the two methods of alternate gear extension, and how do they work
free fall actuator
electrical override
137
Can the gear be pumped up?
no
138
What are the weight on wheel sensors, and what is their purpose?
The Air/Ground indication logic is relatively simple. A series of transmitters relay shock-absorber compression, and send that information to various aircraft systems. The system consists of 5 weight-on-wheels proximity switches. There are 2 on each main landing gear, and one on the nose landing gear leg. Certain system logic is enforced depending on whether or not the system determines an AIR or GROUND signal. For example, on the ground, clicking the TO/GA buttons engages T/O sub-mode on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA), when, in the air, clicking the TO/GA buttons engages GA sub-mode on the FMA. While the main landing gear proximity switches send signals to multiple systems, the nose landing gear proximity switch signal is sent only to the thrust reverser logic and nosewheel steering control.
139
Under what conditions do you get the gear warning annunciation?
There are multiple answers to this question. In general, the landing gear warning logic operations as a function of RA value and flap setting. The pilots will receive a gear warning when one of the three following scenarios occur with the gear not in the down and locked position:
0,9,18 can be cancelled
-RA value below 1200, low thrust lever angle
-RA value below 1200, flaps selector between 22 and 45 and low thrust lever angle
-Flaps lever selected at 45
140
What receiver modules are displayed on the integrated navigation unit?
The Integrated Navigation Unit is a complete self-contained navigation system. The system consists of the VOR, localizer, glide slope and marker beacon receiver modules, the ADF module, a six-channel scanning DME module, and audio digitizers. The system also incorporates two L-Band antenna (optional), two ADF antenna (optional), two MB antenna, two VOR/ILS antenna and one GS dual antenna.
141
If increasing performance windshear is detected, what happens? What about decreasing performance windshear?
For increasing performance windshear:
Amber Windshear message
"caution windshear"
For decreasing winshear:
Red windshear message
"Windshear x3"
142
What is the appropriate response if windshear is encountered
- Apply maximum available thrust
- Disengage the autopilot, press the TO/GA buttons to activate windshear escape mode and rotate smoothly at a normal rate to the command bars
- Adjust pitch attitude smoothly and in small increments to control vertical speed and altitude
- Maintain present configuration (gear and flaps) until terrain contact is no longer a factor
143
What is the Tuning Backup Control Head (TBCH), and what is its primary function?
The TBCH is a unit that provides an alternative means of tuning NAV 2 and COM 2, should the normal means (RMU) fail.
144
How does a pilot know that the RMU has been cross-tuned
Any frequency change that has been made remotely via cross-tune will be displayed in yellow
145
What does the TCS button do?
TCS stands for touch control steering. It allows for manual maneuvering of the airplane without disengaging the autopilot.
146
The ISIS provides standby indications of the following
- Attitude (pitch and roll)
- Barometric altitude
- Indicated airspeed
- Indicated mach number
- VMO
- Skid/slip indication
- Magnetic heading
147
How many oxygen systems are there, and how do they work?
2 systems
crew uses oxygen cylinder supplied via masks. lasts 2 hours
pax use a series of oxygen generators. chemical reaction and lasts 15 minutes
148
How much oxygen is left when the EICAS message “OXYGEN LO PRESS” is displayed
Approximately 12 minutes for the pilot, copilot and observer
149
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch?
1100 or 1500psi
| 1500 for the ACM
150
What powers the Emergency Lights?
4 independent batteries which provide power for 15 minutes. charged off ess bus when not active.
151
What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?
```
4 1's 2 2's 3 3's
PBE
Crash Axe
Gloves
Fire extinguisher
2 flashlights
2 escape ropes
3 life vests
3 oxygen masks
3 smoke goggles
```
152
What are the QNH limits?**
On the TLR Planned Section, a planned QNH (PQNH) reads the altimeter setting at which the TLR was generated. The TLR is valid if the actual altimeter setting at the time of departure is no greater than .1 less than the PQNH. For example, if the planned QNH is 29.92, the actual QNH may be no less than 29.82 without generating a new TLR. No action is required when the actual altimeter setting is greater than the PQNH, although payload carrying capability may be greater.
153
What happens if the temperature is greater than the POAT for takeoff?
There isn’t any specific protocol to follow regarding the POAT. However, when the final takeoff performance numbers are being set, there is a maximum temperature column (MT) next to the MTOW that applies for the runway, takeoff weight and runway condition that is selected for takeoff. This number represented in degrees Celsius. For a given weight and set of conditions, the MT number may not be exceeded. If such is the case for a given weight, a new thrust rating (T/O, E/TO) may yield a lower MT – A new TLR may have to be generated to accommodate this scenario.
154
How would a tailwind be taken into account for landing?
Regarding the Maximum Runway Landing Weight, the Tailwind adjustment must be subtracted from the MRLW any time landing will be attempted with a tailwind. Regarding the Minimum Field Length, wind adjustments are in terms of distance per knot of wind. For example, with a TW/KT of 92 – a 10 knot tailwind landing would require an additional 920 feet of available landing distance.
155
What kind of Engine Failure Path (EFP/Turn Procedure) is used for runway 22R in Newark
look it up
156
What is the difference between a Standard and Simple-Special turn procedure?
Simple Special EFPs are provided when Standard EFPs cannot be used due to obstacle requirements. There are several things that make a particular EFP a Simple-Special instead of Standard, such as:
- A turn required before reaching 1,000 ft. above field elevation
- A non-standard acceleration altitude
- Multiple turns
157
How can a Simple-Special EFP be identified on the TLR?
Simple-Special EFPs are listed as SPECIAL on the Takeoff Report
158
When can all-engines-operating turns be made below 1,000 ft. above field elevation?
Turns can be made below 1,000 ft. above field elevation when one of the following parameters are met:
- When required by a Special Departure Procedure
- When required by a Departure Procedure/SID
- Prevailing weather conditions are equal to or better than 1000 ft. ceiling and 3SM visibility
- By request from ATC after radar contact is established
159
Are penalties for landing cumulative?
Yes, penalties are cumulative.
160
What is factored landing distance?
Simply put, the factored landing distance as listed on the Landing section of the TLR, gives the minimum runway length that complies with FAR 121.195. Compliance with this is required for the flight to be dispatched legally. If unable to comply with this rule, an alternate airport must be designated on the release that does
161
What are the three possible sources for bleed air?
- Engine compression stages (9th or 14th stage)
- APU
- Ground pneumatic source
162
What systems use bleed air
Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization and anti-ice.
163
Where does engine bleed air come from, and what uses it?
Engine bleed air comes from the 9th and 14th stages. The 9th stage is low pressure bleed air, and the 14th stage is high pressure bleed air.
164
What happens when the engine bleeds are selected (pushed in)
It depends. If the engines are running, pushing the engine bleed push-buttons in will open the engine bleed valves. If the engines aren’t running, pushing the bleed push-buttons in won’t do anything.
165
What is the high stage valve (HSV), and how does it open/close?
The HSV is responsible for cycling between 9th stage low pressure engine bleed air and 14th stage high pressure engine bleed air. It is electrically commanded and pneumatically actuated (electro-pneumatic). It operates under the authority of a pressure switch, which automatically opens the valve during low engine thrust operations, cross-bleed engine starts and pneumatic anti-ice system activation to allow 14th stage bleed air to run the system. As thrust increases, the HSV closes and the 9th stage bleed air check valve opens, supplying 9th stage low pressure engine bleed air to the system.
166
When does the #1 Pack automatically close?
The #1 Pack valve automatically closes whenever the pneumatic anti-ice system is operating and the aircraft is below 24,600 ft.
167
Pack Shutoff Logic
```
One Pack:
Loss of bleed
Iicing (24600)
Pack OVHT
Pack OVLD
```
```
Both Packs:
Eng Start
Essential Power
Go Around
One Engine INOP
```
168
How is the cabin ventilated if the ECUs fail?
By two ram air inlets. In the event both ECUs fail, the ram air inlets open, which allow the cabin to be supplied with fresh air.
169
What are the outflow valves? How many are there, and what are they responsible for?
There are two outflow valves located in the rear of the aircraft. Under normal operation, the two outflow valves work in unison to control the outflow of cabin air to maintain a desired cabin altitude. The main outflow valve is automatic and is electronically commanded and pneumatically actuated. The backup (manual) outflow valve is essentially the same thing, but is normally slaved to the main outflow valve when the system is operating in the automatic mode. In the event of a main outflow valve (automatic mode) failure, the backup outflow valve can be controlled by a rotary knob in the cockpit, allowing the crew to maintain desired cabin pressure
170
When does the takeoff sequence for pressurization end?
The takeoff sequence lasts until the theoretical cabin altitude becomes greater than the actual cabin altitude, or until 15 minutes have elapsed since the sequence initiation (thrust set), whichever occurs first.
171
When can the APU supply bleed air for pressurization and temperature control?
Whenever the APU is running, the APU bleed valve push button is selected (pushed in) and neither engine is supplying bleed air to the left side of the pneumatic system.
172
Which side of the pneumatic system is the APU bleed air connected to?
The left side of the pneumatic system
173
How is the APU bleed valve actuated, and when does the APU bleed valve close?
The APU bleed valve is electronically commanded and pneumatically actuated (electro-pneumatic). It will close:
- Whenever it is contesting an engine bleed valve to supply air for either side of the pneumatic system
- Whenever the APU shuts down
- Whenever the APU bleed valve push button is de-selected (pushed out)
174
How can the pilots tell that the APU bleed valve is open?
By noting an OPEN inscription on the APU bleed valve push button
175
Where are the ECUs located?
The ECUs are installed forward of the wing root, inside the wing-to-fuselage fairing. The #1 ECU is on the left side of the aircraft, while the #2 ECU is on the right side of the aircraft.
176
What are the cabin recirculation fans? How are they controlled?
The cabin recirculation subsystem consists of two recirculation fans. These fans are controlled by the pilots by a push-button on the overhead panel, and must be pushed out (turned off) in the event there is smoke in the cabin. They are responsible for re-circulating fresh air throughout the cabin.
177
When are some of the malfunctions that will cause the ECUs to automatically shut down without pilot intervention
PACK OVLD
| PACK OVHT
178
What two stages are bleed air tapped from?
9th stage
| 14th stage
179
How is the Accessory Gear Box powered?
The accessory gear box is powered via a tower shaft that is connected to the high-pressure turbine (N2)
180
What components are located on the accessory gear box?
```
Hyd pump
Oil pump
Fuel pump
Generators
ATS
PMA
```
181
What are the three sources of air for engine start?
APU bleed air
Cross-bleed air
External air
182
What is the preferred source of air for engine start?
APU bleed air
183
What is the FPMU and what does it do? What operates it?
The FPMU controls and supplies fuel to the engine nozzles at correct pressure and flow rate for engine start, correct engine operation, engine stop, and also controls the compressor variable geometry vanes. The FPMU for each engine operates under the full authority of the FADECS.
184
How does the fuel shutoff valve work?
The fuel shutoff valves in the belly are only activated (fuel cutoff) by pulling either of the T-handles. For each engine, there is a separate latching shutoff valve (controlled by the pilot via the Start/Stop selector switch) that shuts off fuel immediately prior to the engine, should the Start/Stop selector be placed to the stop position.
185
What is the FCOC and what is its function?
FCOC stands for Fuel-Cooled Oil-Cooler. In the most basic sense, it is a heat exchanger that cools oil by allowing it to come to close contact with much cooler fuel
186
What page of the MFD displays the engine oil level, and engine oil pressure
Either pilot’s MFD T/O page will display each engine’s oil level. The main place that the oil pressure is read is off the EICAS
187
What is the minimum oil level for dispatch?
8 quarts
7 for eng start
6 for takeoff
188
When does the engine oil quantity text turn amber?
below 6 quarts
189
What is the primary source for engine control and ignition? How is this driven? When does it provide sufficient power to drive the ignition system and the FADECs?
- Each engine operates under the full authority of its respective FADEC
- PMAs are the engine’s ignition source
- PMAs are driven by the N2 via the tower shaft
- At around 10% N2, there is enough rotation for the PMAs to power the igniters in each engine
- Above 50% N2, the PMAs are responsible for powering the FADECs
- Below 50% N2, the FADECs are powered by the aircraft’s essential busses
190
How many igniters are there in each engine? What is AUTO mode and how many igniters are used and when?
2 igniters in each engine
-AUTO mode allows the FADEC to control how many igniters are responsible for engine start
o In AUTO mode:
-1 igniter is used on the ground for normal engine start
-2 igniters are used for auto-relight (ground or flight)
191
What is the thrust lever detent
The detent is a notch that the thrust levers sit in whenever full thrust is requested for a given thrust mode. There is room to advance the thrust levers beyond the detent to request max available thrust regardless of the respective pilot-selected engine mode, however, this is only done in the event of wind-shear or an ATTCS failure.
192
Where is the FADEC in command displayed?
On the EICAS
193
What happens when there is an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment in flight?
The FADEC in command automatically brings the thrust in the respective engine to idle, regardless of thrust lever angle
194
How is the maximum available thrust for each selected takeoff thrust rating calculated?
By the FADEC, with input from the pilot on the MFD T/O page. Using the T/O data store button, the pilot selects the thrust mode, temperature (as reported by the ATIS) and the anti-ice mode. After the engines are started, the FADEC either accepts or rejects the T/O data. If accepted, the N1 target is displayed on the EICAS in cyan lettering.
195
What happens in the thrust lever is forward of the idle position and the start/stop selectors are placed in the stop position?
The respective engine will not shut down.
196
When can CLB and CRZ modes be selected?
Operationally speaking, CLB thrust mode can be selected when the PF calls “Climb thrust” on the takeoff profile. CRZ thrust mode can be selected when the PF calls for the Cruise Check
197
What must be entered by the pilot for the takeoff data setting?
- Thrust mode (driven by the TLR)
- ATIS temperature
- Anti-ice on/off
198
What is the purpose of the ATTCS?
ATTCS = Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System. In layman’s terms – Whenever an engine fails, the system automatically (without pilot input) increases thrust on the operating engine to increase single-engine performance.
199
When will the FADEC select T/O RSV mode? T/O mode?
In layman’s terms, whenever the ATTCS system receives an engine-out signal, ATTCS is activated
200
How would you know that the takeoff data was not accepted by the FADECS?
“ENG NO T/O DATA” would be displayed on the EICAS
201
How are the thrust reversers actuated? Activated? Locked?
- Electrically acommanded
- Hydraulically actuated
- Mechanically and hydraulically locked
202
What is the Maximum Allowable Takeoff Weight (MATOW)?
Based on performance and flight limitations, it is the lowest of:
- AFM Maximum Allowable Structural Takeoff Weight (53131)
- Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW from TLR)
- Planned Maximum Enroute Weight (TLR)
- Maximum Structural Landing Weight (44092 + Fuel Burn)
- Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (40785) + Fuel on Board – Taxi Fuel
- Planned Maximum Runway Landing Weight (From TLR) + Fuel Burn
203
- Where did the Performance Limit come from?
This comes from the TLR and is labeled as the PMRTW (Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight). This number is computed by CommutAir’s performance vendor – AeroData, and takes into account various things for any given runway such as:
- Accelerate-stop distance
- Takeoff distance
- Obstacle clearance
- Takeoff climb
204
What is the result if two passengers move to a difference section?
On top of making sure that the MATOW isn’t exceeded, the pilots must make sure that the C.G is within acceptable tolerances. This means that weight shifts (passenger movement) may be required from time to time. If a weight shift is necessary, accomplish the following procedure using the SeeGee Calculator:
205
How are children accounted for on the LM4?
Children are accounted for as adults, and then 100 lbs. is subtracted for each child on board and recorded onto the LM4 worksheet under the CORRECTIONS/ADJUSTMENT section.
206
How much does a lap child weigh?
Lap children are not taken into account on the LM4 worksheet
207
What is the maximum occupancy
Not taking into account lap children, crew or jumpseaters, the maximum occupancy is 50 passengers.
208
What does it mean when a check mark is placed in the shaded index area next to the actual zero fuel weight and landing weight on the LM4 worksheet
Both checks ensure that the numbers are below the associated max allowable limit, and that the loading is within envelope limits.
209
What do the caution areas indicate on the SeeGee calculator
If the final index falls in a Caution Zone, it is required that passengers be seated according to instructions in that zone. The instructions for each zone are as follows:
forward caution zone requires pax to sit in aft portion of their sections and reversed for aft caution zone.
210
How are flightdeck jumpseaters accounted for?
Jumpseaters are accounted for on the LM4 by a dedicated slot (labeled ACM) under the WEIGHT AND BALANCE section. Regardless of the time of year, jumpseaters are accounted for by adding 190 lbs. to the ACM section. On the SeeGee calculator, on the right hand side, an ACM line and dedicated index exists to account for a flightdeck jumpseater.
211
How much does a passenger weigh in the Summer? How about the Winter? When do these changes go into effect?
184lbs/189lbs. heavier in winter
212
What is Min/TO fuel
```
All fuel required from Takeoff to destination
Burn
Hold
Alternate
Reserve
Missed
```
213
what is divert fuel
fuel to fly from destination to furthest alternate with an additional 45 minutes reserve fuel
214
what is final divert fuel
fuel to fly from destination to furthest alternate plus 30 minutes of emergency fuel
215
reserve fuel
45 minutes roughly 1800lbs
216
oxygen low pressure eicas
12 minutes for both pilots/acm. 400psi
217
when are the emergency lights on?
when turned on or automatically in electrical emergency
218
which 3 doors have eicas CAUTIONS
fuel door
bagg door
access doors
219
which readings are specified on the isis
```
hdg via ahrs 1
attitude
airspeed
altitude
skid
```
220
which reciever modes are displayed on the integrated navigation unit?
loc, gs, vor, dme, adf, audio digitizer
221
what happens if the stick pusher actuators pressurize in flight
pushes nose down and disconnects the autopilot
222
what is the primary component of the avionics integration system?
two ic600 computers aka the symbol generators
223
how many systems pages can be displayed on pfd
```
5 pages
to page
ecs
electric page
fuel
hydraulic
```
224
where are the fire extinguishers located
baggage bottles in rear avionics bay
(in pressurized location)
the eng/apu bottles are in the rear equipment bay
(unpressurized area)
225
after detection of ice by ice detectors how long does icing signal remain active?
During icing encounters, the icing signal remains valid for 60 seconds,
226
in an electrical emergency the only heated sensors are?***
s
227
What powers the rudder pcu?
dual hydraulic unit powered by both systems. system 1 comes off in flight above 135kts to prevent rudder overboost
228
how many flap panels per wing?
2 per wing
229
when performing a test of the stall protection system what must be disengaged?
gust lock
230
how many spoilers are there?
4. 2 inboard 2 outboard. outboard is speed brakes. in board are ground spoilers. all 4 actuate on landing roll.
231
what is the priority valve?
on system 1. when powered by ele pump, landing gear is separated from flight controls to prioritize flight controls. gear retraction accomplished by accumulator pressure with minimal flow from system 1
232
what happens if the fpmu fails?***
i believe the engine will shutdown
233
how does the fpmu interface with the fuel system?
it operates under fadec authority and provides fuel supply to the engine nozzles at correct pressure/flow rate. it also controls cvg's
234
how is fuel provided to the main pump?
the fuel pump sits inside a collector tank submerged in fuel to prevent cavitation.
235
how does fuel get transferred between tank bays?
fuel is moved into the collector box via flap valves and a ejector pump
236
what does FUELING ON caution tell you?***
s
237
Why cant fuel be transferred when FUELING ON caution is illuminated?***
s
238
Paperwork on plane
```
Logbook
Registration
Airworthiness
FCC license
Air operator certificate
Liquor license
Noise level cert
Qrh
Qrc
```
