orgchem Flashcards
(299 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following compounds has an Ionic
bond?
I. H2O
II. NH4Cl
III. CH3Cl
IV. CH3Li
A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III
A
A. II
2
Q
How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule
of propene?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
A
C. 6
3
Q
In which species are all the carbon atoms
considered to be sp2 hybridized?
l. C2H2
II. C2H4
Ill. C3H8
IV. C4H10
A. IV
B. Il
C. I
D. Ill
A
B. II
4
Q
For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
I C6H5COOH
II C6H4(COOH)2
III HOOCCOOH
IV CH3COOH
A. Ill
B. I
C. IV
D. II
A
B. I
5
Q
How many different compounds have the formula
C5H12?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
A
D. 3
6
Q
In which species Is the carbon-nitrogen bond the
shortest?
I. CH3NH2
II. CH2NH
Ill. (CH3)4N+
IV. CH3CN
A. Il
B. I
C. IV
D. Il
A
C. IV
7
Q
What Is the hybridization of the carbon atom in
a carboxyl group?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. dsp3
A
C. sp2
8
Q
Which of the following hydrocarbon has the
lowest boiling point?
l. C4H10
ll. CH4
Ill. C6H6
IV. C2H6
A. IV
B. II
C. I
D. III
A
B. II
9
Q
How many different alcohols have the molecular
formula C4H10O?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
A
B. 4
10
Q
Which compound Is expected to be most
soluble in water at 25oC
I N2 (g)
II O2 (g)
Ill (C2H5)2NH (l)
IV C2H5OC2H5 (l)
A. III
B. IV
C. I
D. II
A
A. III
11
Q
the gentle oxidation of ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
produces ______
I ethanal, CH3CHO
Il ethanoic acid, CH3CO2H
Ill carbon monoxide, CO
IV carbon dioxide, CO2
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III
A
B. I
12
Q
The following compounds have very similar
molar masses. What would be the correct order
when they are arranged in order of increasing
strength of their intermolecular forces.
l. C3H8
Il. CH3OCH3
III. CH3CH2OH
A. II < I < III
B. III < I < II
C. I < II < III
D. III < II < I
A
C. I < II < III
13
Q
A reaction in which a carboxylic add reacts with
an alcohol to form an organic compound and water
Is called
A. saponification
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. hydrolysis
A
B. esterification
14
Q
Which class of compounds consist exclusively
of saturated hydrocarbons?
A. alkenes
B. aromatics
C. alkynes
D. alkanes
A
D. alkanes
15
Q
What is the position of the bromine atom relative
to the methyl group in 3-bromotoluene?
A. meta
B. para
C. ortho
D. trans
A
A. meta
16
Q
The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the for this
compound?
I C4H8O2
II C4H10O
III C5H10O2
IV C5H12O
A. IV
B. II
C. III
D. I
A
D. I
17
Q
Which combination of reactants produces an
ester?
A. aldehyde and potassium permanganate
B. acid and alcohol
C. acid and aldehyde
D. alcohol and aldehyde
A
B. acid and alcohol
18
Q
In crystallization, the solution which is obtained
after filtration is the
A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. None of the given answers
A
A. clear solution
19
Q
In crystallization, the crystal phases can be
Inter-converted by varying ______
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. size
A
A. temperature
20
Q
Which separation technique is based in the
volatility of the compounds to be separated?
A. solvent extraction
B. distillation
C. paper chromatography
D. filtration
A
B. distillation
21
Q
Fractional distillation is different from distillation
because of the presence of a _______
A. Fractionating column
B. Condenser
C. Conical flask
D. Distillation flask
A
A. Fractionating column
22
Q
The process of heating a liquid mixture to form
vapors and then cooling the vapors to get a pure
component is called
A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation
A
A. Distillation
23
Q
A common measure of efficiency in a
fractionating column is the
A. length of the condenser used in the setup
B. number of distillation types
C. number of components in the solution
D. number of theoretical plates in the column
A
D. number of theoretical plates in the column
24
Q
Five grams an organic solid was dissolved in
100 mL of distilled water. Which of the following
extraction methods can remove the largest amount
of organic solid from an aqueous solution?
A. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL
portion of ether.
B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of ether.
C. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL
portion of acetic acid.
D. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of acetic acid.
A
B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of ether.
25
Which of the following funnels should be used
to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization?
A. Buchner funnel
B. Hirsch funnel
C. Long stem funnel
D. Short stem funnel
D. Short stem funnel
26
What is the key step in a recrystallization
process?
A Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold
solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let
crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum
filtration
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let
crystals grow
27
Which of the following is the example of
crystallization process?
A. Purification of alum
B. None of the given answers
C. Separation of gases from air
D. Purification of sea water
A. Purification of alum
28
A constant boiling mixture of two in a solution is
called a/an _______
A. azeotrope
B. Ideal
C. non-ideal solution
D. eutectic mixture
A. azeotrope
29
A compound Is known to decompose at its
boiling point. Which of the following can be to purity
this substance?
A. Steam distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Liquid-liquid extraction
D. Vacuum distillation
A. Steam distillation
30
When the solid and liquid phases are in
equilibrium, the temperature of the system
A. decreases gradually
B. none of the given answers
C. Increases gradually
D. remains constant
D. remains constant
31
Which is the INCORRECT statement among the
following?
A. An impure sample of the substance has a
different melting point.
B. Two different pure substances have the same
melting points.
C. Melting point serves as the criterion of purity of a
solid substance.
D. Every pure crystalline substance has a
characteristic and unique melting point.
B. Two different pure substances have the same
melting points.
32
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at
which the vapor pressure is ______
A. lesser than internal pressure
B. equal to internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
D. greater than internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
33
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the
weighing pan of the analytical balance
B. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its
density.
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction
flask by using a metal spatula.
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the
mass of the empty vial with cap first.
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the
mass of the empty vial with cap first.
34
A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77*C
after refluxing. What Is the best method to be used?
A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath.
B. Place the reaction vessel in the freezer.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed
ice mixture.
D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone
mixture
D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone
mixture
35
Which of reactions will consume the most
oxygen?
A. complete combustion one mole of octane
B. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-
dimethylhexane
C. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-
trimethylpentane
D. All the given compounds win consume the same
amount of oxygen
D. All the given compounds win consume the same
amount of oxygen
36
Which of the following techniques can be used
to heat a reaction to 200*C?
A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel.
B. use a heating mantle with stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with
stirring.
D. Place the reaction vessel in a water bath with
stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with
stirring.
37
When proteins are broken down by enzymes,
the products are ______
A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates
A. amino acids
38
Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo SN2
mechanism?
A. 2-bromobutane
B. bromomethane
C. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
D. 1-bromobutane
B. bromomethane
39
Aldehydes and ketones generally react by
______
A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophile addition
D. electrophile substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
40
AICl3 is a catalyst used in the alkylation of
aromatic compounds. It is a
A. a Lewis acid
B. a Lowry-Bronsted acid
C. an Arrhenius acid
D. a Lewis base
A. a Lewis acid
41
An Industrial source of alcohol is _______
A. Fats
B. Coal
C. Sugar
D. Ethers
C. Sugar
42
The reaction rate is defined as the rate at
concentration of the reactants ______ time or the
rate at which the concentration of products _______
with time
A. decrease, decrease
B. Increase, Increase
C. decrease, Increase
D. Increase. decrease
C. decrease, Increase
43
Hydrogenation of an alkene yields _______
A. alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. alkane
D. alkyne
C. alkane
44
Which of following Is produced when hydrogen
is reacted with 2-butanone?
A. tertiary
B. aldehyde
C. primary alcohol
D. secondary alcohol
D. secondary alcohol
45
What of the following reactions are favored by
polar aprotic solvent?
A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
B. SN1 reactions
C. None of the given choices
D. SN2 reactions
D. SN2 reactions
46
Benzene and its derivatives undergo
substitution reactions instead of addition reactions
because
A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable
pi-bonding pattern remains intact
B. the benzene ring is sterically crowded, hence,
substitution can occur
C. the hydrogens or benzene are relatively bound
D. the benzene is electron rich
A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable
pi-bonding pattern remains intact
47
Quantitative analysis of compounds can be
done using
A. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
48
A mobile phase can be classified as
I. Solid Il. Liquid Ill. Gas
A. Il only
B. Ill
C. Il and Ill only
D. I only
C. Il and Ill only
49
The ion exchange resin with a functional group
of HSO3- exchanges ions with _____
A. Small cations and anions
B. Cations
C. Large cations and anions
D. Anions
B. Cations
50
In thin layer chromatography, the solvent or
mobile phase contained in a closed chamber is a
mixture of
A. a liquid and a gas
B. liquid
C. solids
D. gases
B. liquid
51
The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography
plate is made up of
A. Wood
B. Fibro
C. Metal
D. Glass
D. Glass
52
Affinity chromatography Is used for the analysis
and isolation of ______
A. All of the given answer
B. Insoluble starch substances
C. Enzyme tyrosinase
D. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached
antigen on cellulose column
A. All of the given answer
53
Retardation the ratio of
A. Distance moved by solvent from base line to
distance moved by the substance from base line
B. Distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
C. Distance moved by solvent from top fine to
distance moved by the substance from top line
D. Distance moved by substance from top line to
distance moved by the solvent from top line
B. Distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
54
Gas-solid chromatography is ______
chromatography as basic principle Involved.
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Ion-exchange
D. Exclusion
B. Adsorption
55
In chromatography, the relative solubility of
solute in both the phases determines the _____
A. Rate of disappearance of solute
B. Rate of movement of solvent
C. Rate of disappearance of solvent
D. Rate of movement of solute
B. Rate of movement of solvent
56
Which of the following chromatographic
methods is most suitable for the analysis of high
molecular
weight compounds that are soluble in non-polar
solvents?
A. gas- liquid
B. gel filtration
C. ion-exchange
D. gel permeation
B. gel filtration
57
What the wavelength range for UV spectrum of
light?
A. 400 nm - 700 nm
B. 10 nm to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 mm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm
B. 10 nm to 400 nm
58
The elution power of a solvent is determined by
A. Its overall polarity
B. The polarity of the stationary phase
C. All of the given answers
D. The nature of the sample components
C. All of the given answers
59
T h e c o m p o n e n t s o f t h e i n - c o l u m n
chromatography are eluted in order of
A. Increasing polarity end decreasing distribution
ratio
B. Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution
ratio
C. Increasing polarity and Increasing distribution
ratio
D. Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution
ratio
C. Increasing polarity and Increasing distribution
ratio
60
Column chromatography is based on the
principle of
A. Ion-exchange
B. Differential adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Exclusion principle
B. Differential adsorption
61
Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, In
squalene than cyclohexane. squalene is an aliphatic
type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of
the two compounds from the GC column?
A. Benzene will be eluted first
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first.
C. The order of elution cannot be determined.
D. The two peaks will overlap
A. Benzene will be eluted first
62
In thin layer chromatography, the relative
adsorption of components of the mixture is
expressed in
terms of its _______
A. Retardation factor
B. Solubility factor
C. Acceleration factor
D. Both acceleration end retardation factor
A. Retardation factor
63
Which is the correct statement from the
following?
A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than
atomic spectra
B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an
electron between molecular energy levels
C. In molecular transitions. electronic, rotational and
vibration transitions occurs
D. All of the given choices
D. All of the given choices
64
Which of the following is a NOT a characteristic
of chromophores?
A. May contain extensive conjugated double bonds
B. Contains unsaturated functional group
C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in
the UV-visible region
D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm
C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in
the UV-visible region
65
The different types of energies associated with a
molecule are
A. Electronic energy
B. Rotational energy
C. All of the given answers
D. Vibrational energy
C. All of the given answers
66
Which of the following Is an application of
molecular spectroscopy?
A. All of the given answers
B. Basis of understanding of colors
C. Structural investigation
D. Study of energetically excited reaction products
A. All of the given answers
67
formula of C7H14O exhibits an IR peak at 1715
cm-1. The compound may be a/an ____
A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol
A. ketone
68
Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents.
What Is the disadvantage of using these to dissolve
analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-visible
region?
A. They react with the analyte given the energy at
this region.
B. Their solvents prevent the analyte from
absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light at the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of
the analyte
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of
the analyte
69
Which of the following Is an application of
electronic spectroscopy?
A. Study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Control of purification
C. All of the given answers
D. Detection of impurities
C. All of the given answers
70
At which region can be found the peaks due to
N — H, C — H and O — H stretching and bending
motions?
A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1
B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
71
Hazardous wastes by defining may be all of the
following EXCEPT ______
A. Explosive
B. Toxic
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive
A. Explosive
72
Which treatment of wastes can be done in situ?
A. Air stripping
B. Chemical degradation
C. All of the given answers
D. Biodegradation
C. All of the given answers
73
Which treatment method is NOT typically used
to remove organic compounds?
A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemica
A. Thermal
74
The following are requirements for hazardous
waste storage EXCEPT
A. The floors should be impermeable liquids and
resistant to attack by chemicals.
B. Drums should be preferably stored upright or
pallets and stacked no more than four drums
C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated.
D. The facility should be properly secured and can
be easily accessed by anyone.
D. The facility should be properly secured and can
be easily accessed by anyone.
75
Waste solvents which are halogenated should
be placed in separate containers from nonhalogenated
waste solvents because ______.
A. Non-halogenated waste solvents are more toxic.
B. They are not compatible with each other.
C. They will react with each other.
D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste
solvents is higher
D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste
solvents is higher
76
All of the following about hazardous waste
containers are true, EXCEPT for the following
A. Containers must be closed except when
removing or adding waste.
B. Any type of container, Including food containers.
can be used to contain hazardous waste.
C. Contents must be compatible with the type of
waste containers.
D. Containers must be clean on the outside.
B. Any type of container, Including food containers.
can be used to contain hazardous waste.
77
Segregation of waste organic solvents is very
important because _______
A The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment.
D: All of the given answers
D: All of the given answers
78
Which method is considered an unacceptable
means of disposing waste?
A. All methods given are unacceptable
B. Pouring down the sink
C. Placing in the regular trash
D. Pouring down the drainage canal
A. All methods given are unacceptable
79
If you discover that a hazardous waste container
has a minor leak. what should you do?
A. Patch the leaking hazardous waste container.
B. Place the leaking container on to a secondary
container so that the waste will be property
collected until It is removed from the laboratory.
C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to
another empty container in good condition.
D. Immediately notify the Pollution Control Officer
so that an environmental report may be filed with
the regulatory agency.
C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to
another empty container in good condition.
80
Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid
and water?
A. Pour acid into water
B. Pour them at the same time
C. Pour water into acid
D. Let the supervisor pour them
A. Pour acid into water
81
Which of the following colors used on the 'NFPA
diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents
the health hazard?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. White
B. Blue
82
When a chemical splashes In the eye, rinse for
______
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 15 minutes
D. 15 minutes
83
How is clean, unbroken or broken glass waste
to be disposed of?
A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and
taped. For small quantities of broken glass. put into
sharps container
B. Into containers lined with black bags
C. Into containers lined with yellow bags.
D. Into containers lined with clear bags
A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and
taped. For small quantities of broken glass. put into
sharps container
84
Which of the following is an acceptable practice
when working in a chemical laboratory?
A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles
while performing the analysis
B. Wearing sandals or open-toed shoes
C. Eating and drinking inside the chemical
laboratory
D. Wearing gloves to touch door handles, elevator
buttons, etc.
A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles
while performing the analysis
85
Which of the following pair is not correct about
NFPA diamond chemical label hazard warning?
A. Blue: 0 highly toxic
B. Blue: health
C. Red: flammability
D. Red: 0 non-flammable
A. Blue: 0 highly toxic
86
Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is
mixed with air in the appropriate concentration.
When handling flammable liquids, you should
_______
A avoid nearby sources of ignition
B. use adequately ventilated work areas
C. keep containers closed except during transfer of
Contents
D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors
D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors
87
Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous
when ________
A. concentrated
B. all of the above
C. when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air md allowed to evaporate
D. heated
B. all of the above
88
What is the hybridization of C that is bonded
with N in acetonitrile, CH3C ≡ N?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. sp3d2
A. sp
89
Which of the following molecules has a linear
geometry?
A. water (H2O)
B. carbon dioxide (CO2)
C. ammonia (NH3)
D. boron trifluoride (BF3)
B. carbon dioxide (CO2)
90
Which of the following LEAST describes an
organic compound?
A. It always comes from a living source.
B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon
atoms.
C. Light molecular weight compounds are
combustible.
D. None of the above
A. It always comes from a living source.
91
The vital force theory was disproved by the
synthesis of which compound?
A. ethanol
B. cyanide
C. urea
D. ammonia
C. urea
92
What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon
in acetone?
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. sp3
B. sp2
93
Which of the following is NOT a constitutional
isomer with the others? (???)
A. cyclohexene
B. 3-methylpentene
C. 2-hexyne
D. 1-hexene
B. 3-methylpentene
94
Which of the following is a pair of
stereoisomers?
A. 2-octene and 3-octene
B. D-glucose and L-gulose
C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid
C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
95
What is the common name for ethenylbenzene?
A. styrene
B. cumene
C. xylene
D. limonene
A. styrene
96
Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic
compound?
A. neopentane
B. cycloheptane
C. 3-heptyne
D. xylene
B. cycloheptane
97
Which of the following is/are characteristics of
an aromatic compound?
I. It is cyclic and planar.
II. It is completely conjugated.
III. It is composed of even- numbered carbon
atoms.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and Ill
D. l, Il, and Ill
B. I and II
98
Which of the following is arranged in order of
increasing boiling point?
A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone <
butanol
B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane butanone < butanol
C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
D. n-pentane 2-methylbutane butanol < butanone
A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone <
butanol
99
Which of the following solvents will butyric acid
be most soluble?
A. CCl4
B. water
C. hexane
D. CH2Cl2
B. water
100
Among the Ortho, meta and para isomers of
xylene, which has the highest boiling point?
A. ortho-xylene
B. meta-xylene
C. para-xylene
D. Ortho-xylene and para-xylene
A. ortho-xylene
101
Which is the most acidic among the following
compounds?
A. CH3OH
B. C6H5OH
C. CH3COOH
D. (CH3)3COH
C. CH3COOH
102
Which functional group is directly responsible
for the flavors present in wine?
A. ester
B. ether
C. alcohol
D. anhydride
A. ester
103
Which of the following is used commonly as
refrigerants?
A. alkyl ethers
B. alkyl esters
C. alkyl alcohols
D. alkyl halides
D. alkyl halides
104
Which of the following is NOT a step in addition
polymerization?
A. initiation
B. substitution
C. propagation
D. termination
B. substitution
105
Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd-c
B. H2/Lindlar
C. Na/NH3
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
106
Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1
reactions?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any
C. tertiary
107
Which of the following compounds is NOT
produced from oxidation of alkenes?
A. ester
B. ketone
C. carboxylic acid
D carbon dioxide
A. ester
108
An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas
reagent and the observation was the immediate
appearance of turbidity.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any
C. tertiary
109
Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild
oxidizing agent. What is the product formed when 1
-butanol reacts with PCC?
A. butanal
B. 2-butanone
C. butanoic acid
D. tert-butanol
A. butanal
110
What is the product when an aldehyde reacts
with a Grignard reagent?
A. a secondary alcohol
B. an aldehyde
C. a ketone
D. an alkene
A. a secondary alcohol
111
Which of the following indicates a positive
observation for the iodoform test?
A. appearance of silver mirror
B. appearance of purple oily layer
C. appearance of yellow precipitate
D. appearance of colorless crystals
C. appearance of yellow precipitate
112
Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of
carboxylic acids that can
A. react with themselves to form ketones.
B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides
and esters.
C. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with
thionyl chloride.
D. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a
platinum catalyst.
B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides
and esters.
113
What is the funnel used in suction filtration?
A. filter funnel
B. dropping funnel
C. thistle funnel
D. Büchner funnel
D. Büchner funnel
114
This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to
release the pressure build up inside the separatory
funnel during shaking.
A- stirring
B. venting
C. drawing
D. salting out
B. venting
115
This method of distillation is suitable when the
components of a mixture to be separated are
thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high
temperatures.
A. steam distillation
B. simple distillation
C. fractional distillation
A. steam distillation
116
It is the highest concentration of a substance in
the air that will produce a fire or explosion when
source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is
present.
A. lower flammable limit
B. upper flammable limit
C. reactivity limit
D. flash limit
B. upper flammable limit
117
What is the most appropriate type of container
to be used for acid and base wastes?
A. metal drums
B. fiber drums
C. polyethylene drums
D. tightly-sealed glass container
C. polyethylene drums
118
It is the more common form of high pressure
liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the
stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase
is polar.
A. HPLC-MS
B. HPLC-NMR
C. normal-phase
D. reversed-phase
D. reversed-phase
119
In this chromatographic method, the sample
may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous
mobile phase.
A. gas chromatography
B. affinity chromatography
C. thin layer chromatography
D. high pressure liquid chromatography
A. gas chromatography
120
In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted
against the _______ of an analyte.
A. pH
B. volume
C. concentration
D. redox potential
C. concentration
121
Which of the following can be done to purify a
synthesized solid product?
A. extraction
B. distillation
C. recrystallization
D. chromatography
C. recrystallization
122
In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following
color symbolizes reactivity?
A. blue
B. red
C. yellow
D. white
C. yellow
123
According to the GHS, which of the following is
not under the pictogram "Gas Cylinder"?
A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas
D. explosive gas
124
water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization
of benzoic acid. HOW should be addition of the
solvent?
A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot
water with stirring.
B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while
stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
C. Add maximum amount Of hot water to benzoic
acid while stirring.
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid
while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid
while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves
125
Sample preparation technique used prior to
instrumental analysis of metals.
A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction
C. acid digestion
126
A simple fractional tube is packed with which of
the following?
A. wooden beads
B. plastic beads
C. metal beads
D. glass beads
D. glass beads
127
The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes
at
A. a lower temperature than its boiling point
B. a higher temperature than its boiling point
C. its boiling point
D. none of the above
A. a lower temperature than its boiling point
128
The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography
plate is made up of
A. glass
B. wood
C. fiber
D. metal
A. glass
129
Retardation factor is the ratio of
A. distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
B. distance moved by solvent from base line to
distance moved by the substance from base line
C. distance moved by substance from top line to
distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. distance moved by solvent from top line to
distance moved by the substance from top line
A. distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
130
Which of the following is FALSE regarding
galvanic cells?
A. TO set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are
different.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
131
During electroplating of silver, the silver ions are
reduced at the
A. anode
B. cathode
C. electrolyte solution
D. none of the above
B. cathode
132
A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1
M cuS04 solution and an iron rod in 2 M FeS04
solution. Identify the anode and cathode.
A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
D. anode-iron; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
133
The different types of energies associated with a
molecule are
A. Electronic energy
B. Vibrational energy
C. Rotational energy
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
134
Beer's Law states that
A. absorbance is proportional to both the path
length and concentration of the
absorbing species
B. absorbance is proportional to the log of the
concentration of the absorbing species
C. absorbance is equal to PO/P
D. none of the above
A. absorbance is proportional to both the path
length and concentration of the
absorbing species
135
Which list below gives only spin active nuclei?
A. 1H, 2H, 12C
B. 1H, 12C, 19F
C. 1H, 13C, 19F
D. 2H, 12C, 19F
C. 1H, 13C, 19F
136
Which of the following is the principle of Atomic
Absorption spectroscopy?
A. Color is measured.
B. Color is simply observed.
C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted
radiation is measured.
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in
vapor state and are excited to higher states
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in
vapor state and are excited to higher states
137
Which of the following is(are) application(s) of
ion exchange chromatography?
A. Softening Of hard water
B. Demineralization of water
C. Separation and determination of anions
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
138
Which of the following is widely used for the
separation/purification of specific biomolecules?
This relies on the highly specific binding between an
analyte and its counterpart.
A. Chiral chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Ion exclusion chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
139
Which of the following statements about mass
spectroscopy is(are) correct?
l. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
ll. The ions are separated according to their mass to
charge ratio.
Ill. The addition of compound identification mass
spectra can be utilized to determine precise
isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
A. Il only
B. land Ill
C. Il and Ill
D. I, Il, and Ill
D. I, Il, and Ill
140
IR spectroscopy is useful for determining certain
aspects of the structure of organic compounds
because
A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass.
C. Each element absorbs at a characteristic
wavelength.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in
characteristic region of IR spectrum.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in
characteristic region of IR spectrum.
141
Determine which compound will have the
following IR peaks: 3020-3100 and 1650-1670 cm-1
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. 3-hexyne
D. n-hexane
B. cyclohexene
142
The region of electromagnetic spectrum for
NMR is
A. IR
B. UV-Vis
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency
D. Radio frequency
143
What must be done to the solid samples for it to
be introduced into the column without using solid
injection syringes in gas chromatography?
A. dissolved in volatile liquids
B. introduced using sampling loops
C. introduced using rotary sample valve
D. introduced in hot-zone of the column
A. dissolved in volatile liquids
144
Which of the following is NOT an ideal
characteristic of a detector used in gas
chromatography?
A. high reliability
B. short response time
C. linear response to the solutes
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a
carrier gas
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a
carrier gas
145
Which of the following detectors is widely used
to detect environmental samples like chlorinated
pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls?
A. Flame ionization detector
B. Electron capture detector
C. Thermionic specific detector
D. Thermal conductivity detector
B. Electron capture detector
146
Which of the following is NOT true about the
guard column used in liquid chromatography?
A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
C. The size of packing varies with the type of
protection needed.
D. It allows entry of particles that cause
precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase
D. It allows entry of particles that cause
precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase
147
Which of the following columns are not used in
liquid or high performance liquid chromatography?
A. guard column
B. capillary column
C. analytical column
D. separation column
B. capillary column
148
Which compound is different among the other
compounds?
A. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
B. CH3COCH2CH3
C. C6H5OCH2CH3
D.C6H5 CH2OCH3
B. CH3COCH2CH3
149
Electrophiles are
A. electron-poor species
B. electron-rich species
C. positively charged ions
D. electrically neutral species
A. electron-poor species
150
How many σ and π bonds are present in
benzene?
A. 6 σ and 3 π
B. 3 σ and 6 π
C. 3 σ and 12 π
D.12 σ and 3 π
D.12 σ and 3 π
151
Which of the following is an aromatic
compound?
A. acetylene
B. acetone
C. styrene
D. polyethylene
C. styrene
152
In what way does the reactivity of CH3C≡CH
differ from CH3CH=CH2?
A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while
propene is not.
B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while
propene reacts readily with bromine
C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over
platinum, while propene does
D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while
propene is not.
A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while
propene is not.
153
Baeyer's reagent is used to characterize
alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer's reagent?
A. Neutral solution of HCI
B. Alcoholic solution of carbonate
C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
154
Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in
CHCl3?
A. Hexane
B. benzene
C. 1-hexene
D. cyclohexane
C. 1-hexene
155
Which of these compounds exist as cis and
trans isomers?
A. dichlorobenzene
B. 1-chloropropene
C. dichloroethyne
D. 1,2-dichloropropane
B. 1-chloropropene
156
Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?
A. elimination
B. rearrangement
C. electrophilic addition
D. free-radical substitution
D. free-radical substitution
157
Which of the following is the most activating in
electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. -NO2
B. -NHCOCH3
C. -CN
D. -NH2
D. -NH2
158
Which of the following is the rate determining
step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. generation of the electrophile
B. addition of the electrophile on benzene's bond to
form a carbocation
C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring
D. none of the above
B. addition of the electrophile on benzene's bond to
form a carbocation
159
Which of the following CANNOT be a product of
the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AICl3?
A. toluene
B. isopropyl benzene
C. o-xylene
D. p-xylene
B. isopropyl benzene
160
Alkyl halides are very reactive towards
nucleophiles because
A. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.
B. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a poor
leaving group.
C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.
D. they have an electrophilic carbon and a poor
leaving group.
C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.
161
SN2 means
A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile
C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only
the alkyl halide
D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only
the nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile
162
Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo
both SN1 and SN2 reactions?
A. CH3X
B. (CH3)2CHX
C. (CH3)3CX
D. (CH3)3CCH2X
B. (CH3)2CHX
163
Which compound has the highest boiling point?
A. CH3CH2CH3
B. CH3OCH2CH3
C. CH3COCH3
D. CH3CH2CH2OH
D. CH3CH2CH2OH
164
Which of the following reactions will NOT
produce aldehydes?
A. ozonolysis of alkenes
B. hydration of alkynes
C. oxidation of primary alcohols
D. dehydration of secondary alcohols
D. dehydration of secondary alcohols
165
Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in
which of these classes of organic
compounds?
A. alkynes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. carboxylic acids
D. carboxylic acids
166
Which reaction could occur between acetic acid
and ethanol?
A. addition
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. oxidation
B. esterification
167
Which of the following reagents can be used to
distinguish between phenol and carboxylic
acid?
A. aqueous NaCl
B. aqueous NaOH
C. aqueous FeCl3
D. Tollens reagent
D. Tollens reagent
168
Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols
and alcohols because of
A. formation of dimers
B. highly acidic hydrogen
C. intermolecular hydrogen bonding
D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base
D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base
169
Solvent extraction is more effective when the
extraction is repeated with
A. extra solvent
B. large solvent
C. small solvent
D. no solvent
C. small solvent
170
The insoluble impurities during recrystallization
are removed by
A. hot gravity filtration
B. vacuum filtration
C. cooling
D. drying
A. hot gravity filtration
171
During recrystallization, 0.85 g of crude aspirin
was dissolved in a suitable solvent and after
filtration and drying, 0.68 g of crystals were
recovered. Calculate the % recovery.
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 65%
D. 80%
D. 80%
172
The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist
in equilibrium is the
A. melting point of liquid
B. freezing point of liquid
C. freezing point of solid
D. all of the mentioned
B. freezing point of liquid
173
Which of the following is NOT separated using
distillation?
A. acetone and water
B. aniline and chloroform
C. impurities in sea water
D. milk and water
D. milk and water
174
Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, nonaqueous, flammable solvents because of the
following EXCEPT
A. Can only heat up to 100'C so no
overheating occurs in the compounds of the
sample
B. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents
C. Overheating is possible
D. Provides instant heat
C. Overheating is possible
175
The beads in a fractional column are for
A. vapors to condense
B. vapors to evaporate
C. vapors to generate
D. all of the mentioned
A. vapors to condense
176
Fractional distillation is a process of separation of
which of the following?
A. two immiscible liquids
B. one miscible and one immiscible liquid
C. two miscible liquids
D. none of the above
C. two miscible liquids
177
What is the advantage of steam distillation?
A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive
compounds
B. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds
C. Increases the decomposition of temperaturesensitive compounds
D. Increases the decomposition of inorganic
compounds
A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive
compounds
178
Which of the following is NOT true about steam
distillation?
A. very long extraction times
B. very short extraction times
C. high energy consumption
D. no need for subsequent separation steps
B. very short extraction times
179
Which of the following is the correct way to
determine the boiling point of an unknown
compound?
A. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring
the temperature of the hot plate.
B. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing
the thermometer in the liquid.
C. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
D. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the boiling liquid.
C. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
180
The principle of TLC is that
A. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to different degrees.
B. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to same degrees.
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an
adsorbent to different degrees.
D. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to same degrees.
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an
adsorbent to different degrees.
181
Which of the following statements about
visualization during TLC is TRUE?
A. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the
eyes.
B. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under
ultraviolet light.
C. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a
covered jar containing iodine crystals.
D. All Of the above.
D. All Of the above.
182
Amino acids can be detected by spraying the
stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This
can be done in
A. gas chromatography
B. paper chromatography
C. liquid chromatography
D. column chromatography
B. paper chromatography
183
Karl Fischer titration, which determines trace
amounts of water in a sample, uses which
electrochemical method?
A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Voltammetry
D. Iodometry
B. Coulometry
184
Which of the following is NOT a common
method used for purification?
A. Electrolysis
B. Sublimation
C. Crystallization
D. Chromatography
A. Electrolysis
185
Method of passing the sample through a metal
or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to
separate particles into uniform sizes.
A. sieving
B. milling
C. pulverizing
D. macerating
A. sieving
186
In the decomposition and dissolution of solids
during sample preparation, which of the following is
expensive and often the last resort?
A. fusion technique
B. simple dissolution
C. acid treatment using oxidation
D. dissolution using ultrasound and appropriate
solvent
A. fusion technique
187
Sample preparation technique used prior to
instrumental analysis of metals.
A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction
C. acid digestion
188
In handling acid wastes, what type of protective
gloves should be used?
A. cloth gloves
B. rubber gloves
C. surgical gloves
D. disposal plastic gloves
B. rubber gloves
189
The following are the minimum requirements for
hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT
A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
B. Properly secured and not easily accessed by
unauthorized persons.
C. Accessible in cases of emergency and for
purposes of inspection and monitoring.
D. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to
liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not
slippery, and constructed to retain spillages.
A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
190
It is a hazardous waste characteristic which
applies to wastes that have the potential to
contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of.
These materials are regulated as hazardous waste
due to their potential to leach out specific toxic
substances in a landfill.
A. ignitability
B. reactivity
C. toxicity
D. corrosivity
C. toxicity
191
According to Revised DAO 04-36, the
appropriate waste labels shall include?
A. Volume of Waste
B. Generator ID Number
C. HW class and Number
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
192
An institution that handles chemicals relies on
the to make the initial determination of whether a
waste is hazardous and to label the waste
accordingly?
A. Laboratory safety manager
B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources
C. Principal Investigator
D. Plant Safety Officer
B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources
193
Hazardous waste should be kept separate from
other waste because
A. costs are different.
B. different treatments.
C. others can be recycled.
D. all of the above.
D. all of the above.
194
Which of the following should be done when
handling flammable and combustible liquids?
A. Keep away from potential ignition sources.
B. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas.
C. Keep container closed except when dispensing.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
195
What should you do when a waste container
has a minor leak?
A. Patch up the container.
B. Transfer to another container.
C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
D. Put the container with leak in a bigger container
B. Transfer to another container.
196
According to NFPA, what color refers to
flammability.
A. blue
B. yellow
C. red
D. white
C. red
197
Which of the following can be disposed down
the drain?
A. 1 g/L PCl5
B. 0.1 M H2SO4
C. 200 g/L PCl5
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
198
The following are good sampling practices
EXCEPT
A. If possible, mix the material before getting the
sample.
B. Take several increments and composite them to
form the sample.
C. Sample frequently enough to allow for the
identification of process cycles.
D. Collect the sample in a container made of
material that will chemically react with the sample
D. Collect the sample in a container made of
material that will chemically react with the sample
199
Organic peroxides are dangerous when
A. heated
B. concentrated
C. you let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among others to
vaporize
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
200
Which of the following is NOT a good practice in
storing chemicals?
A. Store peroxidizable materials away from heat and
light.
B. Maintain a clearance Of at least 18 in. from the
sprinkler heads to allow proper functioning of
the sprinkler system.
C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.
D. Do not store materials on top of high cabinets
where they will be hard to see or reach.
C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.
201
When handling concentrated acids except
hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE
must be worn?
A. gloves
B. lab gown and safety boots
C. masks with respirators
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
202
When using a fume hood, all of the following
must be done EXCEPT
A. Making sure that the exhaust is operating.
B. Keeping the hood closed, except during
apparatus set-up or when working within the hood.
C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile
chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
available.
D. Removing contaminated items with odors and
hazardous materials only after decontamination
or if placed in a closed container to avoid release of
contaminants into the air.
C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile
chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
available.
203
When working with chemicals that has splash
hazards, what is the most appropriate PPE to
use?
A. Prescription glasses
B. goggles
C. face shield only
D. safety glasses
B. goggles
204
According to the GHS, which of the following is
NOT under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder"?
A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas
D. explosive gas
205
Which of the following is NOT a proper
laboratory practice?
A. Wearing of masks and gloves
B. Drying of glassware after washing
C. Adding water to strong acid
D. Tying or braiding long hairs
C. Adding water to strong acid
206
A technical document, which is GHS compliant,
that contains all the information related to the health
hazard, storage, precautionary measures,
emergency procedures, etc. when handling
chemicals.
A. Safety Data Sheet
B. Chemical Data Sheet
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet
A. Safety Data Sheet
207
Which of the following statements about
spectroscopic methods is correct?
A. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
more amount of sample than classical methods.
B. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
more amount of sample than classical methods.
C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.
D. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.
C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.
208
It has the highest temperature characteristics of
any glass. Its maximum continuous use temperature
is approximately 9000C. It has a near zero thermal
expansion and so is extremely thermal shock
resistant. It is also chemically inert to most
substances except for a few substances including
hydrofluoric acid and hot potassium hydroxide.
A. lime glass
B. lead glass
C. borosilicate
D. fused quartz
D. fused quartz
209
Which of the following demonstrates proper
drying of cuvette?
A. dry using a desiccator
B. place in an oven to dry overnight
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
D. none of the above
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
210
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of
Beer-Lambert's law?
A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and
preferably monochromatic.
B. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may
interfere in the final absorbance of solution.
C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize
and thereby affecting absorption of
solution.
D. Beer-Lambert's law does not form the
quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.
D. Beer-Lambert's law does not form the
quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.
211
A graphical representation of measuring signal
as a function of quantity of analyte.
A. calibration curve
B. absorbance chart
C. quality control chart
D. none of the above
A. calibration curve
212
Which species of the following is used to
bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
A. alpha particles
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons
C. electrons
213
Which of the following molecules will NOT show
an infrared spectrum?
A. HCl
B. H2O
c. CO2
D. CH4
c. CO2
214
In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one
wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today
spectra can be acquired faster due to the
A. light is faster today that it used to be
B. absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan
all frequencies at once
D. none of the above
C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan
all frequencies at once
215
What compound is possibly shown in an
infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650
cm-1?
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. benzene
D. acetone
B. cyclohexene
216
What is the correct increasing order of
stretching frequencies for C≡C, C=C and C-C?
A. C-C > C=C > C≡C
B. C≡C > C=C > C-C
c. C-C > C=C < C≡C
D. C≡C < C-C > C=C
B. C≡C > C=C > C-C
217
NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical
nature of the ______ and spatial positions of ____
A. Electrons, Protons
B. Neutrons, electrons
C. Nuclei, electrons
D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei
D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei
218
In the IR spectrum of compound, there is a
strong absorption at 1718 cm-I in addition to bands
at 2978 and 2940 cm-1 and bands below 1500
cm-1. The 1 H NMR spectrum shows two signals: a
quartet and a triplet with relative integrals of 2:3.
Determine the molecular formula of compound X.
A. CH3CH2CO2H
B. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
D. CH3CH2OH
C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
219
Chromatography is used to
A. Separate two or more compounds based on their
polarities.
B. Separate two or more compounds based on their
masses.
C. Separate two or more compounds based on how
strongly they interact with other compounds.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
220
Which type of chromatography is used for
structural analysis?
A. Affinity chromatography
B. Partition chromatography
C. Column chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
221
Which of the following can be separated using
column chromatography?
A. sugar derivatives
B. hydrolyzed peptides
C. inorganic complex ions
D. chlorophylls and carotenoids
D. chlorophylls and carotenoids
222
Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis
and isolation of
A. starch
B. tyrosinase
C. antibodies
D. all of the mentioned
D. all of the mentioned
223
Which of the following is useful for the
separation of low molecular weight gases?
A. Gas-solid chromatography
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Liquid-liquid chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography
A. Gas-solid chromatography
224
The analysis and separation of industrial
products like soap and synthetic detergents is done
using
A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
225
Ion exchange particles carry fixed positive or
negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has
S03-H+ groups were H+ can be exchanged for
A. cations
B. anions
C. small cations and large anions
D. small anions and large cations
A. cations
226
A graph showing the detector's response as a
function of elution time, band's shapes, position,
and resolution.
A. monitor display
B. quality control chart
C. calibration curve
D. chromatogram
D. chromatogram
227
A technique for separating mixtures into their
components in order to analyze, identify, purify,
and/or quantify the mixture or components.
A. spectroscopy
B. chromatography
C. gravimetry
D. titrimetry
B. chromatography
228
Which of the following is NOT an application of
high performance liquid chromatography?
A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood
229
Quantitative analysis can be done using
A. Gas chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Ion exchange chromatography
A. Gas chromatography
230
In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2
hybridized?
A. C2H2
B. C2H4
C. C3H8
D. C4H1O
B. C2H4
231
How many different structural isomers exist for
dichloropropane, C3H6Cl2?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
C. 4
232
How many different alcohols (not including
stereoisomers) have the molecular formula
C4H10O?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
C. 4
233
For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
A. C6H5COOH
B. C6H4(COOH)2
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH3COOH
A. C6H5COOH
234
All of the formulas below correspond to stable
compounds EXCEPT
A. CH20
B. CH30
C. CH202
D.CH40
B. CH30
235
Which of the following is(are) polar?
I. CO ll. COCl2 Ill. CH2Cl2
A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. I and Ill only
D. Il and Ill only
D. Il and Ill only
236
Identify the incorrect statement regarding
cycloalkanes.
A. They have sp3
hybridized carbons.
B.They have tetrahedral bond angles.
C. Their stability varies directly with their respective
size.
D. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes.
B.They have tetrahedral bond angles.
237
Select the incorrect statement regarding
alkenes.
A. In alkenes, the carbons are connected by bonds.
B. Alkenes have almost same physical properties as
that of the alkanes.
C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.
D. Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction.
C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.
238
Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd
B. Na/NH3
C. H2/Lindlar's catalyst
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
239
When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is
the end product?
A. formic acid
B. acetic acid
C. oxalic acid
D. glucose
A. formic acid
240
Which of the compounds below will react readily
with chlorine by addition?
I. C2H2 (ethyne) ll. C2H4 (ethene) Ill. C6H6
(benzene)
A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. Il and Ill only
D. l, Il, and Ill
B. I and Il only
241
What is the order of reactivity of the following
compounds in EAS?
l. benzene ll. toluene Ill. phenol IV. benzoic acid
A. IV< I < II < III
B. I < IV < II < III
C. III < II < I < IV
D. II < III < IV < I
A. IV< I < II < III
242
Which of the following alcohols would be most
soluble in water?
A. Propanol
B. Hexanol
C. Pentanol
D. Butanol
A. Propanol
243
Which statement(s) about substitution reactions
are correct?
l. The reaction between NaOH and I-chloropentane
predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
ll. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-
methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism.
Ill. The reaction between NaOH with Ichloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with Ibromopentane.
A. land Il
B. I and Ill
C. Il and Ill
D. I, Il and Ill
B. I and Ill
244
A low concentration of nucleophile favors
A. SN1
B. SN2
C. Both SN1 and SN2
D. Neither SN1 nor SN2
D. Neither SN1 nor SN2
245
Which of the following is NOT true for SN1
reactions?
A. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction.
B. They are favored by polar protic solvents.
C. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this
mechanism.
D. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the
rate of such reactions
A. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction.
246
What occurs during an electrophilic aromatic
substitution?
A. [1] addition [2] hydrolysis
B. [1] elimination [2] addition
C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation
D. [1] substitution [2] rearrangement
C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation
247
What are the reagents needed in bromination of
benzene via EAS?
A. Bromine in H20
B. Bromine in CH3Cl
C. Bromine in CH2Cl2
D. Bromine and FeBr3
D. Bromine and FeBr3
248
The major reason that phenol is a better
Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is
A. it is a better proton donor.
B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance.
C. the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing
group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.
D. the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating
group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.
B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance.
249
When aldehydes and ketones react via
nucleophilic addition, they are converted to
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. ethers
D. alcohols
D. alcohols
250
What is the correct order of reactivity of the
following towards nucleophilic addition?
A. methanal > ethanal > acetone
B. acetone > ethanal > methanal
C. methanal > acetone > ethanal
D. ethanal > methanal > acetone
A. methanal > ethanal > acetone
251
W h a t i s t h e I U P A C n a m e f o r
CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?
A. pentanal
B. I-pentanol
C. I-pentanone
D. pentanoic acid
A. pentanal
252
Which of these compounds contain a carboxy
group?
A. propanol
B. propanal
C. propanone
D. propanoic acid
D. propanoic acid
253
Which family of compounds is most frequently
used as flavoring agents?
A. acids
B. alkenes
C. esters
D. ethers
D. ethers
254
Calculate the percent yield when 0.5 mol of
acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces
0.25 mol of ethyl acetate.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
B. 50%
255
Which of the following compounds are basic?
A. alkenes
B. alkynes
C. amines
D. alcohols
C. amines
256
The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for
this compound?
A. C4H8O2
B. C4H10O
C. C5H10O2
D. C5H12O
A. C4H8O2
257
The most notable difference between a
saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the
same number of carbon atoms is that the saturated
fat
A. melts at a higher temperature.
B. melts at a lower temperature.
C. releases much more energy when metabolized.
D. releases much less energy when metabolized.
A. melts at a higher temperature.
258
When proteins are broken down, they are
converted to
A. fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. nucleic acids
D. sulfonic acids
B. amino acids
259
Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood
because
A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules.
B. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher
temperature of the body.
C. pressure is increased inside the body.
D. pressure inside the body is different outside of it.
A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules.
260
A technique for separating mixtures into their
components in order to analyze, identify, purify,
and/or quantify the mixture or components
a. spectroscopy
b. chromatography
c. gravimetry
d. titrimetry
b. chromatography
261
Which of the following is NOT an application of
high-performance liquid chromatography?
a. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
b. Analysis of proteins, drugs, and explosives
c. Separation of lipids, fatty acids, and steroids
d. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood
d. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood
262
Quantitative analysis can be done using
a. Gas chromatography
b. Liquid chromatography
c. Thin layer chromatography
d. Ion exchange chromatography
a. Gas chromatography
263
Which of the following statements about
spectroscopic methods is correct?
a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
more amount of sample than classical methods
b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
more amount of sample than classical methods
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods
d. Spectroscopic methods require more time
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods
264
Which of the following demonstrates proper
drying of cuvette?
a. Dry using a desiccator
b. Place in an oven to dry overnight
c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
d. None of the above
c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
265
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of
Beer-Lambert’s law?
a. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and
preferably monochromatic
b. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may
interfere in the final absorbance of solution
c. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize
and thereby affecting absorption of solution
d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative
basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.
d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative
basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.
266
What compound is possibly shown in an
infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650
cm-1?
a. Cyclohexane
b. Cyclohexene
c. Benzene
d. Acetone
b. Cyclohexene
267
In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one
wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today
spectra can be acquired faster due to the
a. Light is faster today that is used to be
b. Absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all
frequencies at once
d. None of the above
c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all
frequencies at once
268
Which of the following molecules will NOT show
an infrared spectrum?
a. HCl
b. H2O
c. CO2
d. CH4
c. CO2
269
Which species of the following is used to
bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
a. Alpha particles
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Protons
c. Electrons
270
A graphical representation of measuring signal
as a function of quantity of analyte.
a. Calibration curve
b. Absorbance chart
c. Quality control chart
d. None of the above
a. Calibration curve
271
NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical
nature of the __ and spatial positions of __
a. Electrons, protons
b. Neutrons, electrons
c. Nuclei, electrons
d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei
d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei
272
In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2
hybridized?
a. C2H2
b. C2H4
c. C3H8
d. C4H10
b. C2H4
273
What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in
carboxyl group?
a. sp
b. sp3
c. sp2
d. dsp5
c. sp2
274
In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond
the shortest?
I. CH3NH2 II. CH2NH III. (CH3)4N^+ IV. CH3CN
a. II
b. I
c. IV
d. III
c. IV
275
How many different compounds have the
formula C5H12?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
c. 4
276
How many different alcohols (not including
stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
c. 4
277
For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
a. C6H5COOH
b. C6H4(COOH)2
c. HOOCCOOH
d. CH3COOH
a. C6H5COOH
278
Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
a. H2/Pd
b. Na/NH3
c. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH
d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH
279
When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is
the end product?
a. Formic acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Oxalic acid
d. Glucose
a. Formic acid
280
Which of the compounds below will react readily
with chlorine by addition?
I. C2H2 (ethyne)
II. C2H4 (ethene)
III. C6H6 (benzene)
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III
b. I and II only
281
What is the order of reactivity of the following
compounds in EAS?
I. Benzene
II. Toluene
III. Phenol
IV. Benzoic acid
a. IV < I < II < III
b. I < IV < II < III
c. III < II < I < IV
d. II < III < IV < I
a. IV < I < II < III
282
What are the reagents needed in bromination of
benzene via EAS?
a. Bromine in H2O
b. Bromine in CH3Cl
c. Bromine in CH2Cl2
d. Bromine and FeBr3
d. Bromine and FeBr3
283
Which of the following is NOT true for SN1
reactions?
a. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction
b. They are favored by polar protic solvents
c. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through
this mechanism
d. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect
the rate of such reactions
a. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction
284
A low concentration of nucleophile favors
a. SN1
b. SN2
c. Both SN1 and SN2
d. Neither SN1 nor SN2
d. Neither SN1 nor SN2
285
Which statement(s) about substitution reactions
are correct?
I . T h e re a c t i o n b e t w e e n N a O H a n d 1 -
chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism
II. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro- 2-
methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism
III. The reaction between NaOH with 1-
chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with 1-
bromopentane
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
b. I and III
286
Which of the following alcohols would be most
soluble in water?
a. Propanol
b. Hexanol
c. Pentanol
d. Butanol
a. Propanol
287
The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which
of the following product?
I. Ethanal
II. Ethanoic acid
III. Carbon monoxide
IV. Carbon dioxide
a. IV
b. I
c. II
d. III
b. I
288
The major reason that phenol is better Bronsted
acid than cyclohexanol is
a. It is a better proton donor
b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance
c. The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing
group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction
d. The cyclohexyl group is an electron donating
group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction
b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance
289
W h a t i s t h e I U P A C n a m e f o r
CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
a. Pentanal
b. 1-pentanol
c. 1-pentanone
d. Pentanoic acid
a. Pentanal
290
Which of the following is produced when
hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone?
a. Tertiary
b. Aldehyde
c. Primary alcohol
d. Secondary alcohol
d. Secondary alcohol
291
Which of these compounds contain a carboxy
group?
a. Propanol
b. Propanal
c. Propanone
d. Propanoic acid
d. Propanoic acid
292
The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is theformula for
this compound?
a. C4H8O2
b. C4H10O
c. C5H10O2
d. C5H12O
a. C4H8O2
293
Which family of compounds is most frequently
used as flavoring agents?
a. Acids
b. Alkenes
c. Esters
d. Ethers
c. Esters
294
Calculate the percent yield when 0.5mol of
acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces
0.25 mol of ethyl acetate
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
b. 50%
295
Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood
because
a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules
b. The solubility of oxygen is increased by the
higher temperature of the body
c. Pressure is increased inside the body
d. Pressure inside the body id different outside it
a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules
296
When proteins are broken down, they are
converted to
a. Fatty acids
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Sulfonic acids
b. Amino acids
297
The most notable difference between a
saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the
same number of carbon atoms is that the saturated
fat
a. Melts at a higher temperature
b. Melts at a lower temperature
c. Releases much more energy when metabolized
d. Releases much less energy when metabolized
a. Melts at a higher temperature
298
Which of the following compounds are basic?
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Amines
d. Alcohols
c. Amines
299
