Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SCR Revision > Oral Medicine in Primary Dental Care > Flashcards

Oral Medicine in Primary Dental Care Flashcards

(86 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what is needed for diagnosis of most forms of oral mucosal disease - in particular the detection of oral cancer

A

histopathological examination of biopsy tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what should be noted from an extra-oral examination

A

mobility
facial asymmetry
appearance of skin
lips
palpate soft tissues of neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what lymph nodes do we palpate in extra oral examination

A

submental
submandibular
supraclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the technique used to palpate the salivary glands

A

bimanual technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what types of lesions can be biopsied in primary dental care

A

simple benign localised lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is involved in an incisional biopsy

A

taking an allipse of tissue from affected site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what should the size of a biopsy be for mucosal investigations

A

three times as long as it is wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is a biopsy stored after taking from patient’s mouth

A

supported on filter paper before being placed in pre-labelled specimen pot containing 10% neutral buffered formalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is neutral buffered formalin used with biopsies

A

to minimise impact of shrinking and distortion during fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a punch biopsy

A

removes cylindrical specimen of tissue between 0.4 and 0.8mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is one advantage and one disadvantage of punch biopsy

A

adv - simple and quick
disadv - potential to not obtain sufficient material when assessing epithelium for dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is labial gland biopsy

A

involves collection of at least five lobules of minor glands from the lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where should samples be taken from in a labial gland biopsy

A

an area of clinically normal ucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the requirements when transporting a biopsy

A

use of padded containers to absorb any fluid in the event of leakage
label to indicate presence of pathological specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a smear sample

A

scraping soft tissue with a firm instrument and then spreading the material onto a glass microscope slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a swab sample

A

used to investigate presence of a range of bacteria, fungi and viruses in the laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is an oral rinse sample

A

includes 10ml phosphate buffered saline that is held in the mouth for 1 minute prior to recollection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a needle aspiration sample

A

used for taking pus samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the veins of choice for venepuncture

A

the ones in the antecubital fossa (basilic, cephalic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what antibody tests should be performed when a patient presents with xerostomia and if Sjogren’s syndrome is suspected

A

Anti-La and Anti-Ro
Anti-nuclear antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what antibody tests should be performed on a patient suspected of low VitB12 or folate levels

A

intrinsic factor (pernicious anaemia)
anti-tissue transglutamase (anti-tTG for coeiac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what adjunctive tests are used for cancer detection

A

toludine blue
chemiluminescent visualisation
brush biopsy for cytopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what disorders are most commonly diagnosed through immunofluorescence

A

pemphigoid and pemphigus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is sialography

A

investigation of major salivary glands- involves radiography with infusion of radiopaque dye that is iodine based into the gland via the duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is traumatic ulceration
presents as single ulcer which the patient can ususally attribute to previous incident
26
how are traumatic ulcers treated
removal of any causaive factors prescription of antiseptic mouthwash (chlorhexidine 0.2%)
27
when is recurrent aphthous stomatitis most seen
childhood and early adulthood
28
what are the three subtypes of RAS
minor major herpetiform
29
how does minor RAS present
small ovoid or circular lesions affecting NON keratinised sites in the anterior part of oral cavity which heal without scarring
30
how does major RAS present
larger ulcers that affect posterior part of the mouth and also involve keratinised sites and may leave residual scarring once healed
31
what disease is major RAS linked to
HIV infection
32
how does herpetiform RAS present
multiple small round ulcers which are so numerous they coalesce to form larger areas of irregular ulceration with no associated scarring
33
what should be investigated if a patient presents with RAS
haematological assessment for deficiency
34
what can induce RAS in susceptible individuals
penetrating injuries or trauma associated with oral cavity
35
what food preservatives are linked to RAS
benzoic acid E211-E219
36
how is RAS treated
removal of causative factor if no causative factor - treat symptoms
37
what disease are episodes of RAS recognised as a central component of
Behcets disease
38
what is necrotising gingivitis
rapid development of painful ulceration affecting gingival margins and inter-dental papillae with marked halitosis
39
what type of bacteria is associated with NG
anaerobic - in particular the fusobacterium species
40
name three precipitating factors to NG
tobacco smoking, stress and immune deficiency
41
how is NG managed
initial - mechanical cleaning and debridement antimicrobial - metronidazole (400mg TID for three days)
42
what is required of an oral ulcer that fails to respond to initial treatment within 2-3 weeks
biopsy to exclude the presence of malignancy
43
what type of infection can cause oral ulceration
herpes simplex virus type 1
44
how does primary infection of HSV1 present
widespread oral ulceration
45
how does secondary infection of HSV1 present
reactivation of latent virus presents as localised crop of small ulcers
46
how does erythema multiforme present
rapid onset of extensive oral ulceration with blood crusted lips
47
how are symptoms treated in RAS in first line
chlorhexidine 0.2% mouthwash or spray TID benzydamine 0.15% mouthwash or spray TID
48
if no improvement has occurred after first line symptomatic treatment of RAS what should be done next
beclometasone MDI - 2 x 50 microgram puffs onto ulcers twice a day
49
what should be done if there is no response to topical antiseptics or betametasone MDI in RAS
refer to specialist and arrange haematological investigation
50
what is angular cheilitis
inflammatory changes causing erythema and soreness/ ulceration occurring at the angle of the mouth
51
what should be a differential diagnosis of angular cheilitis
recurrent herpes labialis and lichen planus
52
what haematological investigations are taken for angular cheilitis
FBC haematinics
53
what species are thought to be present in angular cheilitis
candida (galbrata) staphylococcus
54
what is chronic erythematous candidosis
associated with wearing intra-oral appliance which presents as erythema in palatal mucosa
55
what anti-fungal treatment should not be given to a patient taking warfarin or statins
miconazole
56
what is acute erythematous candidosis associated with
patients who use a steroid inhaler
57
what is geographic tongue
areas of erythema surrounded by white margins on dorsum of the tongue
58
what may patients with geographic tongue complain of
discomfort on eating spicy foods or hot foods
59
what is erythroplakia
a red patch that cannot be characterised clinically or pathologically as any other definable lesion
60
what is white sponge naevus
developmental condition clinically affecting buccal sulcus and labial mucosa with areas of white plaque like deposits - benign so doesn't require treatment
61
what is leukoedema
white patch which only affects older adults who smoke
62
what causes leukoedema
excess hydration of the surface keratin on buccal mucosa
63
how do you test for leukoedema
pull the cheek laterally and the lesions will appear
64
what are fordyce spots
ectopic sebaceous glands that can present on buccal mucosa and lips
65
what is traumatic keratosis
traumatic injury of oral mucosa due to chemical or thermal irritation that produces a white patch
65
what area of the oral mucosa is most affected in smoking habits
the palate producing a white appearance of the mucosa - smoker's keratosis
66
what is pseudomembranous candidosis
pseudomembranes of desquemated epithelial cells, fungal hyphae and fibrin in which you can remove the white membrane to discover area of erythema underneath
67
what is the most frequently seen local predisposing factor for pseudomembranous candidosis
inhaled steroids
68
what is chronic hyperplastic candidosis
occurs bilaterally in the commissure regions speckled lesions
69
what is prescribed when fungal hyphae are found in chronic hyperplastic candidosis
antifungal - fluconazole
70
what are the five subtypes of lichen planus
reticular erosive plaque like atrophic bullous
71
what is lichen planus
white patches that affect buccal mucosa, lips, tongue and attached gingivae giving symmetrical and bilateral pattern
72
what is a lichenoid reaction
white patch almost indistinguishable from lichen planus expect occurs unilaterally and is asymmetrical and often involves palate
73
what drugs are associated with lichen planus
ACE inhibitors NSAIDs beta blockers
74
what are the two forms lupus erythematous (LE) occurs as
discoid systemic
75
what will patients with SLE have high titres of
circulating anti-nuclear factor
76
where do lesions from discoid lupus erythematous present
any area of the skin ear areas exposed to sunlight oral lesions consist of white patches similar to lichen planus
77
how are oral lesions in discoid lupus erythematous treated
topical steroid
78
how should you class a white term lesion of no known cause
leukoplakia like plaque lesion
79
what investigations are done for leukoplakia
biopsy for histopathological investigation punch biopsies not acceptable
80
what is hairy leukoplakia
occurs bilaterally on lateral margins of the tongue associated with EBV managed by sucking peach stones or tongue scraping
81
how does submucous fibrosis present
irregular flat white patches with fibrous bands that can be palpated like harp strings
82
what is fibrous submucous fibrosis associated with
chewing betel
83
name four topical steroid preparations for management of lichen planus
beclomethasone MDI (0.5 micrograms per puff, 2 x puffs twice daily) clobetasol 0.05% ointment applied twice daily prednisolone soluble 5mg tablet dissolved in 10ml water as mouthwash rinse 2 mins TID betamethasone 0.5mg tablet x2 in 10ml water rinse for 2 mins TID
84
what should be considered when prescribing topical steroids to treat disease
antifungal treatment to eradicate secondary candidosis fluconazole 50mg daily for 7 days
85

SCR Revision (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions