Oral Exam Questions Flashcards

Question

Is there an altitude that affects the A/T system?

Answer 1

- 50kts to 400ft. - A/T must be active by 50kts otherwise can not be activated until 400ft.

Answer 2

-8/-10 disconnect @ 100ft AGL -9 disconnect @ 135ft AGL

Answer 3

- Two valves (one forward and one aft)

Answer 4

- Flaps 15-30 and in primary mode. - Limited to minimum of 5. - Activates when flap limit placard is exceeded. - Also prevents extension beyond current setting if airspeed too high.

Answer 5

1. Both engines fail. 2. All three hydraulic systems pressures low. 3. Loss of all electrical power to captain and first officers flight instruments. 4. Loss of all 4 HEMPS and faults in flight control system. 5. Loss of all 4 HEMPS and an engine fails on takeoff and landing.

Answer 6

Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation: 1. Engine thrust increases excessively beyond command. 2. Engine thrust does not decrease despite a command. 3. Armed 1.7 seconds after sensors determine AC on ground. 4. Shuts down the engine.

Answer 7

- No centre tank fuel, all main tank boost pumps should be on and cross-fertilisation closed. - > 16000lbs in centre tank, all boost pumps on until FUEL LOW CENTRE (advisory) is displayed. - FUEL IN CENTRE (advisory) in cruise, use fuel with all boost pumps on.

Answer 8

During a wind shear alert condition.

Answer 9

- CAC surging resulting in PACK defects. - Constant number of PAX entered by CA to continue higher CAC output.

Answer 10

MRC - Maximum range cruise, full priority given to fuel consumption. Slightly lower than LRC (1% fuel).

Answer 11

787/8 - 40,37 787/9 - 33/40 787/10 - 37/35

Answer 12

GPWS mode 7 (Reactive) and PWS (Predictive).

Answer 13

235VAC, aft E/E bay

Answer 14

Enlarged scale and sensitive FPV cue can lead to over controlling.

Answer 15

- Too focused on HUD, not maintaining scan of instruments. - Focusing on HUD symbology if too bright, instead of outside environment. - Monochromatic, there is no amber or red to represent alerts,

Answer 16

- A/T armed and not active, the A/T will engage in THR REF, THR or SPD if the airspeed decreases to an FMC calc value and will maintain min manoeuvre speed, or speed in IAS window, whichever is greater. - I’m HOLD mode, A/T will wake up and reach CLB thrust by the time speed has decreased to stick shaker speed.

Answer 17

- A/T arm switch is off. - Below 400ft on T/O or 100ft on approach. - In HOLD mode, A/T will wake up and reach CLB thrust by the time speed has decreased to stick shaker speed. - In HOLD mode, with TOGA mode after take-off, A/T will wake up and reach THR REF thrust by the time speed has decreased to within 10kts of stick shaker speed.

Answer 18

- take off, approach, landing near terrain. - path management. - Altitude constraints at waypoints. - Situational awareness.

Answer 19

- do not run engines with wind greater than 65kts - for crosswind winds greater than 45kts or tailwind greater than 42kts limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi.

Answer 20

Max CDU is 9,999. Max ANA is 120 for 787.

Answer 21

- Easy to input wrong frequency. - Have to select active line.

Answer 22

- Large wingspan, caution with taxi. - Efficient wing creates high lift, easy to float and get high on profile.

Answer 23

Min - 2.5 deg Max - 3.25 deg

Answer 24

Headwind - 25kts Crosswind - 25kts Tailwind - 15kts

Answer 25

-8, -10 : 100ft -9 : 135ft However, ANA procedure is to disconnect at DA/MDA when auto land is not used.

Answer 26

The 787 Electrical system generates, distributes and manages airplane electrical power. o The system is automatic and electrical loads are dynamically managed. Electronic Controllers automatically cycle loads on and off. o An enormous amount of Power produced. B767 had 2*120kVA Generators = 240kVA. B787 has 4* 250kVA Generators = 1000kVA. APU = 225kVA*2 = 450kVA. o Powers many systems, not previously powered Electrically including: Engine Start, Pressurization, Wing Ice Protection, Stabilizer & Wheel Brakes. o 3 External Power Receptacles. o Sources: • 4 Engine VFSG (235VAC, 250KVA) • 2 APU VFSG • 3 External power receptacles (aft is for right engine start only) • RAT • Main Battery • APU Battery • 3 Flight Control PMG's (permanent magnet generators) • 2 PMA's, one per engine. Primary power source for EEC o For the 6 variable frequency starter generators (2 per engine and APU). No constant speed drive thus reduced weight = fuel saving. Generator directly connected to engine used as starter = weight saving. o Primarily 115VAC, 28VDC (in forward E/E) and with limited number of systems using235VAC. RPDU's (Remote Power Distribution Unit) throughout the aircraft. Higher amperage loads are distributed directly from the 28VDC buses, lower from RPDU's o 4 main 235VAC distribution buses (L1, L2, R 1, R2); directly powers high voltage systems like wing anti-ice, main fuel pumps, spoilers,stabilizers. In addition, powers all other bus systems through power conversion devices, located in aft E/E bay. o Large Motor Power Distribution System: The airplane's use of variablefrequency power requires large motor loads to be energized by motor controllers which condition the power for use, located in aft E/E. The main 235VAC system energizes the large motor power system through conversion devices. The PECS system dissipates heat created by these high voltage motor controllers. o Circuit Breaker Indication and Control: Control of Electronic circuit breakers & monitoring of Thermal circuit breakers. o At or below 40 degrees, both engines can be started simultaneously.

Answer 27

PECS (Power Electronics Cooling System) - liquid based o Dissipates heat created by high voltage motor controllers of the Large Motor Power Distribution System (LMPS) o PECS is energised if either engine or APU is running or if forward external power is connected. o Two independent liquid cooling loops. o Each loop contains a pump package with two fully redundant pumps. o Each loop's coolant temperature is controlled to 27 degrees under normal conditions. o System operation is completely automated. o Coolant colour is vivid Orange to simplify leak detection.

Answer 28

o 5000psi (smaller lines) o Fewer items (flaps/slats, nose wheel steering, gear, spoilers and thrust reversers)

Answer 29

Air System o Uses 4 CAC’s, no bleed air for air conditioning / pressurisation • CACs are driven electronically

Answer 30

Engine Bleed Air o Used for engine inlet and core anti-icing and SAS only

Answer 31

Flight Controls o Fly-by-wire o 3 Independent Engine driven PMG's power source for Flight Control Electronics. Backup 28vDC & Batteries.

Answer 32

Engine o On RR: 3-Spool/Rotor axial flow Turbofan of high compression and bypass ratio. The 3-spool configuration prevents compressor stall and shortens total length of engine. o N1 rotor: Fan and low-pressure turbine section. o N2 rotor: Intermediate-pressure compressor & turbine section. Contains Accessory Gearbox. o N3 rotor: High-pressure compressor & turbine section. o By extracting Accessory Power from N2, there is no load on N3 which can retain increased rotation speed in idle. o The efficiency of the compressor is improved and bleed to prevent surging is reduced which improves fuel consumption. o Because surging is reduced, engine can be designed with lower minimum idle thrust leading to better fuel consumption in the descend & taxi and reduces brake wear. o RR: TPR. Ratio of low pressure at engine air inlet versus high pressure at high-pressure compressor outlet. TPR considers Temp ratio as well. Possible to monitor engine degradation with TPR. o 2 Independent PMA's power source for EEC's that automatically control the engines. o Max time at Takeoff & Go-around Thrust: 2 Eng: 5 mins. 1 Eng: 10mins. o TRENT 1000K produces 74400 lbs of thrust. o Engine Intermix to exactly match engines power output.

Answer 33

• Positives o Better situational awareness, therefore: o Reduced errors. o Efficient to implement therefore: o Workload management becomes easier o Prioritises checklists • Through air/ground logic, fuel control switches, start selector position and EICAS message level determine the priority o Closed loop items are monitored by the aircraft • Flight deck switches, flap and gear lever or selector knob • Demerits o Hidden checklists o Over reliance on an automated system. • Other: ECL system is not required for dispatch, a paper checklist must be available on the flight deck.

Answer 34

EICAS caution message “CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM” or CHKL NON- NORMAL displays before the corresponding phase of flight o Before Taxi phase - occurs when the airplane is moved under its own power o Before takeoff phase - occurs when the airplane is on the FMC takeoff runway and aligned for takeoff • 30 degrees / 120’ from centerline o Approach phase - occurs when the airplane descends through the FMC transition altitude, and the flap handle is not in UP o Landing phase - occurs when the airplane descends below 500ft above the FMC landing altitude

Answer 35

JET B, JP-4

Answer 36

Hydraulic - No RF Oxygen Pressure Domestic 860psi International 1250psi Oil Quantity - 16 Quarts Minimum Verify only the expected messages are shown on EICAS and Status

Answer 37

The takeoff speeds are calculated with OPT (EFB and iPad OPT) and normally based on Optimum V1 and improved climb principles. • Follows maker performance data when its established, however uses ANA ‘unique’ when it’s not available (slippery runways). Braking action corresponding to newly introduced RWYCC is used. • Take off: § Dry/wet defined by AFM. Accelerate to V1, 2 second delay. Dry with no reverse, wet with practical reverse. § Slippery defined by ANA. Accelerate stop distance with 2 second delay, use practical reverse. § 15% Extra margin required for 2 engines-go for Dry, Wet & Slippery. § Screen height for dry & 2 engines: 35 feet. Wet & Slippery 15 feet. • Landing § Dry/wet defined by AFM. Only AFM Dry Performance used. Calculated with Speedbrake and no reverse. Dry = Actual Landing Distance *1.67. Wet = Dry *1.15. § New unified Landing Performance combining AFM Wet and ANA Critical (Slippery): § Vref+15 at 50 feet. 7 seconds flare/ air distance. Autobrake Max. Full Reverse. RWYCC Based Braking Action. 30deg for wet and 0deg for Slippery. Additional 15% margin.

Answer 38

MANUAL FLIGHT o Disengage autopilot o Push either TO/GA switch o Aggressively apply MAX THRUST o Disconnect Auto-throttle o Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate smoothly towards an initial pitch attitude of 15* o Set the SPEEDBRAKE lever to DOWN o Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available) • PM DUTIES ▪ Verify maximum thrust ▪ Verify all required items have been completed no call out any omissions AUTOMATIC FLIGHT o Push either TO/GA switch o Verify TOGA annunciation o Verify GA Thrust o Set the SPEEDBRAKE lever to DOWN o Monitor system performance of autopilot and Autothrottle • PM DUTIES ▪ Verify GA thrust ▪ Verify all required items have been completed no call out any omissions • MANUAL or AUTOMATIC FLIGHT o Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor o Monitor vertical speed and altitude o Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

Answer 39

Rolls Royce (RR) has adopted turbofan power ratio (TPR) as a primary parameter, instead of EPR. RR says that TPR can follow thrust the same as EPR does. • According to TPR equation, at first, TPR has one factor which is the ratio of the low pressure at the engine inlet and the high pressure at the high-pressure compressor outlet. Therefore, the values of TPR become much larger than those of EPR and they are approaching the numbers of N1. • Second, TPR has the other factor which is the ratio of the low temperature at the engine inlet and the high temperature at the low-pressure turbine inlet. TPR follows the same trend as EGT increases, so it means that it is possible to monitor engine deterioration.

Answer 40

Trent 1000 engines are designed in 3-axis structure. This will prevent compressor stall and shorten the total length of an engine. • The efficiency of compressor will improve, and the bleed air to prevent surge can be reduced. The consumption of fuel will be reduced, which means that the engine can be designed with lower idle thrust at its minimum. • Lower idle thrust leads to better fuel consumption during descent and taxi and reduces brake wear. • TRENT 1000K produces 74,400lbs thrust.

Answer 41

o Postpone takeoff or landing if severe windshear is evident o Takeoff § Less than maximum thrust not recommended (unless requiredby performance) § Use most extended flaps § Use longest runway § Use FD after takeoff § Consider increasing Vr to performance limited weight Vr,maximum of 20 knot increase § If encountered carry out escape maneuver. Do not exceedPLI. Avoid using Stab Trim o Landing § Use most suitable, that avoids suspected WS areas. § Land with shallow flaps § Stabilize approach as early as possible § Use ILS g/s or visual indications to detect deviations § A/P may mask onset of WS, so closely monitor § Avoid large thrust reductions/trim changes in response to positive wind shear, since negative WS may follow. § Disengage AT if needed.

Answer 42

o 4 engine VFSG, 2 APU VFSG – 235VAC o PECS – Power Electronics Cooling System for large motor power distribution system o 3 PMG (permanent magnet generators)

Answer 43

o PECS - power electronics cooling system is a liquid cooling system (60% alcohol, 40% water) for the large motor power distribution system (LMPS) located in the aft E/E bay. o Also provides cooling for thesupplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the ICS. o PECS contains 2 fully independent loops each with 2 pumps o ICS - integrated cooling system is a centralized refrigeration systemthat provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling the recirculated cabin air. ICS is integrated with the air conditioning system and the liquid cooling system.

Answer 44

Merit: o Reduced weight (no cables, linkages) o Enhanced handling qualities andreduced pilot workload. o Built in protections, highly redundant. o Easier for maintenance & Fault Finding. Demerit: o No autopilot if not in NORMAL mode. Highly complex, receives inputfrom multiple sources.

Answer 45

o Flight envelope protection. AP & AT prevents overspeed and stall & limits bank to 30deg (EICAS Caution message AUTOPILOT). o Tail Strike Protection. The PFC’s calculate if a tail strike is imminent or not, then decreases elevator deflection. The pilot can override it should they need to. [8,9] TO & Landing. [10] only TO. o Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM). Automatic function used to increase pitch attitude and increase the nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds. It raises lateral control surfaces, increase drag & thus AoA. o See TAPS and TAMS o See Auto throttle Stall Protection

Answer 46

o 4 x FCE cabinets (which house 4 ACEs) are driven by 3 x independent PMGs and aircraft system power. The aircrafts 28VDC and the main battery provide a secondary source for flight control power. In addition, a backup system is provided by dedicated batteries to assure positive flight control operation during temporary power interruptions. o The ACEs can transmit pilot control inputs directly to the control surfaces (DIRECT MODE), or they can send the pilot inputs to the PFCs (PRIMARY OR SECONDARY MODE). When the ACEs are sending inputs to the PFCs, the ACEs receive control commands back from the PFCs and use the commands to position the flight control surfaces o 4 x redundant systems, so failure is highly unlikely. o 3 Flight Control Modules (FCM) each containing 3 PFC, 3 AFDS, 3 ADC. o Loss of all hydraulic power, the electrically actuated stabiliser and two spoiler pairs allow pilot control of pitch and roll using the primary pitch trim switches or alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel. o If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabiliser and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of pitch using the alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.

Answer 47

o Nose gear steering o Flaps/Slats o Landing gear o Flight Controls o Thrust Reversers

Answer 48

o Integrated Approach Navigation is a system that implements approaches other than ILS approach by using a procedure similar to that of an ILS. o Course (FAC) and Path (G/P) are based on the MAP and FAF information which is registered in the NAV database (2 dots vertical deviation is 125 ft regardless of altitude). o Can use RNAV, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, VOR, ADF. o Dual engine or engine inoperative approaches are authorized. o Recommended for straight-in approaches only. o Cannot use RNAV(RNP) AR. o No Autoland, although system will permit FLARE when this is disregarded and a autoland is continued.

Answer 49

o Engine fire switch o APU fire switch o Generator Drive Disconnect switch o Fuel Control Switch o Thrust Lever o Cargo Fire Arm Switch o Autothrottle Arm Switch o Confirmation not neccessary for Dual Eng Fail Mem items or when aircraft is on the ground. Eeehkay

Answer 50

o Wingspan: 60.1m. o Length: -8 56.7m, -9 62.8m, -10 68.3m. o Height: -8 16.9m, -9 and -10 17m.

Answer 51

o 47.3m (-8), 52.6m (-9) and 58.1m (-10) for normal 180- degree turn. +- 10m less than A/C length o 42.4m, 47.2m and 52.7m for minimum turn. Ie Aircraft is stopped before turning tiller to max, then diff thrust. (AOR PT.1.9). Affects tyres. o Only for emergencies o +- 5m less than normal 180deg turn o 34.6m, 37.7m and 40.7m for emergency pivot turn (AOR PT.1.12) o Only for emergencies, no alternative o Aircraft to be pulled over on side of RWY. Locked brakes

Answer 52

• The wingspan is 60.1m • ICAO Annex 14 recommends that the taxiway should be so designed as to provide clearance of more than 4.5m between the paved taxiway edge and the main landing gear when its cockpit (nose gear by Japans criteria) is tracking over the taxiway centerline. • At present, not all airports in the world are designed according to these recommended criteria. So, at some small airports, there is a possibility of going off the pavement.

Answer 53

o Yes, in emergency. § -8 minimum turn § -9/-10 emergency pivot turn

Answer 54

o Minimum Turn Procedure: Apply brakes to stop and thrust to Idle Turn tiller to maximum angle Release brakes Turn at 5-10 knots Apply engine thrust on outside engine After nose gear passes through maximum possible width position,smoothly return tiller to neutral and align aircraft with RWY. o If needing Pivot turn - lock inside brake (runway and tire inspectionrequired...)

Answer 55

o Paper documents: (7) § Registration certificate § Airworthiness certificate § Designation for operating limitations § Radio station license § Emergency documents § QRH § Journey & Radio Log, MEL/CDL Log o Electronic documents: (5) § AOM § Operations Policy Manual Vol 2 § MEL/CDL manual § Operations Manual § Route Manual

Answer 56

o Flight Deck Access System operational test o Emergency Evacuation signal AND Cabin Interphone test o Crew Oxygen mask microphone Test o For International Flights, full alignment of IRU except if within 18-hour window till estimated end of flight.

Answer 57

o Optimum V1 is used to increase obstacle clearance (obstacle limitweight) by increasing (unbalancing) V1, which reduces EOTD by reaching Vr earlier, but the ASD is increased.

Answer 58

o Unbalancing V1 to increase obstacle clearance/climb -limit weight

Answer 59

o Increases accelerate stop distance.

Answer 60

o Where EOTD no longer equals ASD. ASD is greater.

Answer 61

o Yes, if limited by field limit (runway length)

Answer 62

o Increases second segment climb capability by increasing takeoff speeds when surplus runway is available. Not effective if obstacles are present close to the runway.

Answer 63

o Useful when takeoff weight is limited by obstacle limit. o Also improves climb gradient and thus climb limit at high temperature/elevation/weight.

Answer 64

o 8 (7 on -8) ▪ Fire Extinguisher ▪ Fire Resistant Gloves ▪ Signal Kit ▪ Flashlights ▪ Crash Axe ▪ Smoke Hood ▪ Life Vests ▪ Megaphone (not on -8)

Answer 65

o Log & Documents aboard o Flight Deck Access System test o Emergency Equipment o Including FLT Deck Overhead Door o And Emergency Descend devices o Gear pins (5 stowed) o Headsets (4 minimum) o Evacuation signal and Cabin Interphone test o IRS Selectors - off for 30 seconds then on (ON BAT extinguished) o Verify CREW O2 LOW Alert message blank o Status Display § Hydraulic Quantity § Oxygen § Oil Quantity § Unexpected Messages o EICAS Display, only expected messages o CDU/EFB Preflight

Answer 66

o In Flight Planning phase, IPOBS calculates Thrust and flaps which provides largest allowable TO weight. o In Actual Flight, the flap combination that provides lowest thrust should be selected (On IPOBS and OPT). o OPTIMUM FLAPS will calculate the flaps which provide the highest selectable assumed temperature. o In case reduced TO thrust or ATM cannot be used (due to contamination or MEL), it calculates the flaps which provide the largest allowable takeoff weight.

Answer 67

o 1C = 3,000lbs = 100 feet

Answer 68

o Contaminated runways or MEL/CDL that affects takeoff performance

Answer 69

o Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of each rated takeoff TO/TO1/TO2 thrust (OPT automatically limits). o Assumed temperature must be higher than OAT o Actual takeoff weight must be within takeoff limit weight at assumed temp o The Runway condition must be dry/damp/wet o No applied MEL/CDL which affects takeoff performance

Answer 70

o More margin to allow for lineup alignment and rolling takeoff. o 5C =500 feet

Answer 71

o With an aft CofG, distance between CoP and CoG is less, resulting in reduced down force required from Horizontal Stab. As a result, the lift required by the main wing reduces. As a result, the following advantages: o Less lift force on main wing and H-Stab means less drag which results in better climb performance. o Less lift (AoA) on main wing, leads to reduced stall speed which leads to reduced TO speeds resulting in reduced TO distance. o Improves takeoff performance by moving forward limit of CofG aft. By moving from the most limiting position (fwd) to aft decreases takeoff speeds, especially Vr and V2 therefore improving takeoff performance.

Answer 72

o B787-8-1000C/CE/L, B787-9 -1000D/K, B787-10-1000K o Long range international flights (European and North American routes) departing Haneda, Dusseldorf,Mexico City ALT FWD2 used, to increase performance limited weight as much as possible. o Other flights ALT FWD1 is usually used. o Additionally, improved fuel flow in the cruise?

Answer 73

o Use the other available EFB o Refer to regulations on board (including those carried by the crew) o Contact the situation to the ground and seek support(maintenance, MEL?) o Can attempt restart 1. OPEN SYSTEM PAGE, 2. ACKNOWLEDGE NEWFAULTS, 3. RESTART. (takes about 4 minutes)

Answer 74

o As part of type certification, in case of emergency, a RTL at departure airport must satisfy approach and landing climb limit weight after 30mins of flying and 15mins of fuel jettison. Therefore, ZFW becomes applicable in OPT. o The selection on RTL config is the go-around flap setting. o F5 / A/I ON or OFF corresponds to performance for F5/F25 (Alternate go-around procedure only with flap 25). o F20 / A/I ON or OFF corresponds to performance for F20/F25 or F20/F30.

Answer 75

o APU or external power provides power for 2 starter motors per engine which are mechanically connected to the N2 shaft via theaccessory gearbox. Minimum external power is 2 FWD, AFT can beused to reduce load shedding and for right engine start only. Dualengine starts only available with APU power.

Answer 76

o No, the engines can only be started using the AutoStart system.

Answer 77

o AutoStart allows EEC to control fuel and ignition. Initiated by moving the start selector to start (electrical power applied to starter motors) and fuel control switch to run (fuel and ignition). o The EEC monitors EGT, N2 N3 and other engine parameters until the engine reaches idle speed. o AUTOSTART [RR] o During ground starts, the system will automatically abort the start for the following Loss of both starters No N1 rotation o During ground starts, the system attempts to correct any of the following Compressor stall Hot start Hung start Loss of one starter No EGT rise Start time exceeds the starter duty cycle timer o NOTE: if one of the above occurs, the EEC turns off fuel and ignition and motors the engine for 20-30 seconds before making a second start attempt. The second attempt uses a reduced fuel schedule with both igniters enabled.

Answer 78

o No N1 rotation o Failure of both starters (no N2)

Answer 79

o No N1 o Loss of both starters o No ignition (No EGT rise) o Hot start o Hung start o Compressor stall o Loss of one starter o Starter time exceeds start duty cycle

Answer 80

o ENG AUTOSTART (L, R) - Loss of both starters or No N1 rotation o ENG START CUTOUT (L, R) - Engine Starter stays in START when commanded to NORM o ENG STARTERS (L, R) - 1 or both Engine Starters failed

Answer 81

o ENG AUTOSTART (or ABORTED ENGINE START (UNANNUNCIATED)) § FUEL CONTROL SWITCH - CUTOFF § CHECKLIST o OTHERS - checklist, no memory items.

Answer 82

o Minimum Idle § Lower than approach idle, selected for ground operationand most phases of flight. o Approach Idle § flaps 25 or greater, or landing gear is selected down, maintained until after touchdown. Reduces engine responsetime for a go-around. o Icing Idle § engine anti-ice on o Ice Crystal Icing Idle (RR) § In flight when OAT between ISA and ISA +29C and altitude between 35,000' and 5,000'

Answer 83

o Take off thrust limit 10 minutes with engine out. (5min two engines) o Rolling takeoff requirement when CofG in shaded aft area of envelope

Answer 84

o Apply MEL (31-61-11) - Disable ECL o Use paper checklists (rectangular icon that precedes some checklist items may not be displayed)

Answer 85

o Front cover is QUICK ACTION INDEX o Back cover is EVACUATION CHECKLIST

Answer 86

o Items that require quick action or memory items o First page of QRH

Answer 87

o Paper checklist

Answer 88

o 30 Total (Including 4 checklists for [RR] and [GE]). Thus 26 Total o Engine § ABORTED ENGINE START § DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL [RR] [GE] § ENG IN-FLIGHT START [RR] [GE] § ENG SVR DAMAGE / SEPARATION § FIRE ENG ON GROUND L,R § FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE o Cockpit § ALTIMETER ERROR § CABIN TEMP COLD § CABIN TEMP HOT § ISFD USE § LOSS OF ALL DISPLAYS § WINDOW DAMAGE FWD § WINDOW DAMAGE SIDE o Other § DITCHING § EVACUATION § OVERWEIGHT LANDING § TAIL STRIKE § VOLCANIC ASH [RR] [GE] o Fuel § FUEL JETTISON § FUEL LEAK o Landing Gear & Flight controls § GEAR LEVER LOCKED DOWN § FLAPS + SLATS FAIL § JAMMED FLIGHT CONTROLS o Anti-Ice Rain § ICE CRYSTAL ICING [RR] [GE] o Fire Protection § SMOKE OR FUMES REMOVAL § SMOKE, FIRE OR FUMES

Answer 89

o 11 Total § FD DOOR AUTO UNLOCK § CABIN ALTITUDE § ABORTED ENGINE START § DUAL ENGINE FAIL/STALL § ENG AUTOSTART § ENG LIMIT EXCEED § ENG SURGE § ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEPARATION § FIRE ENG § STABILIZER § AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE

Answer 90

o 7 Total § ABORTED ENGINE START § ENG AUTOSTART § DUAL ENGINE FAIL/STALL § ENG IN-FLIGHT START § ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEP § FIRE ENG TAILPIPE § FIRE ENGINE ON GROUND (NEW)

Answer 91

o Checklist accessed by opening NON-NORMAL MENU and then selecting the RELATED SYSTEM or by selecting UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS".

Answer 92

o Each main gear wheel has a multiple disc carbon brake. The nose wheels have no brakes. The System includes § Antiskid protection § Autobrake system § Electric brake system § Parking brake § Brake Temp and Tire Pressure indications o Electric Brake System § Powered by 4 electric brake power supply units. § Independent control of L & R. § 4 Electric Brake Actuators (EBAs) are provided on each main landing gear wheel brake to control the braking force to the carbon disc (32 EBAs total). The EBAs are controlled by 4 Electronic Brake Actuator Controllers (EBAC) which control all 8 main wheel brakes, each EBAC controls a fore-aft wheel pair. o Antiskid Protection § Antiskid protection on each individual main gear wheel basis. When a skid is detected, braking force is reduced till skidding stops. § Touchdown and hydroplaning protection is provided, using inertial groundspeed. § Locked wheel protection is provided using a comparison with other wheel speeds § ANTISKID is displayed if a fault with antiskid system is detected. o Autobrake system § Provides automatic braking at preselected deceleration rates for landing and full pressure for rejected TO. § Antiskid protection is also provided during autobrake operation. o Parking Brake system § Set by fully depressing both brake pedals and pulling parking brake lever up, then releasing pedals. § No active power required to maintain clamping force. o Brake Temp Indication and Tire Pressure indications are also provided on GEAR synoptic.

Answer 93

o Airplane on the ground o groundspeed above 85 knots o both thrust levers retarded to idle

Answer 94

o TAP - Thrust Asymmetry Protection (AOM 7.20.9) § Automatic feature that provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine. § Enhances safety by: ▪ allowing a decrease in thrust for Go-arounds at lighterweights ▪ providing engine-out control capability as long as speeds are above stick shaker ▪ allowing full rated thrust to be available for all-engineoperation at all weights and airspeeds § Reduces thrust on the operating engine to ensure there issufficient rudder for directional control when airspeed decreases below approximately V2 on a takeoff or below Vref on a go-around. § Only available when the flight controls are operating in normal mode and the EEC is in normal or alternate modes. § TAP does not affect certified TO performance and does in fact improve climb performance by reducing asymmetric drag. o TAMS - Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed (AOM 15.20.14) § Displayed on the speed tape to provide pilots with situational awareness of the minimum control speed for operation with alarge thrust asymmetry. § TAMS varies with weight and CG and is approximately equal to Min control speed for current thrust supplied during TO of GA § When airspeed decreases to TAMS, the AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural sounds and the Master WARNING light illuminates.

Answer 95

o No. For airspeed where TAP does limit thrust, climb gradient is higher with TAP limiting thrust than it would be it TAP did not limit thrust. This occurs because additional thrust asymmetry creates more airplane drag than the thrust that was added.

Answer 96

o 290 Knots below FL250. o 310 knots or Mach .84 at or above FL250

Answer 97

o Normally reduce to turbulence penetration speed only. Provides best margin between high and low speed buffet. o If the airspeed is below Mach .84, fly at minimum maneuvering speed +15 knots or greater at any altitude. o Use AP as far as possible and use VS for climbing and descending in severe turbulence.

Answer 98

o Climb: 250/310/.84 o Cruise: 310/.84 o Descent: .83/290/250

Answer 99

o For B787 -8 and -9 § 80 - Domestic § 40 - International § 20 - Cargo o For B787 -10 § 80 - Domestic § 20 - International § 20 - Cargo o Max 9999, however max 120 for ANA operations § This should give max cruise speed of M0.86 o CI of 0 = MRC

Answer 100

o If descent speed calculated by FMS based on changed CI at cruise is slower than .83/290/250, change to intended speed no later than 10Nm before TOD. o If Descent speed calculated by FMS based on changed CI at cruise is faster than .83/290/250, change to intended speed no later than 50Nm before TOD

Answer 101

o alternate flap switches o alternate pitch trim switches o control wheel pitch trim switches o rudder trim selector o stabilizer cutout switches o flap lever o speedbrake lever o two control columns two control wheels o to pairs of rudder pedals

Answer 102

o In the normal mode, four Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs) receive pilot input and send these signals to three Primary Flight Computers (PFCs). The PFCs verify these signals and information from other airplane systems to compute enhanced control surface commands. These commands are then sent backto the ACEs, then to the flight control actuators. § Autopilot is only available during normal mode operation o The PFCs automatically revert to secondary mode when inertial or air data is insufficient to support normal mode, or when all slat and flap position data is unavailable. The ACEs continue to receive and process pilot control inputs, and send these signals to the three PFCs. § The PFCs use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands. These simplified commands are sent back to the ACEs, where they are sent to the control surface actuators. § All flight control surfaces remain operable. § The elevator and rudder are more sensitive at some airspeeds and yaw damping is degraded. § In the secondary mode, the following functions aren’t available ▪ Autopilot ▪ Auto speed brakes ▪ Flight Envelope protection (Overspeed, stall, bank limit at 30deg) ▪ Gust suppression ▪ Pitch compensation (minimise pitch responses to thrust and config changes) ▪ Roll/yaw asymmetry compensation (as well as TAPS) ▪ Tail strike protection o The ACEs automatically transition to the direct mode when they detect the failure of all three PFCs or lose communication with the PFCs. The direct mode can also be manually selected by moving PRIMARYFLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC. § In the direct mode, the PFCs no longer generate control surfaces commands. § Pilot inputs received by the ACEs are sent directly to the control surface actuators o In case of loss of all hydraulic power, the electrically actuated stabiliser and two spoiler pairs allow pilot control of pitch and roll using the primary pitch trim switches or alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel. o If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabiliser and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of pitch using the alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.

Answer 103

o The primary flight control system uses conventional control wheel, column and pedal inputs from the pilot to electronically command the flight control surfaces. o Provides conventional control feel and pitch responses to speed and trim changes. o The electronic components provide enhanced handling qualities and reduce pilot workload. o The secondary flight controls, high lift devices consisting of flaps and slats, are hydraulically powered with an electrically powered backup system. o Highly redundant, with three operating modes: normal,secondaryand direct.

Answer 104

Don’t need hydraulics to set stabiliser trim.

Answer 105

- Loss of all elec power - Fault in both PECS loops - Load shedding

Answer 106

- Engine Start - Wing A/I - Brakes - Pressurisation - Stabiliser

Answer 107

o FLIGHT CONTROL MODE (secondary) o PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS (direct)

Answer 108

o When directed by the non-normal checklist

Answer 109

o Hydraulic system normally o Stabilizer electrically o When all hydraulics lost, 2 spoiler pairs (4, 5 – 10, 11) are electrically operated and electrically actuated stabilizer using primary pitch trim or secondary pitch trim switches. o If there is a complete loss of signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and one spoiler pair allows control of pitch using alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.

Answer 110

o GROUND - stabilizer is directly positioned with the pitch trim switches. o AIR - trims switches do not position stabilizer directly but make inputs to PFC to change trim reference speed.

Answer 111

o Speed change rate - 10kt/sec o 5kt synchronize feature - One click of trim switch synchronizes the trim reference speed with the current speed when the trim reference speed is within 5kts of the current speed.

Answer 112

o LAM - Landing Attitude Modifier o Automatic function used to increase pitch attitude and increase nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds o Increases pitch by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces (flaperons and spoilers)

Answer 113

o 10 § 2- control wheel § 2 - glareshield § 3 - hand mic § 3 - ACP

Answer 114

o Engine Inlet and Core anti-icing o Secondary Air System - provide cooling and sealing airflow to the intermediate pressure turbine. SASV (secondary air system valve) regulates IP 8th stage and HP 3rd stage bleed air. Monitored by EEC.

Answer 115

o In the unlikely event of the loss of all hydraulic power, the electrically actuated stabilizer and two spoiler pairs allow pilot control of pitch and roll using the primary pitch trim switches, alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel. o If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of pitch using the alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.

Answer 116

o TOGA reference line (appears at 65 knots) o HUD takeoff deviations o FPV with guidance cue o Speed error tape and flight path acceleration symbol o Slip/skid indicator o Windspeed, direction and digital heading o Pitch scale chevrons and scale compression o Unusual attitude o Runway edge lines and glideslope reference line o Ground deceleration scale

Answer 117

o Area inside lines indicate the pitch region to avoid in order to resolve the traffic conflict. o A double-lined box indicates a corrective action is required – Fly-tobox.

Answer 118

o Unusual Attitude symbology is displayed. o Zenith symbol at +90 degrees, Nadar symbol at -90 degrees o Pitch scale chevrons with the tip at 20 degrees NU and ND. Pitch scale is compressed when the flight path vector symbol is parked at the limit.

Answer 119

o Loss of all displays... o VSD not selected on MFD MAP menu o Plan mode o When you are PM on the ground...

Answer 120

o The Vertical Situation Display range is a function of the ND range. o The normal display VSD has the same range as the ND except when ND range is less than 5nm. o The full display VSD has twice the range of the ND (from 10 to 2560nm). o No 5-mile indication, 10 mile minimum.

Answer 121

o Manual cross feed requires monitoring of fuel imbalance and manipulation of fuel pumps. o Cross feed can be done in any phase of flight and allows the fueltank to feed the engine on the opposite side. o Fuel Balance System transfers fuel from one main tank to another and is automatic. System uses the defuel/jettison valve to the lowertank through its inboard refuel valve. o Fuel Balance System is inhibited: § Refueling § Defueling § Ground transfer of fuel (using refueling control panel) § Prior to engine start and the APU is off § The system is failed § Center tank pump(s) is on § On the ground and one or both engines running § In flight and the fuel jettison system is active § FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW message shows

Answer 122

o Crossfeed valve is closed during normal operations, except for minimum fuel operation

Answer 123

o Fuel balance system fails or is inhibited

Answer 124

o No o Fuel Balance System is inhibited: § Refueling § Defueling § Ground transfer of fuel (using refueling control panel) § Prior to engine start and the APU is off § The system is failed § Center tank pump(s) is on § On the ground and one or both engines running § In flight and the fuel jettison system is active § FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW message shows

Answer 125

o AOR 12.2.1 (FUEL)

Answer 126

o Emergency landing at the nearest suitable airport should be considered by the PIC when: § the non-normal checklist contains the phrase "plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”. § smoke/fumes or fire started in the cabin or crew rest compartment and its elimination is unable to be confirmed. § there exists only 2 AC power sources remaining = 2 main engine generators only or 1 main engine generator and both APU generator. § Altimeter malfunction occurs and the correct altitude cannot be confirmed. § Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safetymay be possible if flight is continued.

Answer 127

o Brakes and stabilizer

Answer 128

o On ground, 75 feet from field elevation

Answer 129

o Lateral radius of 25NM from the MAP; 60 degrees on each side from the center line of the FAC. o Vertical, from the runway to 6,000 feet.

Answer 130

o APP mode should not be armed until: § the guidance to be used for the final approach is tuned and identified as needed § the airplane is on an inbound intercept heading § both lateral and vertical deviation pointers appear on the attitude display in the proper position § clearance for the approach has been received

Answer 131

o "glidepath" o "course

Answer 132

o IAN Approach: § IAN - APP arms FAC and GP, in the same general way as an ILS is flown. Uses FMC computed glidepath for vertical navigation § VNAV uses coded waypoints for navigation from the database (speed alt constraints etc.).

Answer 133

o ABOVE AND BELOW 1500': § Set the autopilot OFF and both FD OFF § TO/GA Switches o ALTERNATIVELY: § Pushing APP mode above 1500' § If both modes are only armed, another mode can be selected by pushing APP, LOC, LNAV, VNAV § If either roll mode or pitch mode has armed but not captured, the approach mode deselects by pushing an alternative pitch or roll mode (the one that has captured).

Answer 134

o NO AUTOLAND status annunciation on PFD and the HUD at 100' RA o The FAC and G/P mode in the PFD will display amber fail indications(amber bar) at 50 feet RA

Answer 135

o As part of the A/P FLARE maneuver, below 350 feet RA, the inboard spoilers are biased up incrementally.If the autopilot is subsequently disengaged, the spoiler bias is removed, and a slight forward column control force may be required to maintain trim. o Runway alignment starts at 500 feet (more than 10 deg of crab) establishing a sideslip of 5 degrees to reduce crab angle. Then at 200 feet (final alignment if crab is now less than 5 deg) by further increasing sideslip

Answer 136

o Electrical - 6 variable frequency starter generators (2 per engineand APU) o PECS - liquid cooling system. o Hydraulics - 5000psi (smaller lines), fewer items (flaps/slats, steering,gear, spoilers, thrust reversers. o Air system - uses 4 CAC's, no bleed air for air conditioning /pressurization. CAC's driven electrically. o Engine Bleed Air - only used for engine inlet and core anti-icing and SAS.

Answer 137

o Maximum take-off -8/-9/-10 - 40/33/37 o Maximum landing -8/-9/-10 - 37/40/35 o Wet grooved 25 o Wet non-grooved 20 o Tailwind 15

Answer 138

o Complete volcanic ash unannunciated checklist § consider 180 deg turn § consider descending § oxygen mask if required § if able, reduce thrust to idle to reduce possibility of damage § start APU § Only do Dual Engine checklist or Eng restart when directed to do so.

Answer 139

o Follow direction of checklist § Fuel control switches cut-off then run § deploy RAT § speed greater than 250 knots

Answer 140

o In Secondary mode, the PFC's use simplified computations togenerate flight control surface commands. o Not available in secondary mode: § autopilot § auto speedbrakes § envelope protection § gust SUPRESSION § pitch compensation § roll/yaw asymmetry compensation § tailstrike protection § Yaw Damping

Answer 141

o Flight controls are in secondary mode § Inertial or air data is insufficient or when all slat and flap position data is unavailable

Answer 142

o Alerts enabled 12 seconds after radar starts scanning. o On the ground, starts scanning for weather when WXR is selected OR the thrust of either engine is in takeoff range, regardless of weather radar selection (ON/OFF). PWS alerts enabled until 1,200' RA. o In flight (WXR pushed or not), begins scanning for windshear below 2,300' and PWS alerts enabled below 1,200' RA

Answer 143

o Predictive and Reactive o GPWS Mode 7, active below 1500' RA o REACTIVE § GPWS Mode 7 Active ▪ From rotation to 1500ft ▪ Approach from 1500ft to 10ft ▪ Missed approach until 1500ft § Caution - "WINDSHEAR" appears on PFD and HUD with MasterCaution (verify condition / maneuver as required) § Warning - "WINDSHEAR" aural 3 times with Master Warning and "WINDSHEAR" on PFD and HUD (windshear recovery) o PREDICTIVE (PWS) § By means of Weather radar to detect disturbed air ahead of aircraft. § Active: See Question 138 § Caution - ▪ Windshear detected 30deg left and right of track. ▪ "MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY" aural ▪ with EICAS message. Amber WINDSHEAR on ND and mini map. Red, yellow, black windshear area symbol on the ND's and minimap (verify condition / maneuver as required) ▪ NEW PWS caution alerts inhibited from 80kts to 400 feet. § Warning - ▪ Windshear detected ahead of aircraft up. to 3nm on ground and 1.5nm in flight. ▪ "GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD" and ▪ "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD" aural ▪ with Master Warning light. "WINDSHEAR" on PFD and HUD. Red WINDSHEAR on ND andmini map. Red, yellow and black windshear symbol on ND and mini map (windshear recovery). ▪ NEW PWS Warning alerts inhibited from 100kts to 50 feet.

Answer 144

o If the IRS's are switched off, they must complete a full realignmentcycle before the airplane can be moved. o For international flights, full alignment of IRU shall be performed. However, if the alignment time from the last full alignment to theestimated time of arrival at the destination does not exceed 18 hours, the full alignment does not need to be performed.

Answer 145

o The airplane has one main and one APU battery, both identical. The APU battery functions automatically and has no flight deck power switch. Operating indications for the main and APU batteries are provided on the electrical synoptic. o Main battery is in forward E/E and APU Battery is in aft E/E o The main battery provides power for: § airplane power-up § APU start (assist APU battery) § refueling operations § electric braking power backup § captain's flight instruments (after a power failure, energizesessential instruments until RAT deployment). 10mins of standby power. o The APU battery provides power on the ground for: § APU start § Navigation lights when Towing Power mode is active

Answer 146

o Previously Lithium-Ion batteries had a short circuit and thermal runaway o New batteries: § eliminate possibility of short circuits and overheating § improved thermal insulation between cells § improved heat resistance § elimination of the possibility of damage attributed to moisture § improve manufacturing process and quality o Battery also placed in enclosure made from stainless steel and titanium which is connected to a vent tube via a pressure burst disk. o Batteries are physically isolated from the surrounding equipmentand cabin air system.

Answer 147

o Multiple EICAS status messages may be triggered and may be related to the battery or may indicate loss of one of the power sources for aredundant system. o MAIN BATTERY: Main battery is failed. o MAIN BATTERY DISCH: Main Battery is discharging. OR Hot battery bus is not energised. o MAIN BATTERY LOW: The main battery charge (Volts) is low. (Only triggered on the ground). o APU BATTERY: APU battery is failed. (New with DCA BP2.5)

Answer 148

o MAIN BATTERY - Forward E/E o APU BATTERY - Aft E/E

Answer 149

o MAIN BATTERY - Forward E/E o APU BATTERY - Aft E/E

Answer 150

o No, unless it is the only power source. In this case, it can power the standby systems for 10mins.

Answer 151

1. Uncommanded frequency change on TCP. A phenomenon that the TCP malfunctions or shuts down when the data between TCP and other systems exceeds TCP capability. 2. TCP Inoperative: "SYSTEM NOT AVAILABLE" 3. Uncommanded Transponder Code change 4. Unexpected auto restart of ACP. Receiver Audio became all off on ACP. On Auxiliary display panel, MIC indicator changes to ----

Answer 152

§ Crosscheck active VHF frequency between two TCP's after changing frequency. § If a TCP disagree is encountered; ▪ Change all TCP's to VHF page and check frequency. ▪ Return radio frequency to desired from scratchpad or XFR button. ▪ Confirm proper tuning by communicating with station. ▪ Also monitor MIC indicator of Auxiliary Display. o 2. TCP Inoperative: "SYSTEM NOT AVAILABLE" Troubleshooting: § Turn all inoperative TCP's OFF and back on. If all3 TCP's inoperative, turn only right TCP back on. o 3. Uncommanded Transponder Code change Troubleshooting: § After ATC reports a change of transponder, enter the correct code. o 4. Unexpected auto restart of ACP. Receiver Audio became all off on ACP. On Auxiliary display panel, MIC indicator changes to ---- Troubleshooting: § Received audio on ACP becomes all off for about 5 seconds when ACP restarts. New software to retain frequencies was developed

Answer 153

o RIGHT engine start only, to reduce load shedding. Dual starting still not possible.

Answer 154

o If one cooling loop fails, § L(R) air conditioning pack § L(R) center fuel pump § C1(C2) electric hydraulic pump § R(L) hydraulic demand pump

Answer 155

o Electric Hydraulic pumps o CAC's o Ram fans o Engine and APU start o Center tank fuel pumps o Nitrogen Generation System

Answer 156

o Crosswind (Including Gust) § -8: 40 for takeoff / 37 for landing § -9: 33/40 § -10: 37/35 § Wet (G): 25. Wet (NG): 20. Flooded or RWYCC2 (15) § If Runway is less than 2500m, subtract 5kts. o VMO/MMO § 360/.90 o Fuel Temperature § Maximum 49C for takeoff, 65C inflight § Minimum -42C, or 3 degrees above fuel freeze point, whichever is warmer. ▪ Minimum for dispatch-29C

Answer 157

o Maximum engine capability 120 minutes. o Must run up to 20TPR for at least 30 seconds within the first 60min interval, then takeoff must be achieved within the second 60min interval. If the time since last ice shedding procedure exceeds 60 minutes, takeoff is not permitted. o Taxi-in time must be counted towards the first 60-minute interval ifthe engine is not manually de-iced prior to engine starting. o When OAT is at or below 3C, takeoff must be preceded by a static runup (50% N1 for 2 seconds).

Answer 158

o Return to gate, engine must be manually de-iced.

Answer 159

o Record taxi in time into Journey Log and request maintenance personnel to conduct engine inspection: § "INFO/VM 3C, taxi-in time XX minutes"

Answer 160

o In addition to normal systems: § Engine start § Pressurization § Wing A/I § Stabilizer trim § Brakes

Answer 161

o No redundancy in the event of total electrical failure. RAT does not power stabilizer trim. However, if Stabilizer has been shut down or has failed, pitch trim is still available through the elevators (hydraulic). Prim or Alt Pitch trim switches still changes trim ref speed, but the elevators then trim the aircraft without stabilizer movement

Answer 162

o After second engine start, when L&R Demand Pumps runs for 3min, as well as Centre Primary Pump (Alternating between C1 and C2) runs continuously.

Answer 163

o Cargo compartment fire extinguisher (FWD or AFT). § 6 Bottles installed (International) § In Flight: Cargo Fire Warning - immediate discharge of 2 extinguishers, after 15minutes, remaining 4 discharge at a reduced rate. However, if the aircraft lands within that 15mins, only one additional bottle discharges at a reduced rate. § Ground - 3 immediately, but bottle nr 3 at reduced rate. o APU Fire Extinguishing § 1 Bottle installed § In Flight or on Ground with both engines running, an APU Fire signal shuts down APU and discharges extinguisher bottle after 15 seconds. § On Ground with both engines off (unattended mode), immediate shutdown and bottle discharge. § APU is in attended mode with any engine starting or running.

Answer 164

o Pitch Envelope Protection (Stall & Overspeed Protection) § Stall protection limits the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed in the nose up direction. ▪ Trim reference speed is limited by inhibiting trim in the noseup direction when the airplane slows to a speed where maneuver margin is limited. ▪ This trim inhibit speed is approximately min maneuver speed. ▪ Pilot must continuously apply aft column pressure at higher than normal force to maintain airspeed below trim inhibit speed. § Overspeed Protection limits trim in the nose down direction to VMO/MMO o Autothrottle Automatic Activation § A/T can automatically activate to provide stall protection when armed and not active ▪ Speed is less than calculated FMC speed ▪ Thrust below Ref limit ▪ Above 400 ft Baro on Takeoff ▪ Above 100 ft Radio on approach § A/T engages in SPD/THR or THR REF mode and will maintain min maneuver speed or Speed window speed whichever greater. o Flight Envelope Protection § The A/P and A/T systems prevent stall and overspeed in the Flight Control Normal Mode. § Autopilot also limits bank angle to 30 degrees. o Stall Warning § Left and Right stick shakers independantly vibrate left and right control columns to warn of an impending stall

Answer 165

o Inertial Reference System is the primary source for attitude, heading and inertial reference position. IRS consists of 2 IRU's and 2 AHRU's o The IRUs provides independent inertial position, combined with GPS for hybrid position. o The AHRUs (attitude and heading)) o ADRS provides Primary, secondary and standby Air Data. Provides altitude and airspeed § Receives data from ▪ 6 Air Data Modules ▪ L,C,R Pitot static systems (6 Static Ports 3 Pitot Tubes) ▪ 2 AOA sensors ▪ 1 airframe TAT probe and engine TAT sensors

Answer 166

o Loss of all voted ADRS data to displays. GPS ALT and AOA AIRSPEED will be displayed on PFD.

Answer 167

o Loss of voted airspeed data to displays (loss of 2 or more pitot info). Only voted altitude sent to displays, AOA AIRSPEED will be displayed on PFD.

Answer 168

o NAV AIRSPEED DATA § error is detected in the airspeed data (loss of voted ADRS airspeed data), uses AOA speed § Primary flight controls enter Secondary mode § AFDS, autopilot, Autothrottles inop o AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE § airspeed or Mach indications disagree with AOA calculated airspeed § must select AIR DATA to ALTN (with checklist) § Flaps extended - 10 degrees NU, 85% N1 § Flaps up - 4 degrees NU, 70% N1

Answer 169

o Temperature variations above ISA could make buffet margin less than 1.3g. Avoid large bank angle and turbulence o CofG variations § cruise CofG is not varied, forward CofG may result in maximum altitude lower than calculated in FMS. (FMC default is 28%)

Answer 170

o VNAV SPD -> VNAV ALT (constraints/level offs) -> VNAV PATH ->VNAV PATH/VNAV SPEED (if speed intervention used)

Answer 171

o 2 HUD's operate independently from each other o HUD and PFD receive flight data from the same sources, indications match, but symbology may be different o Major difference between PFD and HUD: § 2 display modes - Full & Decluttered § Pitch scale same as outside world, however if FP Vector or Horizon reference line is out of sight, pitch scale compresses. § Chevrons are displayed at excessive pitch angles. § Unusual Attitude symbology when pitch is -20 or +35 degrees or roll exceeds 55 degrees. § Indications not on PFD: ▪ Speed Error Tape on FPV ▪ Acceleration Symbol ▪ Digital Heading below roll scale ▪ TOGA Ref Line ▪ Glideslope Ref Line ▪ Runway edge lines ▪ AOA Limit symbol, similar to PLI on PFD. ▪ Skid/Slip Indicator below FPV ▪ TCAS Fly-to Symbology ▪ Ground deceleration scale o HUD takeoff in low visibility (uses the ILS/GLS localizer)

Answer 172

o HUD § the actual flight path of the airplane derived from inertial sources and provides an indication of where the airplane isgoing. o VSD § current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed. Length of vector is 1/2 of the VSD range.

Answer 173

o overriding items o resetting checklist in the air (removes notes and deferred items) o hidden Non-normal checklists. Ie completion of memory items, which causes EICAS to blank, but a checklist remains. CHKL NON-NORMAL blanks after ECL is opened.

Answer 174

o Maintain fly first rule - PM completes checklist, while PF's primary function is aircraft control while monitoring checklist completion.

Answer 175

o The two APU VFSG's power the main 235VAC bus which in turn power the LMPS (Large Motor Power System) and EEC. The LMPS powers the engine starters and EEC monitors and controls the start. o Dual engine start permitted if temp is not above 40deg.

Answer 176

o Action directed by ground crew or obvious need. o AutoStart function fails to limit engine limits? o Obstructions / people in vicinity of engine

Answer 177

o TAP, TAMS. See Question 63. o Rudder Asymmetry Compensation § On ground, above 60kts, the flight control system attempts to maintain a near 0 yaw rate by commanding rudder to counter majority yawing moment due to an engine failure. § For recognition: ▪ All of the yawing moment not countered. ▪ Rudder Pedals move to give feedback to the pilot.

Answer 178

o VSD Corridor has 2 modes: o Track Mode: § Corridor is offset by 1 RNP from instantaneous track of airplane (HDG and TRACK mode) o Route mode: § Corridor is offset by 1 RNP from FMC Flight Plan § Automatically when in flight, any path-based mode such as LNAV, LOC/FAC. § Automatically when on the ground, active flight plan, departure selected and LNAV is armed.

Oral Exam Questions Flashcards

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