Oral Questions Flashcards
(249 cards)
1
Q
What are the aircraft dimensions
A
EMB-145: Legacy:
Wingspan 65’9” 68’11”
Tail 22’2” 22’2”
Length 98’ 86’5”
2
Q
Which Cockpit windows are removable
A
DV Windows
3
Q
How do you know if a cockpit window is not locked
A
Yellow pin will protrude
4
Q
Which cockpit windows are heated
A
Windshield
5
Q
Where are the fuel tanks located
A
All Aircraft: Wings
Legacy 600/650: +FWD Fuselage and Aft Fuselage
Legacy 650: +Ventral Tanks
6
Q
What are two ways the pilot seat height can be adjusted
A
Electrically
Mechanically with hand crank
7
Q
Where is the emergency evacuation checklist
A
Back of the QRH
8
Q
How is the main door raised
A
Hydraulically via HYD Sys 1
9
Q
How many times can the accumulator raise the main door
A
EMB 145: 4 times
Legacys: 3 times
10
Q
What is the maximum number of people standing on the main door stairs
A
3
11
Q
Name the doors on the T/O page of the MFD
A
Main Door Emergency Exit (right side only on Legacy aircraft) Baggage Door Refueling Panel Under Cockpit Access Hatch, Fwd Electronics Compartment Rear Electronics Compartment Baggage Access Door (Legacy only)
12
Q
What color are the indications when doors are closed? open?
A
Red; Green
13
Q
When will you get the MAIN DOOR OPEN warning on the EICAS?
A
Main door open with #1 engine running
14
Q
When will you get the SERVICE DOOR OPEN warning on the EICAS
A
Svc Door open with # 2 engine running
15
Q
What does ACCESS DOOR OPEN mean
A
Either or all: under cockpit access, refueling panel access or rear electronics compartment access door is/ are open
16
Q
What surface moves when you use the pitch trim?
A
Horizontal Stabilizer
17
Q
Where are the emergency exits
A
Left and Right side of the fuselage (right side only on the Legacy aircraft)
18
Q
What does a BLOCKED indication on the FA panel mean?
A
Hydraulic line is pressurized after closing the main door
19
Q
How many degrees turn do you get with the tiller? With the rudder pedals? Total?
A
71 +5 =76
20
Q
Name the 5 major CRT/ LCD screens in the cockpit
A
2 PFDs
2 MFDs
1 EICAS
21
Q
Where are the circuit breaker panels in the cockpit?
A
Overhead and behind each pilot seat
22
Q
Why is there a vent panel on the baggage door?
A
Allows opening of the door if residual pressurization remains on the aircraft.
23
Q
How many smoke detectors are in the baggage compartment?
A
2
24
Q
Where are the cockpit flashlights located?
A
1 behind the captains head
1 by the FO right leg
25
Where is the ELT located
Captain side fwd console
26
How is the nosewheel steering disconnected for towing
disconnect the locking pin and guide pin
27
What should you do if leaving the airplane overnight in cold temps?
Drain Water Tanks, Galley Lines, Coffee maker
Remove Batteries if under -15 deg C
Put Chocks against landing gear
If ramp is ICY apply parking brake (leave brake off if not ICY to avoid brake freezing).
28
What does the STOP REFUELING light mean on the refueling panel
airplane is energized with refueling panel open.
29
How is brake wear checked?
Check the brake wear indicators between the wheels on the main landing gear
30
Where can external air conditioning be applied to the aircraft?
A/C connection fwd underside of the fuselage
31
How is the refueling panel powered?
Hot battery bus 1
32
Where is the refueling panel located?
forward right side
33
What is the max quantity of Hydraulic Fluid?
5.5 litres
34
What are the power sources for the 5 main screens?
PFD 1 and MFD 2: DC1
MFD 1 and PFD 2: DC2
RMU 1 and EICAS: ESS 1
RMU 2: ESS 2
35
What areas does DAU 1 collect Data from?
#1 engine and fwd systems
36
How many channels are in each DAU
2 channels (A and B)
37
If DAU 1(A) fails, what would you do?
Nothing, the system will go to the backup channel
38
If DAU 1(B) fails, what would you do?
Revert to DAU 2
39
What does an IC-600 do?
takes the information from the DAU(s) and turns it into the symbols we see on the screens
40
Which IC600 normally displays the EICAS
#1
41
What would and IC-600 #1 failure look like?
Red X on PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS
42
What would and IC-600 #1 failure look like?
Red X on PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS
43
How would you know if the Aural warning unit is functioning properly?
You get an "Aural Units OK" on power up.
44
How many channels are on the AWU?
2 channels (A&B)
45
What does the takeoff configuration warning check for?
- Parking Brake released
- Flaps set for Takeoff (9 or 18 deg)
- Spoilers stowed
- Pitch Trim (4-8 deg up in the green)
- Aux tank system knob not in the "off" position (Legacy only)
46
When should the SPS be tested
Prior to each leg
47
How would you know if the SPS test failed?
Test button remains illuminated
48
What does a white stripe in a button indicate?
In most cases this is not a position normal for flight
49
What does it mean if you see a red X on the screen?
IC-600 failed
50
What messages would you see if you push the SG button on the reversion panel
The ADC, ATT and MAG indications are displayed as well as the SG1 and SG2 annunciator to the left of the attitude sphere on both PFDs
51
What are the 3 colors of EICAS messages
Cyan - Advisory
Amber - Caution
Red - Warning
52
What order are messages presented on the EICAS?
By group priority (red, amber, cyan) and then by recency withing the group.
53
What order are messages presented on the EICAS?
By group priority (red, amber, cyan) and then by recency withing the group.
54
Why should you set the flight number on the Captains Clock?
This sets the FDR
55
How is forced standby mode of the radar overidden on the ground
Push the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.
56
What is Pitot Static 3 used for?
1) Standby IAS
2) Standby ALT
3) CPAM
57
What is Pitot Static 3 used for?
1) Standby IAS
2) Standby ALT
3) CPAM
58
if RMU#2 fails, how can COM2 and NAV2 be tuned?
Using the TBCH
59
What controls the electrical system
EDL
60
How many main batteries are there? Voltage and Type?
Two 24 volt NICAD batteries
61
What is the purpose, voltage and type of the backup battery?
Purpose is to operate the GCUs. 24 volt lead acid battery.
62
How many generators are there?
5
63
Where would you read generator voltage?
Electrical Page of the MFD
64
How is the APU generator different than the engine driven generator.
1) It is a starter generator
| 2) Provides 400 amps up to 30,000' and 300 amps above.
65
How is the APU generator different than the engine driven generator.
1) It is a starter generator
| 2) Provides 400 amps up to 30,000' and 300 amps above.
66
How many generators are needed to power all Buses in flight?
3 or more
67
Which buses are powered with only one Generator in flight?
All except the SHED buses.
68
Will the SHED bus over-ride knob work in flight?
No, works on the ground only
69
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
23.5 volts (uses battery 2)
70
If below min. batt voltage, how would you start the APU?
Use GPU
71
At what voltage do batteries need to be removed and recharged?
19 volts or less
72
Which battery is used for APU start
2
73
Is the electrical system primarily AC or DC?
DC
74
Is the electrical system primarily AC or DC?
DC
75
Can the GPU charge the batteries?
No
76
How will you know if the GPU is plugged into the plane but not selected?
You will see "GPU Avail" inscription
77
When is the ground service bus powered?
When GPU is plugged in and you see the GPU Avail inscription.
78
Which buses are powered with battery power only on the Ground?
In the Air?
On the Ground: All except the SHED buses and ground service BUS
In the Air: Hot and Essential Buses only (Electrical Emergency).
79
How long will batteries provide power in an electrical emergency?
40 mins (to include 3 APU start attempts)
80
How long will batteries last with no generators on the ground?
15 mins
81
What protection is available with 4 or 5 generators but not with 3?
2 separate networks
82
What does the essential power button do?
Forces the aircraft into an electrical emergency by shedding all buses except HOT and Essential.
83
What does the essential power button do?
Forces the aircraft into an electrical emergency by shedding all buses except HOT and Essential.
84
What does the backup battery button on the electrical panel do?
When pushed in (normal) - connected to the electrical system.
When pushed out - removes it from the electrical system and prevents it from charging
85
What is the purpose of the Central DC bus?
Plug in point for the APU and GPU and connects the two networks when Gens fail or engines shut down.
86
What is the purpose of the Central DC bus?
Plug in point for the APU and GPU and connects the two networks when Gens fail or engines shut down.
87
What are the 3 lights on the nose gear?
1 landing light (left)
| 2 taxi lights (right) - Clear on top and corrugated on the bottom
88
Will the nose gear lights stay illuminated when the gear is retracted?
No
89
Should both Nav Lights on a wingtip be illuminated?
No
90
What can you do if one Nav light is burned out?
Opposite set can be used by using the NAV LT switch on the maintenance panel behind the captains seat.
91
Which bus are the taxi lights on?
Shed bus.
92
When will the no smoking and fasten belts lights turn on automatically.
When pax O2 masks deploy and cabin pressure reaches 14,500 feet.
93
What powers the emergency lights?
2 dedicated batteries charged by the essential bus
94
Who can turn on the emergency lights?
Cockpit crew or flight attendant.
95
Who can turn on the emergency lights?
Cockpit crew or flight attendant.
96
What is on the accessory gear box?
```
Hydraulic Pump
Oil Pump
PMA
FPMU
ATS
Generators (2)
```
97
What does a forced mixer do?
mixes the bypass air and core gas before it exits the engine and attenuates noise (muffler)
98
Where is air bled from the engine?
9th and 14th stage
99
What is the bypass ratio of the engine?
5 to 1
100
What controls the fuel for the engine
FPMU
101
What is a CVG and what is its purpose?
Compressor Variable Geometry - optimizes efficiency and reduces the likelyhood of compressor stalls
102
How many igniters on the engine?
2
103
How many fuel nozzles are there?
16
104
If the ignition is set to auto how many igniters will turn on during start on the ground? In flight?
1 and 1
105
When would you turn the igniters to on?
Cold Start, Heavy Rain, Turbulence etc.
106
When would you turn the igniters to OFF?
Dry Motoring
107
How many fan blades are there?
24
108
How is the oil cooled?
With fuel via the FCOC
| With air via the ACOC
109
How is fuel warmed?
FCOC
110
What is the max oil quantity
12 qts
111
What is the min oil quantity for dispatch
8 qts
112
What does the PMA do?
- Powers the FADECs above 50% N2
- Powers the ignition above 10% N2
- Provides backup power for the thrust rating mode buttons
113
What sources can provide air for engine start
- APU bleed
- Engine bleed (crossbleed)
- External air cart (huffer)
114
How many FADECs per engine?
2
115
If taking off in ALT T/O-1 what will happen if the ATTCS is triggered?
provides T/O thrust
116
What does N1 target mean?
"Blue T" - max thrust for a given rating mode, achieved with thrust levers in the thrust set detent
117
What does N1 request mean?
"Green Bug" - N1 requested by a given thrust lever position.
118
Where do you read which FADEC is in control?
to the left or right of the corresponding N1 gauge
119
What do you look for to confirm a good start on the engine?
Normal acceleration of 1% per second and oil pressure at least 34 psi.
120
Why do you reset/ ALTN FADECs after engine start?
Reset: Clears short term faults
| ALTN - Alternates FADEC A and B
121
How many locks are on the Thrust Reversers?
3
Primary - Electrical/ Hydraulic
Secondary - Electrical/ Hydraulic
Tertiary - Electrical/ Electrical
122
What does the Amber REV on the EICAS mean
Reverser doors are in transit
123
What does the Green REV on the EICAS mean
Reverser doors are fully deployed
124
If single engine, how do you deploy the reverser after landing?
Inop engine thrust lever must be set to idle.
125
What conditions must be met to apply max reverse?
1) Weight on mains plus 25 kts or
| 2) Weight on all three gear
126
What will the FADEC do if a reverser is deployed in flight?
Command idle thrust to minimize the effects on the aircraft.
127
How many fuel pumps are in the wings
3
128
How will you know if a fuel pump fails?
Pressure will drop to below 6.5 psi and two other pumps will automatically turn on
129
What is the total fuel capacity
EMB 145 LR: 11,434 lbs
| Legacy 600: 18,356 lbs
130
How is the collector box kept full of fuel?
Venturi style Ejector Pump and Flap Valves
131
What is the purpose of the transfer ejector pump?
Keep the collector box full
132
If all wing pumps fail, will the engines quit
No, there is the ability to suction feed up to 25,000 ft.
133
How can fuel level be measured if the fuel quantity gauge is inoperative?
Direct Measuring Sticks (3 per tank)
134
What are the power sources of the wing fuel pumps?
A pumps - On Side Essential
B pumps - Cross Side Essential
C pumps - On Side DC
135
What happens when LOW 2 is selected on the fuel X-FEED
Engines and APU will draw fuel from the #1 (Left tank) only.
136
Can you transfer fuel from one wing tank to the other?
No
137
What are the differences between the engine driven hydraulic pump and the electric hydraulic pump?
1) Pressure - Eng pump output is 3000 psi and Elec is 2900 PSI
2) Volume - Eng pump has capability to output 10 times more volume than electric.
138
What does pressing the ENG PUMP SHUTOFF button do?
Cuts off hydraulic fluid supply to the engine driven pump.
139
When will the electric hydraulic pump turn on in AUTO mode?
When system pressure falls below 1600psi or if associated engine goes below 56.4% N2.
140
Is the priority valve on system 1 or 2
System 1
141
What is the priority valve used ?
In case of EDP failure, gives priority to the flight controls over the landing gear.
142
What is the accumulator on system 1 used for?
Stores 3000 psi for raising of the landing gear and main cabin door (3 times on legacy, 4 times on 145s)
143
What is the accumulator on system 2 used for?
Emergency parking brake (6 applications or hold for 24 hours)
144
Where are the accumulators located?
System 1 - Forward right side HYD compartment (below FO seat
| System 2 - Rear right side HYD compartment (trailing edge of wing)
145
How is the hydraulic system pressurized
Engine Driven Pumps and Electric Motor Driven Pump.
146
Where can you check the HYD system quantity
On the HYD page of the MFD
147
What powers the ailerons
HYD system 1 and 2
148
What powers the rudder
HYD system 1 and 2
149
What powers the flaps
Electrical System
150
What are the tabs on the elevator for?
Reduce pilot effort needed to overcome aerodynamic forces
151
What is the difference between the spring tab and servo tab?
Spring Tab - Inner tab used in high speed flight
| Servo Tab - Outer tab used in low speed flight
152
When will spoilers deploy
```
Low TLA (below 30 deg) or engines have failed.
Weight on wheels and 25 kts
```
153
When can you use speed brakes
Low TLA (below 50 deg)
Flaps 0-9 deg
Speed Brake Lever open
154
Which Spoiler panels open in flight?
Outboard
155
Which spoiler panels open on the ground?
All four boards
156
What is rudder hardover protection
In case of runaway rudder, HYD pressure is removed if all the following conditions are met:
- Both engines running
- Rudder deflected more than 5 deg
- At least 130 lbs of opposite force
157
What does RUDDER OVERBOOST mean?
both rudder system actuators are pressures above 135 KIAS
158
Can you reconnect flight controls in the air?
No
159
What is the procedure for releasing the Gust lock?
- Release to intermediate position for 10 secs (light goes out)
- Lift lever and pull back on flight controls, move lever full forward
- Check elevator movement (full back, full fwd, full back)
160
How many pitch trim motors are there?
2
161
If the CA and FO both hit their main trim switches, who has priority?
Capt.
162
Does the main trim or backup trim have priority?
First come first serve
163
When will the trim automatically cut out?
after 3 secs of continuous operation.
164
Why is there a speed limitation for re-trimming on takeoff?
To avoid excessive loads on the horizontal stabilizer actuator (HSA).
165
Can you trim with the autopilot engaged
No
166
Where can you read pitch trim if the indications on the cockpit are inoperative?
At the leading edge of the Horizontal Stabilizer and Vertical Stabilizer.
167
Which side is the artificial feel unit on?
FO side
168
How does roll trim work?
re-positions neutral position of the ailerons
169
How many flap motors are there?
2
170
Do flap motors work together or one at a time?
together
171
What prevents flap asymmetry?
Velocity sensors
172
What does the quick disconnect button do
interrupts the electrical signal and disconnects all trim systems and inhibits stick pusher when pressed and held. If pressed momentarily it will disconnect the AP and YD.
173
How can you disconnect an inadvertent stick pusher?
press and hold quick disconnect button
174
What does SPS/ ICE SPEEDS mean?
Speeds to activate shaker and pusher increased to account for Icing conditions
175
How do you clear the the SPS/ ICE SPEEDS message
Stall test on the ground
176
What does SPS ADVANCED mean
Speeds to activate shaker and pusher increased to account for issues with Landing Gear, Flaps etc.
177
What areas are heated with bleed air?
Wings, Horizontal Stab and Engine Lip
178
What areas are heated electrically?
- Windshields
- Probes, Sensors, Static Ports
- Water and Lav Drains
179
How does the Ice Detector Work?
change in ultrasonic vibration frequency detects ice and sends a signal to open Ice Valves for 60 seconds. Heat is applied to the detector for 7 seconds to melt the ice and the cycle repeats.
180
Can the APU bleed be used for Anti- Ice?
No
181
How do you perform an Ice Test
```
Engine Bleeds - Open
Ice Detect Override Knob - All
Thrust Levers - 83% N2
Ice Detection Test Knob - 1 then 2 (15 secs Max per side)
4 Open Inscriptions - check
```
182
What EICAS messages should be presented after an Ice Test
Ice Det 1 (or 2) Fail
Ice Condition
BLD 1 (or 2) Low Temp
Cross Bleed Open (maybe)
183
What does the Ice detection over-ride knob do?
AUTO - Turns on AI automatically only when ice is detected. Need 25 knots on the ground for wings and stab
ENG - Turns Engine AI on. Ice needs to be detected and at least 25 knots of speed is required for Wings and Stab
ALL - Turns AI on for Engine Wings and Stab (no detection needed). 25 knots still needed for Wings and Stab.
184
What conditions must be met for the wing/stab anti-ice valves to open on the ground?
speed over 25 knots
185
Can you turn the gasper fan off on the ground
No
186
Can you turn the recirc fan off on the ground
Yes
187
What cools the fwd avionics bay
- NACA ducts with water separators
- A pair of recirc fans that run as soon as the aircraft has DC power
- a pair of thermostatically controlled exhaust fans turn on when internal temp exceeds 24 deg C
188
What cools the AFT avionics bay
- Gasper Fan on the ground
| - Outflow air from pax cabin
189
When will the XBLEED open if set to auto?
- Anti Icing is on
| - Crossbleed air is needed to start in engine (eng. #2 engine needs to be started with APU or ENG 1)
190
How do you switch to manual mode for temp control?
Pull the knob out
191
How will you know if there is a bleed leak?
- Leak Inscription
| - EICAS message
192
What automatically happens when a massive leak is detected?
Associated EBV will be closed
193
How will you know if the APU bleed valve is OPEN
Open inscription and white stripe
194
When will the high stage valve (14th) open
- Anti Ice On
- Low TLA
- Crossbleed Start
195
What is the air bled off the fan used for?
Pre Cools the air from the compressor section
196
Where does the left pack send air
Cockpit
197
Where does the right pack send air
Passenger Compartment
198
When will the ram air valves open
if both pack go off line
199
Why might you turn XBLEED off?
Manually isolate bleed air in case of abnormal bleed operation.
200
How does an air conditioning pack work?
Takes air from the compressor, runs it through heat exchangers, removes moisture with a condenser and then sends relatively cooler air to the cabin.
201
If the Dump button is pressed in AUTO mode, what will the cabin altitude raise to?
The lower of 14,500' or actual pressure alt.
202
How many outflow valves are there?
2
203
Do the outflow valves work together or one at a time?
Together
204
Where are the outflow valves located
Back bulkhead of baggage compartment
205
What altitude should you set in the pressurization controller
Landing Field
206
What does the CPAM do?
Calculates the data to send CAB ALT, CAB delta P, CAB RATE and 10,000 ft alarm to EICAS.
207
At What cabin altitude will you get the Aural warning "CABIN"
9900'
208
Where should the manual knob be positioned in automatic mode
Full DN
209
How long will the aircraft maintain takeoff cabin altitude
15 mins or until it reaches theoretical cabin altitude
210
How many weight on wheels proximity switches are there?
5
211
What is the nose gear proximity switch used for?
Nose wheel steering
| Thrust reverser logic
212
How are nose gear doors held in place
Hydraulic pressure
213
How is the gear held in the up position
J hooks
214
When will you get the landing hear voice message
With the gear up and:
1) RA below 1200' (or inop) Flaps 0-9 and LOW TLA (can be cancelled)
2) RA below 1200' Flaps 22-45 and LOW TLA (cannot be cancelled)
3) Any ALT when Flaps are 45 (cannot be cancelled)
215
How are the wheels stopped after raising the gear?
Nose - Snubbers
| Mains - Automatic Braking
216
What do amber hatches on the gear indication mean
Landing Gear in transit
217
What do red hatches on the gear indication mean
Landing Gear still in transit after 20 seconds
218
How should the parking brake be applied and released?
Depress the toe brakes while applying or releasing.
219
What protections are available for main brakes
Anti Lock: +30kts -30% =0
Anti Skid: above 10 kts relieves partial pressure until slow wheel catches up
Touchdown: Weight on Mains plus 50kts or WOW plus 3 seconds.
220
Does the emergency brake have any protections?
No
221
Where is brake temperature read
on the HYD and Brakes page of the MFD
222
Can gear position be read anywhere besides the EICAS
on the RMU
223
How is the steering disengaged
Steering disconnect buttons on both yolks
224
How should you stop the APU normally?
APU stop button
225
When do you turn the APU master knob to off
Below 5%
226
What controls the APU
Own FADEC
227
When does the APU generator come on line
95% plus 7 seconds
228
How long should you wait to use the APU bleed air after start
3 mins
229
What will cause the APU to shut down automatically in Flight
Will run until it cant run anymore
230
What will cause the APU to shut down on the ground automatically
just about anything
231
Why is there a 10 second delay in shutting down the APU in case of fire
to account for the fire test.
232
How many engine fire bottles are there
2
233
How is the APU protected from fire
Fire loop system, 1 fire bottle and APU fuel shutoff valve.
234
How is the lav protected from fire
Halon bottles with tips that melt when heated.
235
What indication is there that there was a fire in the lav trash
You can check the Halon meter in the mirror.
236
How many fire bottles are in the baggage compartment
2
237
How long does the metering bottle in the baggage compartment last
EMB 145: 50 mins
| Legacy: 75 mins
238
What happens when you push the bagg extg button?
Signal sent to shut off fan
| Fires both bottles
239
What could it mean if the bagg extg button illuminates but there is no EICAS message for bagg smoke
Fan has failed or fire test button has been pushed for less than 2 seconds
240
What happens if you hold the fire test button longer than 10 seconds
APU will shut down
241
What is the green disc next to the O2 panel
Blow out disc in case of over-pressurization
242
How is the O2 mask tested
- Set BOOM/ MASK to MASK
- Select HOT MIC
- Actuate the test slide button
- Note cats eye O2 flow and listen to speaker for O2 flowing
- While Holding the test slide down, press the EMERGENCY button
- reset BOOM/ MASK to BOOM and return to normal microphone inputs.
243
What kind of O2 do the pax have
EMB 145 - Generated through a chemical reaction
| Legacy - one or two O2 cylinders filled to 1850 psi
244
How long will pax O2 last
EMB 145 - 12 mins per pax
| Legacy - Depends on number of pax
245
What is portable O2 used for
First aid treatment
246
What cabin altitude will cause the cabin O2 masks to deploy
14,500 ft
247
How can you display radar and terrain at the same time
1) Box on both WX and MAP
| 2) PRESS: WX MAP WX MAP MAP
248
What does CAS MSG on the PFD mean
there is a message miscomparison
249
How can the MFD be changed to a PFD
use the reversionary panel
