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ORG MED LEC Flashcards

(131 cards)

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1
Q

Who introduced antiseptic principles for use in surgery?

A

Joseph Lister in 1876

He used phenol (carbolic acid) as a wash for hands and a spray on incision sites.

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2
Q

What is the property of selective toxicity?

A

Certain chemicals kill one type of organism while not harming others.

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3
Q

What are germicides?

A

Anti-infective agents used locally.

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4
Q

Define antiseptics.

A

Compounds that kill (-cidal) or prevent the growth (-static) of microorganisms on living tissue.

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5
Q

List ideal properties of antiseptics.

A
  • Low toxicity for use on skin and wounds
  • Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms
  • Low surface tension for spreading into wounds
  • Retain activity in presence of body fluids
  • Non-irritating and non-allergenic
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6
Q

What is a disinfectant?

A

An agent that prevents infection transmission by destroying pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects.

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7
Q

List ideal properties of disinfectants.

A
  • Rapidly lethal action against pathogenic microorganisms and spores
  • Good penetrating properties into organic matter
  • Compatible with organic compounds
  • Not inactivated by living tissue
  • Noncorrosive and aesthetically pleasing
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8
Q

What is antisepsis?

A

Application of an agent to living tissue to prevent infection.

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9
Q

Define decontamination.

A

Destruction or marked reduction in the number of active microorganisms.

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10
Q

What is disinfection?

A

Chemical or physical treatment that destroys most vegetative microbes or viruses, but not spores, on inanimate objects.

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11
Q

What does sanitization refer to?

A

Reduction of microbial load on an inanimate surface to an acceptable level for public health.

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12
Q

Define sterilization.

A

Process intended to kill or remove all types of microorganisms, including spores.

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13
Q

What is pasteurization?

A

Process that kills nonsporulating microorganisms by hot water or steam at 65-100 °C.

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14
Q

What are alcohols and aldehydes used for?

A

As antiseptics and disinfectants.

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15
Q

How does the antibacterial potency of primary alcohols change with molecular weight?

A

Increases with molecular weight until the 8-carbon atom (octanol).

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16
Q

What happens to the antibacterial potency of alcohols with increased chain length?

A

Increased Van der Waals interactions improve penetration into microbial membranes.

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: Isopropyl alcohol is slightly more active than ______ against vegetative bacterial growth.

A

ethyl alcohol

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of alcohols?

A

Denaturation of important proteins and carbohydrates.

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19
Q

What is denatured alcohol?

A

Ethanol rendered unfit for use in intoxicating beverages by adding other substances.

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20
Q

What is rubbing alcohol typically composed of?

A

Usually contains 70% ethanol.

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21
Q

What is the acceptable bactericidal concentration of alcohol?

A

70%.

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22
Q

What is isopropyl alcohol primarily used for?

A

To disinfect skin and surgical instruments.

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23
Q

What is ethylene oxide used for?

A

To sterilize temperature-sensitive medical equipment.

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24
Q

What is the MOA of ethylene oxide?

A

Alkylation of functional groups in nucleic acids and proteins.

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25
What is formaldehyde solution (formalin) used for?
As a disinfectant and embalming fluid.
26
What is the phenol coefficient?
Ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a bacterium.
27
What is phenol also known as?
Carbolic Acid.
28
What is the MOA of phenol?
* Denature bacterial proteins at low concentrations * Lysis of bacterial cell membranes at higher concentrations.
29
What is p-Chlorophenol used for?
As an external antiseptic and anti-irritant.
30
What is the active component in Povidone-Iodine?
Polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)-Iodine.
31
What is the MOA of iodine?
Inactivates proteins by iodination and oxidation.
32
What is the MOA of chlorine-containing compounds?
Release of hypochlorous acid and oxidation of sulfhydryl groups in proteins.
33
What are cationic surfactants?
Quaternary ammonium compounds that exhibit surface-active properties.
34
What happens when cationic surfactants are in contact with soaps?
They are inactivated by soaps and other anion detergents.
35
What are quaternary ammonium compounds?
Compounds that ionize in water and exhibit surface-active properties ## Footnote They adsorb onto the surface of bacterial cells, causing lysis.
36
What inactivates quaternary ammonium compounds?
Soaps and other anion detergents
37
What reduces the effectiveness of quaternary ammonium compounds?
Tissue constituents, blood, serum, and pus
38
What is Benzalkonium Chloride used for?
As a detergent, emulsifying agent, and wetting agent
39
What is Methylbenzethonium Chloride specifically used to treat?
Diaper rash in infants caused by Bacterium ammoniagenes
40
What is the primary use of Cetylpyridinium Chloride?
As a general antiseptic
41
Which FDA-approved products contain Chlorhexidine gluconate?
Bactidol®, Chlorhex®, Hibiclens®
42
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) for cationic dyes?
Active against gram-positive bacteria and many fungi
43
What is Gentian Violet used for?
Treatment of yeast infections and as an anthelmintic for strongyloides and oxyuriasis
44
What is the main use of Methylene Blue?
Antidote for cyanide poisoning
45
What are the uses of mercury compounds?
Antiseptic, disinfectant, and preservatives
46
What is the MOA of mercurials?
Reacts with sulfhydryl (SH) groups in enzymes and proteins
47
What is Mercuric Chloride also known as?
Corrosive sublimate (HgCl2)
48
What is the preservative effect of Parabens related to?
Their molecular weight
49
Methylparaben is more effective against which type of fungi?
Molds
50
What is the role of Sodium Benzoate?
Preservative in acidic liquid preparations
51
What are the two groups of fungal infections?
* Superficial mycoses * Deep-seated mycoses
52
Name a systemic mycosis.
* Histoplasmosis * Sporotrichosis * Blastomycosis * Coccidioidomycosis * Cryptococcosis * Paracoccidioidomycosis
53
What is the MOA of Isoniazid?
Inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid
54
What is a principal adverse effect of Isoniazid?
Peripheral neuritis
55
What is the MOA of Ethambutol?
Inhibits the incorporation of mycolic acids in bacterial cell walls
56
What is Clofazimine used for?
Treatment of leprosy, including dapsone-resistant forms
57
What are the first line treatments for tuberculosis?
* Rifampin * Isoniazid * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol * Streptomycin
58
What is the MOA of Amphotericin B?
Binds to ergosterol in the cell membrane disrupting membrane function
59
What is Nystatin primarily used for?
Treatment of Candida infections
60
What is the MOA of Flucytosine?
Releases 5-FU when used
61
What is the use of Griseofulvin?
Treatment of dermatophyte infections
62
What are common superficial mycoses?
* Tinea capitis * Tinea barbae * Tinea pedis * Candida infections
63
What is the role of Propionic Acid?
Antifungal agent that is nonirritating and nontoxic
64
What is the active component in Whitfield's Ointment?
6% benzoic acid and 6% salicylic acid
65
What is Ciclopirox Olamine used for?
Treatment of cutaneous candidiasis and various tinea infections
66
What is the mechanism of action of Ciclopirox Olamine?
Blocks transport of amino acids at low concentrations; disrupts membrane integrity at high concentrations
67
What is the primary use of Natamycin?
Treatment of oral candidiasis ## Footnote Not absorbed systemically when administered orally; swish and swallow.
68
What is the source of Natamycin?
Obtained from Streptomyces natalensis.
69
What is the concentration of Natamycin supplied as?
5% ophthalmic suspension.
70
What conditions is Natamycin intended to treat?
Fungal conjunctivitis, blepharitis, and keratitis.
71
What are some examples of other antifungal antibiotics?
* Griseofulvin (Grifulvin®, Grisactin®, Gris-PEG®).
72
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Griseofulvin?
Interacts with microtubules within the fungus to disrupt the mitotic spindle and inhibit mitosis.
73
How does the absorption of Griseofulvin change?
Increased by fatty foods.
74
What is the MOA of allylamines and related compounds?
Inhibits squalene epoxidase, leading to accumulation of squalene and destabilization of the fungal cell membrane.
75
What is Naftifine used for?
Topical treatment of ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch.
76
What is the concentration of Terbinafine cream?
1% cream for topical administration.
77
What is the difference between Tolnaftate and allylamines?
Tolnaftate is not an allylamine but has a similar MOA.
78
What is the antifungal spectrum of azole antifungal agents?
Effective against most fungi causing superficial infections and yeasts causing systemic infections.
79
What is the MOA of azole antifungal agents?
Blocks demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol, disrupting membrane function.
80
What is required for the azole class of antifungal agents?
A weakly basic imidazole or 1,2,4-triazole ring.
81
What is Clotrimazole used for?
Treatment of tinea infections and candidiasis.
82
What is the shelf-life of Clotrimazole?
More than 5 years.
83
What is the concentration of Econazole cream?
1% cream for local tinea infections and cutaneous candidiasis.
84
What is the indication for Butoconazole?
Treatment of vaginal candidiasis.
85
What is the MOA of Miconazole?
Used for tinea infections and cutaneous candidiasis; can also cause thrombophlebitis.
86
What systemic infections is Ketoconazole recommended for?
* Candidiasis (oral thrush) * Coccidioidomycosis * Blastomycosis * Histoplasmosis * Chromomycosis * Paracoccidioidomycosis.
87
What are the endocrine effects of Ketoconazole?
* Gynecomastia * Decreased libido * Impotence * Menstrual irregularities.
88
What is the DOC for Cryptococcal meningitis?
Fluconazole.
89
What is the MOA of Echinocandins?
Act as non-competitive inhibitors of (1,3)-d-glucan synthase.
90
What is the primary use of Metronidazole?
Treatment of Amoebiasis, Trichominiasis, and Giardiasis.
91
What is the side effect of Iodoquinol?
Neuropathy.
92
What is the MOA of Emetine?
Inhibits protein synthesis in protozoal and mammalian cells by preventing protein elongation.
93
What is Pentamidine used for?
Treatment of pneumonia caused by P. carinii and prophylaxis for African trypanosomiasis.
94
What is the indication for Eflornithine?
Treatment of West African sleeping sickness.
95
What are Scabicides used for?
Control the mite Sarcoptes scabei.
96
What is the MOA of Pyrethrin?
Nerve poisoning.
97
What is the adverse effect of Lindane?
Neurotoxicity.
98
What is the MOA of Quinolones?
Inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase.
99
What is the first generation quinolone?
Nalidixic acid.
100
What is the DOC for bacterial gastroenteritis caused by Gram-negative bacilli?
Ciprofloxacin.
101
What is the action of Norfloxacin?
Broad-spectrum activity against Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
102
What is the common adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?
* Diarrhea * Nausea and vomiting * Headache * Dizziness * Nephrotoxicity * Phototoxicity.
103
What is Ofloxacin commonly used for?
Treatment of LRTI including bronchitis and pneumonia caused by Gram-negative bacilli ## Footnote Also effective against gonococci and chlamydia
104
What is the recommended dosage of Ofloxacin for acute gonococcal urethritis?
Single 400 mg dose + doxycycline
105
What is Lomefloxacin known for?
Only quinolone for which once daily oral dosing suffices
106
What is the primary indication for Sparfloxacin?
Higher potency against Gram-positive bacteria
107
What does Levofloxacin primarily treat?
Pneumonia
108
What is the mechanism of action for Nitrofurantoin?
Urinary antiseptic
109
What is Methenamine's role in urinary treatment?
Used as a urinary antiseptic for chronic UTI
110
What is the pH requirement for Methenamine to liberate formaldehyde?
Urine pH should be adjusted to 5.5
111
What is Phenazopyridine HCl primarily used for?
Local analgesic effect on the mucosa of the urinary tract
112
What are anthelmintics?
Drugs that rid the body of parasitic worms or helminths
113
Name the three types of helminths.
* Cestodes (tapeworm) * Trematodes (flukes) * Nematodes (roundworms)
114
What is the mechanism of action for Piperazine?
Blocks the response of the ascaris muscle to acetylcholine
115
What is Diethylcarbamazine Citrate effective against?
Various forms of filariasis, onchoceriasis, and laviasis
116
What is the mechanism of action for Pyrantel Pamoate?
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes spastic paralysis
117
What does Thiabendazole inhibit?
Helminth-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
118
What is Mebendazole's mechanism of action?
Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
119
What is the single-dose treatment for ascariasis?
Albendazole
120
What is the primary use of Niclosamide?
Potent taeniacide that causes rapid disintegration of worm segments
121
What is the drug of choice for liver fluke infection?
Bithionol
122
What is Praziquantel effective against?
Infections caused by schistosomes (blood flukes)
123
What is the mechanism of action for Ivermectin?
Blocks interneuron-motor neuron transmission in nematodes by stimulating GABA release
124
What are sulfonamides primarily used for?
Systematic treatment of bacterial infections
125
What is the mechanism of action for sulfonamides?
Compete with PABA for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
126
What are some adverse effects of sulfonamides?
* Crystalluria * Steven-Johnson Syndrome * Kernicterus
127
What is the combination used to enhance the efficacy of sulfonamides?
Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim
128
What is Sulfasalazine used for?
Treatment of intestinal infections and ulcerative colitis
129
What is Trimethoprim primarily used for?
Uncomplicated UTI as a single agent
130
What is the main use of Dapsone?
Treatment of leprosy
131
What are the two types of leprosy treated with Dapsone?
* Lepromatous Leprosy * Tuberculoid Leprosy

MICROBIO LEC (3 decks)

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