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ORL FINALS > ORL HOPE Finals (2016) > Flashcards

ORL HOPE Finals (2016) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Angiosarcoma

A

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common tumor found on sun exposed areas in older people such as the head and the neck (Robbins, et al., 1999). [LU4 SIM E­33]

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2
Q

What specific branch of the facial nerve does the Schirmer’s test evaluate?

A. Lacrimal nerve
B. Chorda tympani
C. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
D. Auricular nerve

A

C. Greater superficial petrosal nerve

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3
Q

Which specific branch of the facial nerve does the taste test evaluate?

A. Lacrimal nerve
B. Chorda tympani
C. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
D. Auricular nerve

A

B. Chorda tympani

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4
Q

Where does the facial nerve exit as it becomes extracranial?

A. Mastoid tip
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Mental foramen
D. Internal auditory canal

A

B. Stylomastoid foramen

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5
Q

Which nerve is impaired if one has decreased cutaneous sensation over the tip of the nose?

A. Anterior ethmoidal nerve
B. Superior labial nerve
C. Nasociliary nerve
D. Second branch of the trigeminal nerve

A

C. Nasociliary nerve

LUIII SILM

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6
Q

Which muscle conveys displeasure as it pulls down the corners of the mouth?

A. Mentalis
B. Platysma
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Risorius

A

B. Platysma

LUIII SILM

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7
Q

An abnormal form or position of the body caused by nondisruptive mechanical forces is called

A. Disruption
B. Malformation
C. Deformation
D. Abomination

A

C. Deformation

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-5)

Deformation: An abnormal form or position of the body caused by nondisruptive mechanical forces.

Malformation: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger area of the body resulting from an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

Disruption: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body resulting from a breakdown of, or interference with, an originally normal developmental process.

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8
Q

A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body resulting from a breakdown or interference with, an originally normal developmental process is called

A. Disruption
B. Malformation
C. Deformation
D. Abomination

A

A. Disruption

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-5)

Disruption: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body resulting from a breakdown of, or interference with, an originally normal developmental process.

Malformation: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger area of the body resulting from an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

Deformation: An abnormal form or position of the body caused by nondisruptive mechanical forces.

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9
Q

A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body resulting from an intrinsically abnormal developmental process is called

A. Disruption
B. Malformation
C. Deformation
D. Abomination

A

B. Malformation

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-5)

Disruption: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body resulting from a breakdown of, or interference with, an originally normal developmental process.

Malformation: A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger area of the body resulting from an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.

Deformation: An abnormal form or position of the body caused by nondisruptive mechanical forces.

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10
Q

Vascular endothelium and muscle are of which embryonic origin?

A. Ectodermal
B. Mesodermal
C. Endodermal
D. Tegadermal

A

B. Mesodermal

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-5)

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11
Q

A cleft palate may result when there is

A. Excessive growth of palatal shelves
B. Full contact between palatal shelves
C. Failure of palatal shelves to attain a horizontal position
D. Failure of palatal shelves to attain a vertical position

A

C. Failure of palatal shelves to attain a horizontal position

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-5,6)

Cleft Palate is a partial or total lack of fusion of palatal shelves. It can occur in a number of ways:

  1. Defective growth of palatal shelves
  2. Failure of the shelves to attain a horizontal position
  3. Lack of contact between shelves
  4. Rupture after fusion of shelves
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12
Q

Which vitamin when given before and during pregnancy has been found to reduce the risk of cleft lip and palate from developing in the baby?

A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Glucosamine
D. Zinc

A

A. Folic acid

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-7)

Shaw in 1995 reported periconceptional use of multivitamins containing 0.4 mg or more of folic acid reduced the occurrence of cleft lip and palate by 27-50%.

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13
Q

Which classification system is used to categorize cleft lip and palate defects?

A. TNM staging classification system
B. Thallwitz classification
C. Breslow’s classification
D. Lahshal’s classification

A

B. Thallwitz classification

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-8)

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14
Q

Between 0-6 months of age, which is not part of management of a cleft palate baby?

A. Application of a palatal obturator for feeding
B. Parent counseling especially on speech
C. Insertion of a ventilation tube
D. Immunizations

A

C. Insertion of a ventilation tube

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-11)

At 0-6 months:

  1. Initial evaluation/documentation
  2. Fabrication of intra-oral appliance with monthly modification – feeding instruction (A)
  3. Otologic Evaluation/Examination
  4. Vocal play and initial parent counseling on speech (B)
  5. General Pediatric evaluation and immunizations (D)
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15
Q

After all procedures have been done, at what age is orthognathic surgery recommended for cleft palate patients?

A. 1­-5 years old
B. 5­-10 years old
C. 10-­15 years old
D. Above 16 years old

A

D. Above 16 years old

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-11)

Orthognatic surgery at 16-18
Aesthetic surgery at 19

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16
Q

What do you call an abnormal condition that is caused by multiple factors?

A. Congenital disorder
B. Sequence
C. Syndrome
D. Abomination

A

C. Syndrome

Sequence > Single
Syndrome > Multiple

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-13)

Syndrome: condition that is recognised by multiple factors that are present and related to the same genetic condition. It is a group of anomalies which contain multiple malformations and/or sequences.

Sequence: pattern of morphology (or problems) that are seen to have come from a single factor.

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17
Q

What do you call an abnormal condition that is caused by a single factor?

A. Congenital disorder
B. Sequence
C. Syndrome
D. Abomination

A

B. Sequence

Sequence > Single
Syndrome > Multiple

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-13)
Sequence: pattern of morphology (or problems) that are seen to have come from a single factor. It occurs when a single developmental defect results in a chain of secondary defects, which may, in turn, lead to tertiary defects. The result is a variably expressed group of defects, all of which can be traced back to the original event.

Syndrome: condition that is recognised by multiple factors that are present and related to the same genetic condition.

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18
Q

What rare congenital disorder is characterized by abducens and facial nerve palsy, oftentimes accompanied by mental retardation, limb malformation, and “Poland” anomaly?

A. Oro­facial­digital syndrome
B. Mobius sequence
C. Pierre robin sequence
D. Sticker syndrome

A

B. Mobius sequence

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-12)

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19
Q

What is not part of the Pierre Robin Sequence triad?

A. Mandibular micro­retrognathia
B. Glossoptosis with macroglossia
C. Microtia
D. Cleft palate

A

C. Microtia

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-12)

Triad of:

  1. Mandibular micro-retrognathia
  2. Glossoptosis with macroglossia
  3. Cleft of the secondary palate
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20
Q

What cell groups and material predominate during the inflammatory stage of wound healing?

A. Collagen
B. Platelets
C. Fibroblasts
D. Lymphocytes

A

D. Lymphocytes

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-23, 24)

Wound healing:

1) constriction of blood vessels to control bleed,
2) WBC clean the wounds of debris and bacteria (inflammatory stage)
3) fibroblast make collagen fill the wound (proliferative stage)
4) new blood vessels form (proliferative stage)
5) new collagen forms (maturation and remodelling stage)

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21
Q

What cell groups and material predominate during the proliferative stage of wound healing?

A. Collagen
B. Platelets
C. Fibroblasts
D. Lymphocytes

A

C. Fibroblasts

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-23, 24)

Wound healing:

1) constriction of blood vessels to control bleed,
2) WBC clean the wounds of debris and bacteria (inflammatory stage)
3) fibroblast make collagen fill the wound (proliferative stage)
4) new blood vessels form (proliferative stage)
5) new collagen forms (maturation and remodelling stage)

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22
Q

What event occurs during the remodeling phase of bone healing?

A. Formation of cartilage
B. Expression of nitric oxide
C. Repopulation of the medullary canal
D. Predominance of macrophages and mast cells

A

C. Repopulation of the medullary canal

(A), (B) - Reparative Phase
(D) - Inflammatory Phase

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23
Q

What is the House­-Brackman grade of a patient with complete loss of facial nerve movement and tone?

A. Grade 4
B. Grade 5
C. Grade 6
D. Grade 7

A

C. Grade 6

LU IV SILM (Losing Face, E-40, 41)

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24
Q

How is sound defined?

A. It is a measure of loudness.
B. It is a change in intensity within a confined space.
C. It is a change in pressure within an elastic medium.
D. It refers to the number of cycles of a vibrating body per unit of time.

A

C. It is a change in pressure within an elastic medium.

LU III SILM (H-1)

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25
Q

What is the average human threshold for sound to be “painful”?

A. 80 decibels
B. 120 decibels
C. 160 decibels
D. 200 decibels

A

B. 120 decibels

LU III SILM (H-2)

The “threshold of pain” is most often defined as 120­130 dB

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26
Q

The highest frequency perceived by human hearing is at:

A. 10,000 Hz
B. 20,000 Hz
C. 50,000 Hz
D. 100,000 Hz

A

B. 20,000 Hz

LU III SILM (H-5)

Humans: 20­-20,000 Hz range

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27
Q

What test compares a patient’s air and bone conduction hearing?

A. Weber
B. Rinne
C. Schwabach
D. Tympanometry

A

B. Rinne

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28
Q

What forms the roof of the middle ear space?

A. Tegmen tympani
B. Pyramidal prominence
C. Eustachian tube
D. Scutum

A

A. Tegmen tympani

LU III SILM (H-10)

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29
Q

Which muscle control the opening of the Eustachian Tube?

A. Palatopharyngeus
B. Tensor veli palatini
C. Nasopharyngeus
D. Stapedius

A

B. Tensor veli palatini

LU III SILM (H-11)

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30
Q

The semi­circular canals are oriented at ___ degrees to each other?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 90
D. 180

A

C. 90

LU III SILM (B-2)

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31
Q

What audiometric test is employed as part of the newborn hearing screening?

A. ABR (auditory brainstem response)
B. Tympanometry
C. Pneumatic Otoscopy
D. OAE (Otoacoustic emissions)

A

D. OAE (Otoacoustic emissions)

LU IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-28)

“Given the thigh incidence of deafness among infants, most first world countries have included hearing screening in their new born screening programs. The OAE test is the preferred examination.”

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32
Q

What is true of the anatomy of the external auditory canal?

A. Its outer two thirds is cartilaginous
B. It contains sweat glands and ceruminous glands
C. Its inner one third is bony
D. It contains sebaceous glands

A

D. It contains sebaceous glands

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­19)

B:
EAC has SEBACEOUS and cerimunous glands, not sweat glands.

A & C:
Remember: (1221, cbcb)
From most lateral to medial:
> Outer 1⁄3 of the EAC is cartilaginous, inner 2⁄3 is bony.
> Anteromedial 2⁄3 of eustachian tube is cartilaginous, and the posterolateral is 1⁄3 bony.

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33
Q

What is the most common organism involved in diffuse otitis externa?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Pseudomonas group
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

C. Pseudomonas group

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­19)

“Staphylococcus aureus is the usual infecting organism in localized otitis externa, while diffuse otitis externa is usually caused by the Pseudomonas group.”

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34
Q

What is not a usual pathogen in the causation of otomycosis?

A. Aspergillus albicans
B. Pitysporum
C. Candida albicans
D. Aspergillus niger

A

C. Candida albicans

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­20)

“…. The offending organism usually are Aspergillus albicans, Aspergillus niger, and Pitysporum.”

35
Q

What is believed to be a factor in the causation of otomycosis?

A. Low temperature environment
B. Humidity
C. Dryness of the skin
D. Exudative otitis media

A

B. Humidity

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­20)

“Moisture, high temperature, poor hygiene, and immunosuppression appear to contribute to the development of this condition”

36
Q

What would be the best first aid/home remedy in managing cockroaches crawling into the external auditory canal?

A. Blowing smoke into the EAC
B. Pouring water into the EAC
C. Pouring oil into the EAC
D. Crushing the cockroach with the tip of a cotton bud

A

C. Pouring oil into the EAC

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­23)

“Foreign body…For cockroaches, it is better to kill it first by drowning it in oil, hydrogen peroxide, or even lidocaine”

37
Q

What otoscopic finding is consistent with barotrauma?

A. Attic perforation
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Hemotympanum
D. Mucopurulent ear discharge

A

C. Hemotympanum

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­23)

“Barotrauma…On otoscopy, eardrum is retratcted an may exhibit hemorrhagic blebs within the drum or blood behind the drum.”

38
Q

During which stage of pregnancy is a mother infected with Rubella most likely to transmit it to her unborn fetus?

A. 1st Trimester
B. 2nd Trimester
C. 3rd Trimester
D. Puerperium

A

A. 1st Trimester

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­32)

“Congenital Deafness of Non­genetic Origin. (Pathophysiology Box). During the first trimester, maternal infection has an 80% chance of transmission to the fetus. During the second trimester, there is 50% chance of transmission.”

39
Q

Which is not a known ototoxic drug?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Loop Diuretic
C. Salicylate
D. Cox­2 Inhibitor

A

D. Cox­2 Inhibitor

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­34)

Under ototoxic drugs: Aminoglycosides, Loop Diuretics and Salicylate

40
Q

What is the most common presentation of an acoustic neuroma

A. Mass in the post­auricular area
B. Otorrhagia
C. Unilateral hearing loss
D. Facial nerve paralysis

A

C. Unilateral hearing loss

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­39)

“All patients with unilateral or asymmetric hearing loss should be screened from acoustic neuroma.”

41
Q

What is the most common organism found in chronic suppurative otitis media?

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Proteus sp.
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Branhamelia catarrhalis

A

b. Proteus s p.

42
Q

What otoscopic finding warrants surgical intervention?

A. Mucopurulent discharge
B. Blood ear discharge
C. Presence of cholesteatoma
D. Severe to profound hearing loss

A

C. Presence of cholesteatoma

LU­IV SILM (Hearing Loss, H-­45)

Under Dangerous/Surgical Ear:
> Foul smelling discharge
> Perforation is marginal, attic or total
> Presence of cholesteatome
> (-) Response to medical treatment
43
Q

A MRI with gadolinium contrast showing an enhancing lesion in the internal auditory canal is a pathognomonic finding in

A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Cholesteatoma
C. BPPV
D. Meniere’s disease

A

A. Acoustic neuroma

44
Q

Which class of drugs is not usually effective in the management of dizziness?

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Calcium­channel blockers
C. H3 receptor antagonists
D. Psychotropics

A

D. Psychotropics

45
Q

The procerus muscle is

A. An elevator muscle
B. A depressor muscle
C. A compressor muscle
D. A dilator muscle

A

A. An elevator muscle

Conflicting sources; LU3 SILM says elevator, some other sources say depressor

46
Q

The alar nasalis is

A. An elevator muscle
B. A depressor muscle
C. A compressor muscle
D. A dilator muscle

A

B. A depressor muscle

47
Q

Which paranasal sinus is not present at birth?

A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Left ethmoid sinus
D. Right ethmoid sinus

A

B. Frontal sinus

Remember: Present at birth&raquo_space; ME (maxillary and ethmoid)

48
Q

What anatomic landmark separates level 2 from the level 3 lymph nodes in the neck?

A. Hyoid bone
B. Spinal accessory nerve
C. Omohyoid muscle
D. Thyrohyoid muscle

A

A. Hyoid bone

Level II: superior to hyoid
Level III: inferior to the hyoid, superior to the cricoid

49
Q

The most common benign tumor of the parotid gland in children is

A. Benign mixed tumor
B. Warthin’s tumor
C. Hemangioma
D. Parotid Adenoma

A

C. Hemangioma

Boies, p.325

50
Q

The most common benign tumor of the parotid gland in adults is

A. Benign mixed tumor
B. Warthin’s tumor
C. Hemangioma
D. Parotid adenoma

A

A. Benign mixed tumor (also pleiomorphic adenoma)

51
Q

Human papilloma virus is strongly associated with cancer of the

A. Nose and paranasal sinuses
B. Laryngeal cancer
C. Oral cavity cancer
D. Nasopharyngeal cancer

A

C. Oral cavity cancer

52
Q

Epstein­Barr virus is strongly associated with cancer of the

A. Nose and paranasal sinuses
B. Laryngeal cancer
C. Oral cavity cancer
D. Nasopharyngeal cancer

A

D. Nasopharyngeal cancer

53
Q

What is not part of the triad of Horner’s syndrome?

A. Ptosis
B. Hoarseness
C. Miosis
D. Anhidrosis

A

B. Hoarseness

54
Q

What anatomic landmark separates level 2a from level 2b LN in the neck?

A. Hyoid bone
B. Spinal accessory nerve
C. Omohyoid muscle
D. Thyrohyoid muscle

A

B. Spinal accessory nerve

Level IIA: Inferior to Spinal accessory nerve
Level IIB: Superior to the Spinal Accessory Nerve

55
Q

What is the average volume of saliva produced per day?

A. 500mL
B. 750mL
C. 1000mL
D. 2000mL

A

C. 1000mL

56
Q

Which salivary gland is most prone to formation of sialolithiasis?

A. Left parotid
B. Right parotid
C. Submandibular gland
D. Sublingual gland

A

C. Submandibular gland

57
Q

What muscle makes up the anterior tonsillar pillar?

A. Palatoglossus
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Cricopharyngeus
D. Hyoglossus

A

A. Palatoglossus

58
Q

What muscle makes up the posterior tonsillar pillar?

A. Palatoglossus
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Cricopharyngeus
D. Hyoglossus

A

B. Palatopharyngeus

59
Q

What is the most common laryngeal abnormality in the newborn, characterized by inspiratory stridor?

A. Subglottic Stenosis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Tracheomalacia
D. Choanal atresia

A

B. Laryngomalacia

60
Q

The “thumb sign” on neck lateral view x–ray is a hallmark for?

A. Croup
B. Acute epiglottis
C. Tracheitis
D. Laryngomalacia

A

B. Acute epiglottis

61
Q

Common in teachers and singers, this is mainly due to “voice abuse”

A. Vocal cord paralysis
B. Vocal cord nodule
C. Vocal cord polyp
D. Vocal cord papilloma

A

B. Vocal cord nodule

62
Q

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the

A. arch of the aorta
B. right innominate
C. right subclavian
D. vagus nerve

A

C. right subclavian

63
Q

What do you call the duct of the sublingual gland?

A. Wharton’s duct
B. Stensen’s duct
C. Duct of Rivinus
D. Duct of Santorini

A

C. Duct of Rivinus

64
Q

Where in the mouth is the opening of the Wharton’s duct

A. In the upper buccal mucosa across the second maxillary molar
B. Near the lingual frenulum
C. Along the floor of the mouth
D. Soft palate

A

B. Near the lingual frenulum

65
Q

How many teeth are there in the adult?

A. 28
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34

A

C. 32

66
Q

To which cervical lymph node group does a nasopharyngeal cancer spread first?

A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
E. Level 5
A

B. Level 2

67
Q

Where is the most common site of origin of a nasopharyngeal cancer?

A. Posterior nasal septum
B. Torus tubarius
C. Fossa of Rosenmuller
D. Posterior nasopharyngeal wall

A

C. Fossa of Rosenmuller

68
Q

Which statement is true of saliva?

A. Parotid saliva is more alkaline
B. Parotid saliva has superior bacteriostatic activity
C. The position of the opening of the Stensen’s duct makes it more prone to sialolithiasis
D. The course of the Wharton’s duct is more irregular and tortuous

A

D. The course of the Wharton’s duct is more irregular and tortuous

69
Q

Which mucosa is not lined by respiratory epithelium (pseudostratified columnar ciliated)?

A. Nasal cavity
B. Trachea
C. True vocal cords
D. Bronchus

A

C. True vocal cords

70
Q

What nerve supplies the main tensor of the vocal cord?

A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
C. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
D. Anterior branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

A

B. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

71
Q

An absolute indication for tonsillectomy would be?

A. Recurrent tonsillitis
B. Tonsillar hypertrophy with OSA
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Acute tonisillitis

A

B. Tonsillar hypertrophy with OSA

C must be recurrent to be an absolute indication

72
Q

You suspect a pediatric patient of ingesting a coing. What would be your initial test to request?

A. Barium swallow
B. Chest AP view
C. Chest CT scan
D. Chest AP and lateral view

A

D. Chest AP and lateral view

73
Q

Where is the best location to put in a tracheostomy tube?

A. Cricothyroid membrane
B. Tracheal rings 1-3
C. Tracheal rings 2-4
D. Tracheal rings 3-5

A

C. Tracheal rings 2-4

74
Q

What nerve supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A. CN5
B. CN7
C. CN9
D. CN10

A

C. CN9 - Glossopharyngeal

For taste:
Anterior 2/3 - CN7 (chorda tympani)
Posterior 1/3 - CN9 (glossopharyngeal nerve)

75
Q

What is the symptom not shared by rhinosinutis and allergic rhinitis?

A. Nasal obstruction
B. sneezing
C. rhinorhea
D. fever

A

D. fever

76
Q

What is the most suspicious feature of an intranasal foreign body?

A. Unilateral epistaxis
B. Unilateral foul-­smelling discharge
C. Unilateral nose swelling
D. Fever

A

B. Unilateral foul-­smelling discharge

77
Q

A complication of delayed treatment of a septal hemorrhage

A. Maxillary sinusitis
B. Septal cartilage resorption
C. Profuse epistaxis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

A ? or D ?

78
Q

The most common cause of profuse epistaxis in the elderly is

A. Hypertension
B. Nasal bone fracture
C. Blood dyscrasia
D. Drug­induced

A

A. Hypertension (?)

79
Q

Which is not a likely sign/symptom of maxillary cancer?

A. Loosening of maxillary teeth
B. Maxillary hypoesthesia
C. Cheek pain
D. Submandibular mass

A

D. Submandibular mass

80
Q

Arnold’s nerve, shared by both nose and ear, and one of the reasons for referred pain to the ear is a branch of which cranial nerve?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

A

C. 10

Auriculotemporal: 5
Jacobson’s: 9
Arnold’s: 10

81
Q

The auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of what cranial nerve?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

A

A. 5

Auriculotemporal: 5
Jacobson’s: 9
Arnold’s: 10

82
Q

Jacobson’s nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

A

B. 9

Auriculotemporal: 5
Jacobson’s: 9
Arnold’s: 10

83
Q

Best radiograph for maxillary sinus?

A. Water’s
B. Caldwell’s
C. Submentovertical
D. Lateral

A

A. Water’s

84
Q

Best radiograph for Sphenoid sinus?

A. Water’s
B. Caldwell’s
C. Submentovertical
D. Lateral

A

D. Lateral

According to LU3 radio lecture

ORL FINALS (2 decks)

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