Ortho Flashcards
(128 cards)
Vitamin C has been shown to decrease the likelihood of which of the following complications following surgery on the foot and ankle in non-diabetic patients?
Nonunion Complex Regional Pain Syndrome, type II Malunion Complex Regional Pain Syndrome, type I Wound infection
Vitamin C has been shown to decrease the likelihood of developing complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), type 1, when given post-operatively to patients undergoing foot and ankle and wrist surgery.
CRPS is a frequent post-operative complication, with rates varying from 10-37%. Type I CRPS does not have an identifiable nerve lesion, while type II has an identifiable nerve lesion. Multiple studies have shown that vitamin C decreases rates of CRPS following distal radius fractures, and more recently, the same has been shown following foot and ankle surgery. While the exact mechanism of CRPS is unknown, vitamin C has been shown to reduce lipid peroxidation, scavenge hydroxyl radicals, protect the capillary endothelium, and inhibit vascular permeability. All of these characteristics of vitamin C may play a role in modulating the pain pathway.
Zollinger et al. perform a double-blind, prospective, multicenter trial where 416 patients with 427 wrist fractures were randomly allocated to treatment with placebo or treatment with 200, 500, or 1500 mg of vitamin C daily for fifty days. The prevalence of complex regional pain syndrome was 2.4% in the vitamin C group and 10.1% in the placebo group.
Besse et al. compare two groups of patients undergoing surgery on the foot and ankle to determine the effect of vitamin C on the development of CRPS, type I. CRPS type I occurred in 18 cases (9.6%) in the group not given vitamin C, and 4 cases (1.7%) in the group given vitamin C.
Increased swelling is a common physical exam finding in patients afflicted with the disease.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1, 2, 3, 5: Vitamin C has not been shown to decrease the incidence of these conditions.
A 47-year-old male presents with back pain of 2 weeks duration. He denies night sweats, fevers, or weight loss. He localizes his symptoms to a dermatomal distribution along the rib cage on the right. On physical exam he has mild paraspinal tenderness, normal patellar reflexes, normal muscle strength in his lower extremities, and a normal gait exam. An MRI is shown in Figure A and B. What is the most appropriate first step in management?
A repeat MRI with gadolinium
CT of chest, abdomen, and pelvis followed by a CT guided biopsy of the spinal lesion
Physical therapy and NSAIDs
Surgical decompression using a midline posterior approach
Surgical decompression using a transthoracic approach
Physical therapy and NSAIDs
The clinical presentation and imaging studies are consistent with a thoracic disc herniation. Although less common than lumbar disc herniation, thoracic disc herniations are a recognized cause of back pain. For patients with prolonged symptoms, Blumenkopft and Maiman contend that MRI is the study of choice in evaluation of disc herniations. The downside of MRI is that it can have high false positive rates. In a retrospective study, Wood et. al showed that in asymptomatic individuals 73% had thoracic disc abnormalities and 37% showed frank herniations, 29% of these had cord compression. 75% of herniations occur between T8 and T12. Because the MRI in this question is highly characteristic of a thoracic disc herniation, the suspicion for a malignant or infectious process is low and an MRI with gadolinium, biopsy, and cancer staging are not indicated. The majority of these patient improve with nonoperative management including physical therapy. Because this patient has no neurologic deficits, surgery would not be indicated.
Which of the following is least likely to predict future amputation in diabetic patients?
Diabetic foot ulceration Loss of sensation with 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofillament testing Infection Hemoglobin A1c level of 10.7 Ankle-brachial index of 1.07
Ankle-brachial index of 1.07
The references state that diabetic patients who underwent amputations also had these concurrent variables: ulceration 84%, neuropathy 64%, infection 59%, gangrene 55%, and ischemia 46%.
Other risk factors factors included elevated hemoglobin A1c level, decreased oxygen tension levels, and a decreased ankle-brachial index.
Ulceration in diabetic foot due to lack of protective sensation
incidence:
- approximately 12% of diabetics have foot ulcers
most common medical complication causing diabetics to get medical treatment
- foot ulcers are responsible for ~85% of lower extremity amputations
Risk factors
- factors associated with decreased healing potential: uncontrolled hyperglycemi, inability to offload the affected area, poor circulation, infection, poor nutrition
- factors associated with increased healing potential: serum albumin > 3.0 g/dL, total lymphocyte count > 1,500/mm3
Pathophysiology:
Neuropathy has largest effect on diabetic foot pathology:
- Sensory dysfunction leads to lack of protective sensation and is primary risk factor for ulcer development
- Autonomic dysfunction leads to drying of skin due to lack of normal glandular function
- Net effect is increased mechanical and axial stress on skin that is more prone to injury due to drying
Angiopathy - lesser effect than neuropathy, >60% of diabetic ulcers have decreased blood flow due to peripheral vascular disease
Associated conditions
infection / osteomyelitis: high rates of associated osteomyelitis if bone is able to be probed, or is exposed at the base of the ulcer, 67% of ulcers that probe to bone have osteomyelitis. Deep cultures and bacterial biopsies help guide management
Organisms: usually polymicrobial
- gram-positive: most common pathogens are aerobic gram positive cocci (s. aureus)
- gram-negative: increased gram-negative organisms are found in chronic wounds and wounds recently treated with antibiotics
anaerobes: obligate anaerobic pathogens with ischemia or gangrene
Prognosis
diabetic foot ulceration is considered the most likely predictor of eventual lower extremity amputation in patients with diabetes mellitus
Studies
Transcutaneous oxygen pressures (TcpO2)
considered Gold Standard to assess wound healing potential, > 30 mm Hg (or 40mmHg depending on review source cited) is a good sign of healing potential
ABI’s and ischemic index: calcification in the arteries can result in inaccurate doppler flow readings
calcifications falsely elevate the ABI’s due to decreased compliance of the calcified vessels. index of > 0.45 and toe pressure >45mm Hg are needed to heal amputation and >60mm Hg to heal an ulcer
Imaging
Radiographs: AP, lateral, and oblique of foot and ankle
MRI: best for differentiating abscess from soft tissue swelling. Difficult to differentiate infection from Charcot arthropathy on MRI
Bone scan: obtain with technetium Tc99m, gallium (Ga)67, or indium (In) 111
Useful to differentiate between soft tissue infection, osteomyelitis and Charcot arthropathy
A 7-year-old boy sustains a ring finger injury after falling from his bike. The fingernail has been torn transversely beneath the eponychium and the surgeon has removed the nail as shown in Figure A. Radiographs are shown in Figure B. (distal phalanx fracture) What is the next best step in management?
Irrigation and debridement with alumafoam placement and immobilization
Irrigation and debridement followed by percutaneous pinning and immobilization
Irrigation and debridement followed by reduction, nail bed repair and immobilization
Betadine soaks at home three times daily with intermittent alumafoam splint placement and immobilization
Alumafoam splint placement and immobilization
Irrigation and debridement followed by reduction, nail bed repair and immobilization
The clinical presentation is consistent with a physeal separation and a nail bed injury. This is also called a Seymour fracture which is a juxta-epiphyseal fracture of the distal phalanx. Treatment of a nail bed avulsion and physeal separation is irrigation and debridement, physeal reduction, nail bed repair and immobilization. The primary goals are to achieve a stable, viable nail and good cosmetic results.
Inglefield at al retrospectively reviewed 19 children with 22 nail bed injuries. Early operative repair led to good to excellent results in 91% of patients. They concluded that repair of the nail bed at the time of injury is superior to secondary correction.
Fassler reviewed fingertip injuries, providing recommendations for treatment based on degree of soft tissue loss, bone exposure, feasibility for flap coverage and the presence or absence of mitigating systemic conditions. He also concluded that the outcome of nail bed injuries is dependent on the severity of injury to the germinal matrix.
Anatomy
- perionychium: nail, nailbed, surrounding skin
- paronychium: lateral nail folds
- hyponychium: skin distal distal and palmar to the nail
- eponychium: dorsal nail fold, proximal to nail fold
- lunula: white part of the proximal nail
- matrix:
sterile: soft tissue deep to nail, distal to lunula, adheres to nail
germinal : soft tissue deep to nail, proximal to sterile matrix, responsible for most of nail development
Insertion of extensor tendon is approximately 1.2 to 1.4 mm proximal to germinal matrix
A 40 year-old competitive weightlifter felt a painful pop in his elbow while performing a bench press. His lateral radiograph shows ‘flake’ sign. An MRI is likely to show which of the following?
Distal biceps tendon rupture Brachialis muscle rupture Lateral ulnar collateral ligament tear Medial ulnar collateral ligament tear Triceps tendon tear
The lateral radiograph shows a “flake sign” which is common in patients with a triceps tendon avulsion, as suggested by this clinical scenario. Triceps tendon tears occur most commonly in males age 30-50, and those involved in competitive weightlifting and football. There is an established link with anabolic steroid use. Other risk factors include renal disease, corticosteroids, history of tendon injection, and fluroquinolone antibiotics. Surgical repair is indicated in active persons with complete tears and for incomplete tears with concomitant loss of strength.
Yeh et al note the importance of obtaining radiographs and that the flake sign is pathognomonic of a triceps tendon avulsion. They note that an MRI is often used to confirm the diagnosis, classify the injury, and guide management.
van Riet et al reported a case series of triceps tendon ruptures. Making the correct diagnosis is important because primary repair is possible within 3 weeks and affords better results than late reconstruction. A high clinical suspicion and use of imaging is critical, as 10 of their 23 ruptures were missed on initial presentation.
Risk factors
- systemic illness (hyperparathyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, OI, RA, type I DM)
- anabolic steroid use
- local steroid injection
- fluoroquinolone use
- chronic olecranon bursitis
- previous triceps surgery
- Marfan syndrome
Triceps brachii = pennate muscle comprised of 3 heads
- lateral: originates from the posterior humerus between the insertion of the teres minor and the superior aspect of spiral groove, the lateral border of humerus, and the lateral intermuscular septum
- long: originates from the infraglenoid tuberosity
- medial: originates from the posterior humerus distal to spiral groove, the medial humerus, and the medial intermuscular septum
Insertion occurs over a wide area/footprint located 12mm distal to the tip of the olecranon, width ranges from 1.9-4.2cm.
Consists of:
- triceps tendon proper: confluence of tendon from all three heads. inserts on the olecranon
- lateral triceps expansion: medial aspect inserts on the posterior crest of the ulna, adjacent to the medial head;
lateral aspect inserts on the fascia of the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle and the deep fascia of the anconeus muscle; distal aspect inserts on the antebrachial fascia
Only muscle in the posterior compartment of the arm
innervated by radial nerve (C6-C8)
A patient with a severe nickel allergy and degenerative joint disease of the hip would be best served by which of the following prosthetic options?
Cemented titanium stem, ceramic (alumina) head, and press-fit titanium cup
Cemented cobalt-chrome stem, ceramic (alumina) head, and press-fit cobalt-chrome cup
Press-fit titanium stem, cobalt-chrome head, and press-fit titanium cup
Press-fit titanium stem, titanium head, and press-fit titanium cup
Press-fit titanium stem, ceramic (alumina) head, and cementless titanium cup
Press-fit titanium stem, ceramic (alumina) head, and cementless titanium cup
Nickel is present in cobalt-chrome and stainless steel alloys used in orthopaedic surgery; therefore, these materials are not well suited for nickel-sensitive patients. Nickel is not present in titanium alloys or in ceramic components. Titanium is therefore the material of choice for the femoral and acetabular component. Titanium is a poor option for the femoral head due to its susceptibility to abrasive wear. Titanium is also poorly suited to cemented applications in hip arthroplasty because it is less stiff than cobalt-chrome (and stainless steel), and therefore transmits greater stresses to the cement column. Titanium’s poor abrasion resistance can also leave the component susceptible to increased abrasive wear in the event of loosening and micromotion. Therefore, of the options available, a cementless titanium stem and socket with a ceramic head is the best choice. In nickel-sensitive total knee arthroplasty patients, cemented oxidized zirconium femoral components can be used in place of cobalt-chrome, and titanium tibial components (press-fit or cemented) have been used with success.
A 32-year-old carpenter complains of progressively worsening wrist pain for the last 2 months. He denies any recent history of trauma to the wrist or hand. An MRI is obtained and a representative image is provided in Figure A (avascular lunate). Which of the following surgical interventions is thought to be effective for this condition by inciting a local vascular healing response?
Wrist fusion Ulnar shortening osteotomy Distal radius core decompression Proximal row carpectomy Scapholunate ligament reconstruction
This clinical scenario and imaging studies are consistent with Kienbock’s disease, avascular necrosis of the lunate, in the pre-collapse stage. Core decompression of the distal radius is an accepted treatment for Kienbock’s disease. The procedure creates a local vascular healing response facilitating vascular recovery prior to collapse and degeneration of the lunate. Other acceptable interventions include revascularization with a pedicled graft and joint leveling procedures such as a radial shortening osteotomy. The radial shortening osteotomy is ideal for patients with negative ulnar variance who experience greater loads through the radiolunate fossa.
Sherman et al performed a cadaveric study demonstrating minimal change in the distribution of force between the radiocarpal fossa and ulnocarpal fossa following core decompression of the distal radius.
Illarramendi et al reviewed 22 cases of Kienbock’s treated with radial and ulnar metaphyseal core decompression. No surgical complications occurred, and 20 of 22 reported satisfactory clinical outcomes while one patient developed intercarpal arthritis.
Incorrect Answers:
- Proximal row carpectomy and wrist fusion would be options for the collapsed and degenerative lunate.
- Ulnar shortening osteotomy and scapholunate ligament reconstruction are incorrect as they do not address the pathology of Kienbock’s.
- Proximal row carpectomy and wrist fusion would be options for the collapsed and degenerative lunate.
- Ulnar shortening osteotomy and scapholunate ligament reconstruction are incorrect as they do not address the pathology of Kienbock’s
Which of the following tests is required for a standard work-up of Ewing’s sarcoma that is not routinely obtained for staging of osteosarcoma?
MRI CT scan Bone scan Protein electrophoresis Bone marrow biopsy
Bone marrow biopsy is a routine part of the staging workup for Ewing’s sarcoma, and is not routinely obtained for staging of osteosarcoma.
Ewing’s is a small round cell (blue cell) tumor that occurs most commonly in children and young adults. Clinical presentations of these tumors frequently mimic infection with low grade fever, elevated white counts and high markers of inflammation. The radiographic appearance will show a large lytic lesion in the metaphysis or diaphysis. Reactive periosteum may be lifted off the bone in multiple layers, termed “onion skinning” which is characteristic but uncommon. Bone marrow biopsy is done because Ewing’s sarcoma can metastasize via the marrow.
Carvajal et al report the Ewing’s sarcoma family of tumors (EFT) includes ES of bone (ESB), extraosseous ES (EES), peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of bone (pPNET), and malignant small-cell tumor of the thoracopulmonary region, or Askin’s tumor, all of which are now known to be neoplasms of neuroectodermal origin.
Treatment
•Nonoperative: chemotherapy + radiation therapy
◾indications
◾non-resectable tumors (eg. large spinal tumors)
◾sites where functional deficit is unacceptable
◾trend is towards surgical resection / away from RT because of morbidity associated with radiation and risk of secondary malignancies
•Operative
◦chemotherapy + limb salvage resection ± adjuvant radiation ◾indications: standard of care in most patients where primary tumor can be completely removed (expendable and surgically reconstructible sites)
Chemotherapy ◾vincristine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, and dactinomycin
◾preoperative chemotherapy (neoadjuvant) given for 8-12 weeks followed by surgical resection and maintenance (adjuvant) chemotherapy for 6-12 months
Adjuvant radiation ◾not necessary if margins are adequate and there is good response to chemotherapy
◾indications ◾positive post-resection surgical margins
◾patients who present with widely metastatic disease
◾where chemotherapeutic response has been poor
A 45-year-old male trauma patient presents with multiple extremity injuries including the foot injury shown in Figure A (base of 2nd mt intra-artic#). The foot fracture is treated surgically, and heals without any initial complications. At a minimum of 12 months, this patient will be expected to have which of the following scores compared to a matched polytrauma patient without a foot injury?
Lower mean Short Form 36 (SF-36) score
Higher mean score on the AAOS lower limb and foot and ankle outcomes questionnaire
Equivalent score on the Western Ontario and McMaster Universities Osteoarthritis Index (WOMAC)
Lower Constant score
Higher score on the Western Ontario and McMaster Universities Osteoarthritis Index (WOMAC)
Lower mean Short Form 36 (SF-36) score
Turchin et al assessed the outcome of two groups of matched polytrauma patients, with the only difference being the presence of a foot injury in Group 1. They used three outcome tools, SF-36, WOMAC, and Modified Boston Children’s Hospital Grading System to evaluate the two groups at a minimum of 2 years from injury. The foot injury group, including all types of foot fractures, had a poor outcome when using any of these measures. Turchin concludes that “Foot injuries cause significant disability to multiply injured patients. More attention should be given to these injuries, and more aggressive management should be considered to improve the outcome of this group of multiply injured patients.”
Tran et al compared polytrauma patients with foot injuries to 14 polytrauma patients without foot injury at a minimum of 12 months from injury. The AAOS lower limb and foot and ankle outcomes data collection questionnaire showed significantly lower scores in the foot injury group. The Constant score is used for evaluation of shoulder conditions
A 45-year old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and presents to the emergency room with complaints of neck pain. Physical exam shows he is an ASIA E. An open-mouth cervical radiograph is shown in Figure A. A sagittal CT scan is shown in Figure B. A CT axial angiogram is shown in Figure C (odontoid fracture with an aberrant vertebral artery). Which of the following treatment options is contraindicated in this patient.
Anterior screw osteosynthesis with single cannulated screw
Halo immobilization
Anterior screw osteosynthesis with two cannulated screws
C1-C2 transarticular screws
Posterior C1-C2 wiring with autograft
C1-C2 transarticular screws
The clinical presentation is consistent with an odontoid fracture with an aberrant vertebral artery on the left. C1-C2 transarticular screws are an absolute contraindication in this scenario.
The vertebral artery is an important consideration when performing posterior cervical spine surgery. Injury to this artery can lead to stroke and death. Normally the vertebral artery travels superiorly in the transverse foramen of C6 to C2. At C2 the artery deviates laterally to the pass through the transverse foramen of C1 and then wraps medially on the superior surface of the posterior arch of C1 before ascending into the foramen magnum. Anomalous variants of the vertebral arery may be present in up to 30% of individuals, and may be intraosseous or extraosseous. Intraosseous variants may be injured during posterior cervical stabilization techniques. In patients with an aberrant vertebral artery, C1-C2 transarticular screws are contraindicated due to the risk of injury to the aberrant vertebral artery.
Patel et al. performed a literature review to investigate the optimal surgical treatment for unstable type II odontoid fractures in skeletally mature individuals. They found there is no moderate or high quality literature on the surgical management of acute type II odontoid fractures, and that there is no comparative data to objectively compare an anterior vs. posterior approach. They report that in equivocally indicated instances, anterior or posterior treatment can both be safely used with good outcome.
Wright et al. performed a retrospective study to look at the incidence of vertebral arery injury and subsequent neurological deficit in patients where C1-C2 trans-articular screws are placed. They found of 2492 C1-2 transarticular screws in 1318 patients, thirty-one patients (2.4%) had known vertebral artery injuries and an additional 23 patients (1.7%) were suspected of having injuries. Of the patients with known or suspected vertebral artery injuries, 2 (3.7%) of the 54 patients exhibited subsequent neurological deficits and one (1.9%) died from a bilateral VA injury.
Figure A is an open-mouth odontoid radiograph that shows a type 2 odontoid fracture. Figure B is a sagittal CT that shows a Type 2 odontoid fracture. Figure C is a CT angiogram that shows an anomalous vertebral artery on the left, with the absence of a normal vertebral foramen. Illustration A shows the anatomy of a normal vertebral artery and its relative position to a C1-C2 transarticular screw. Illustration B shows an anomalous extra-osseous vertebral artery. Illustration C shows a CT scan of an anomalous intra-osseous vertebral artery.
Anderson and D’Alonzo Classification
Type I Oblique avulsion fx of tip of odontoid. Due to avulsion of alar ligament. Although rare, atlantooccipital instability should be ruled out with flexion and extension films.
Type II Fx through waist (high nonunion rate due to interruption of blood supply).
Type III Fx extends into cancellous body of C2 and involves a variable portion of the C1-C2 joint.
Axis Osteology ◦axis has odontoid process (dens) and body
◦embryology ◾develops from five ossification centers
◾subdental (basilar) synchondrosis is an initial cartilaginous junction between the dens and vertebral body that does not fuse until ~6 years of age
◾the secondary ossification center appears at ~ age 3 and fuses to the dens at ~ age 12
•Axis Kinematics ◦CI-C2 (atlantoaxial) articulation ◾is a diarthrodial joint that provides ◾50 (of 100) degrees of cervical rotation
◾10 (of 110) degrees of flexion/extension
◾0 (of 68) degrees of lateral bend
◦C2-3 joint ◾participates in subaxial (C2-C7) cervical motion which provides ◾50 (of 100) degrees of rotation
◾50 (of 110) degrees of flexion/extension
◾60 (of 68) degrees of lateral bend
•Occipital-C1-C2 ligamentous stability ◦provided by the odontoid process and its supporting ligaments ◾transverse ligament ◾limits anterior translation of the atlas
◾apical ligaments ◾ limit rotation of the upper cervical spine
◾alar ligaments
◾limit rotation of the upper cervical spine
•Blood Supply ◦a vascular watershed exists between the apex and the base of the odontoid ◾apex is supplied by branches of internal carotid artery
◾base is supplied from branches of vertebral artery
◾the limited blood supply in this watershed area is thought to affect healing of type II odontoid fractures.
A 78-year-old male falls at home four months following a right total hip arthroplasty. Right leg deformity, pain, and inability to bear weight are present on physical exam. An injury radiograph is provided in Figure A (stable stem, distal periprosthetic#), while radiographs taken immediately following the initial total hip arthroplasty are provided in Figures B and C. The patient denies any prodromal groin pain prior to his fall. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
Traction for 6 weeks followed by slow return to weight bearing
Open reduction and internal fixation
Revision to a long, cementless femoral stem
Revision to a long, cementless stem with strut allograft
Revision to a long, cemented stem
Open reduction and internal fixation
The clinical presentation and radiograph are consistent with a Vancouver B1 periprosthetic femur fracture. The stem appears stable within the femur, and there is no evidence of subsidence with comparison to the initial post-THA radiographs. This fracture pattern is best treated with internal fixation. Illustrations A and B are radiographs of this patient following fixation. Illustrations C and D show bone healing at 2 years following the fracture.
Duwelius et al report on 33 periprosthetic femur fractures. All fractures that demonstrated a stable stem at the time of surgery were treated with internal fixation, while those that were unstable were treated with a long, cementless revision femoral stem. At 2.5 years complications were minimal and the patients had regained their pre-fracture level of function.
The review article by Kelley outlines the evaluation, classification, and treatment of periprosthetic femur fractures reinforcing the importance of stem stability within the femur. Periprosthetic fractures around a hemiarthroplasty should be treated with the same algorithm. However, if the patient had antecedent groin pain, then conversion to a total hip arthroplasty should be considered to prevent continued groin pain.
•Fractures around a total hip prosthesis increasing in incidence as a result of increased arthroplasty procedures and high-demands of elderly patients •Classification ◦intraoperative fractures ◾femur ◾acetabulum ◦postoperative fractures ◾femur ◾acetabulum
Intraoperative Acetabular Fractures
Risk factors: underreaming >2mm, elliptical modular cups, osteoporosis, cementless acetabular components, dysplasia, radiation
- Evaluation: must determine stability of implant
- Treatment ◦observation alone if evaluated intraoperatively and found to be stable - consider protected weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks
◦acetabular revision with screws vs. ORIF - if evaluated intraoperatively and found to be unstable
◾technique ◾addition of acetabular screws
◾may consider upgrading to “jumbo” cup
◾ORIF of acetabular fracture with revision of acetabular component ◾if posterior column is compromised, ORIF + revision is most stable construct
◾may add bone graft from reamings if patient has poor bone stock
◾postoperative care ◾consider protected weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks
Intraoperative Femur Fractures
Mechanism
◾proximal fractures: usually occur with bone preparation (ie aggressive rasping) and prosthetic insertion. May occur during implant insertion from dimension mismatch
◾middle-region fractures: usually occur when excessive force is used during surgical exposure or bone preparation
◾distal fractures: usually occur when tip of a straight-stem prosthesis impacting at femoral bow
◦Risk factors: impaction bone grafting,female gender, technical errors, cementless implants, osteoporosis, revision, minimally invasive techniques (controversial)
•Presentation: change in resistance while inserting stem should raise suspicion for fracture
•Classification ◦Vancouver classification (intraoperative) ◾Considerations: location, pattern, stability of fracture
Types:
◾A - proximal metaphysis
◾B - diaphyseal
◾C - distal to stem tip (not amenable to insertion of longest revision stem)
Subtypes
◾1 - cortical perforation
◾2 - nondisplaced crack
◾3 - displaced unstable fracture pattern
•Treatment
◦stem removal, cabling, and reinsertion if intraoperative longitudinal calcar split
◦trochanteric fixation with wires, cables, or claw-plate ◾indications: intraoperative, proximal femur fractures
◦removal of implant, insertion of longer stem prosthesis ◾indications: complete (two-part) fractures of middle region ◾technique ◾distal tip of stem must bypass distal extent of fracture by 2 cortical diameters
◾may use cortical allograft struts for added stability
◦removal of implant, internal fixation with plate, reinsertion of prosthesis ◾indications: distal fractures that cannot be bypassed with a long-stemmed prosthesis
Postoperative Femur fracture
•Incidence 0.1-3% for primary cementless total hip arthroplasties
◦etiology
Early postoperative fractures
◾cementless prosthesis tend to fracture in the first six months - likely caused by stress risers during reaming and broaching
◾wedge-fit tapered designs cause proximal fractures
◾cylindrical fully porous-coated stems tend to cause a distal split in the femoral shaft
Late postoperative fractures
◾cemented prosthesis tend to fracture later (5 years out)
◾tend to fracture around the tip of the prosthesis or distal to it
Risk factors: ◾poor bone quality ◾cementless prostheses ◾compromised bone stock ◾revision procedures
•Classification ◦Vancouver classification (postoperative) ◾considerations ◾stability of prosthesis
◾location of fracture
◾quality of surrounding bone
◾pros: simple, validated
◾cons: often difficult to differentiate between B1 and B2 fractures based on radiographs alone
A: Fracture in trochanteric region. Commonly associated with osteolysis. AG (greater trochanter) fractures caused by retraction, broaching, actual implant insertion, previous hip screws.
Often requires treatment that addresses the osteolysis.
AG fractures with <2cm displacement, treat nonoperatively with partial WB and allow fibrous union.
AG fractures >2cm needs ORIF (loss of abductor function leads to instability) with trochanteric claw/cables.
B1 Fracture around stem or just below it, with a well fixed stem ORIF using cerclage cables and locking plates
B2 Fracture around stem or just below it, with a loose stem but good proximal bone stock Revision of the femoral component to a long porous-coated cementless stems and fixation of the fracture fragment. Revision of the acetabular component if indicated
B3 Fracture around stem or just below it, with proximal bone that is poor quality or severely comminuted. Femoral component revision with proximal femoral allograft or proximal femoral replacement
C Fracture occurs well below the prosthesis ORIF with plate
- leave the hip and acetabular prosthesis alone
A 32-year-old man presents with low back and hip pain that has been gradually worsening over the past year. He reports the symptoms are worse in the morning. Radiographs are shown in Figure A (bilateral sacroilitis) . Laboratory studies show a positive HLA-B27. What additional finding will help confirm the diagnosis?
Erythema marginatum Positive HLA-DR3 Uveitis Positive Rheumatoid Factor Elevated urine phosphoethanolamine
Bilateral sacroiliitis (with or without uveitis) and a postive HLA-B27 is diagnostic of ankylosing spondylitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by a positive HLA-B27 with a negative RF titer. It typically presents in the 4th decade of life and is more common in men than women. Low back pain usually precedes the radiogaphic findings of bilateral sacroiliitis. Of note, HLA-B27 is positive in ~6% of the white population.
Rudwaleit et al, looked at variables that could help make an early diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. They found the highest likelihood ratio was found in patients with a positive HLA test and positive MRI findings.
Burgos-Vargas et al, studied the clinical and radiographic features of sacroiliac and spinal involvement in patients with seronegative enthesopathy and arthropathy. Based on their findings, they recommend periodical measurements of the spinal flexion and radiographs of the pelvis from age 3 in high risk children.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Erythema marginatum is a major criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever.
Answer 2: HLA-DR3 is associated with SLE.
Answer 4: RF is found in rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s, sarcoid, and SLE.
Answer 5: Elevated urine phosphoethanolamine is found in hypophosphatasia.
An systemic chronic autoimmune spondyloarthropathy characterized by ◦HLA-B27 histocompatability complex positive (90%)
◦RF negative (seronegative)
◦primarily affect axial spine
•Pathoanatomy ◦exact mechanism is unknown, but most likely due to an autoimmune reaction to an environmental pathogen in a genetically susceptible individual.
◦theories of relation to HLA-B27 include ◾HLA-B27 aggregates with peptides in the joint and leads to a degenerative cascade
◾cytotoxic T-cell autoimmune reaction against HLA-B27
◦enthesitis ◾entheses inflammation leads to bony erosion, surrounding soft-tissue ossification, and eventually joint ankylosis
◾preferentially targets sacroiliac joints, spinal apophyseal joints, symphysis pubis
◾this differentiates from RA, which is a synovial process
◦disc space involvement ◾inflammation of the annulus lead to bridging osteophyte formation (syndesmophytes)
•Genetics ◦there is a genetic predisposition, but mode of inheritance is unknown
◦HLA-B27 is located on sixth chromosome, B locus
•Epidemiology ◦4:1 male:female
◦affects ~0.2% of Caucasian population
◦usually presents in 3rd decade of life ◾ juvenile form <16-years-old includes enthesitis
◾fewer than 10% of HLA-B27 positive patients have symptoms of AS
•Diagnostic criteria
◦bilateral sacroiliitis
◦+/- uveitis
◦HLA-B27 positive
•Systemic manifestations ◦acute anterior uveitis & iritis
◦heart disease (cardiac conduction abnormalities)
◦pulmonary fibrosis
◦renal amyloidosis
◦ascending aortic conditions (aortitis, stenosis, regurgitation)
◦Klebsilella pneumoniae synovitis (HLA-B27 individuals are more susceptible to Klebsilella pneumoniae synovitis)
•Orthopaedic manifestations ◦bilateral sacroiliitis ◦progressive spinal kyphotic deformity ◦cervical spine fractures ◦large-joint arthritis (hip and shoulder)
Anatomy
•Enthesis ◦defined as the insertion of tendon, ligaments, or muscle into bone
Presentation
•Symptoms
◦lumbosacral pain and stiffness - present in most patients, worse in morning, insidious onset in 3rd decade of life
◦neck and upper thoracic pain - occurs later in life. Acute neck pain should raise suspicion for fracture
◦sciatic: likely originates from sciatic nerve involvement in the pelvic (piriformis spasm)
◦loss of horizontal gaze
◦shortness of breath: caused by costovertebral joint involvement, leading to reduced chest expansion
•Physical exam
◦limitation of chest wall expansion: < 2cm of expansion is more specific than HLA-B27 for making diagnosis
◦decreased spine motion - Schober test used to evaluate lumbar stiffness
◦kyphotic spine deformity: chin-on-chest (flexion) deformity of the spine caused by multiple microfractures that occur over time, chin-brow-to-vertical angle (CBVA) - measured from standing exam of standing lateral radiograph (useful for preoperative planning - correction of this angle correlates with improved surgical outcomes)
◦hip flexion contracture: examining patient in supine and sitting position helps differentiate sagittal plane imbalance due to hip flexion contractures or kyphotic spinal deformity
◦sacroiliac provocative tests: Faber test - flexion abduction external rotation of the ipsilateral hip causes pain
A 23-year-old soccer player suffers an ACL rupture and undergoes reconstruction. Post-operatively she begins a rehabilitation program and her therapist develops a series of knee conditioning exercises to help her regain strength and range of motion. Which of the following exercises places the lowest strain in this patients properly placed ACL graft?
Isometric hamstring contractions at 60 degrees of knee flexion
Isolated quadriceps contractions with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion
Simultaneous quadricep and hamstring contractions at 15 degrees of knee flexion
Isolated quadriceps contractions with the knee at 15 degrees of flexion
Active resisted knee motion from terminal extension to 30 degrees of flexion
Isometric hamstring contractions at 60 degrees of knee flexion will produce the lowest strain in this patient’s ACL graft. Straight leg raises are also commonly used in post-ACL rehabilitation protocols as this exercise places little stress on an ACL graft. The other exercises mentioned have been shown to result in increased graft strain in patients with a reconstructed ACL.
Beynnon et al measured the strain behavior of the ACL during rehabilitation activities in vivo. They found that exercises that produce low or unstrained ligament values, and would not endanger a properly implanted graft, are either dominated by the hamstrings muscle (isometric hamstring contractions at any angle), involve quadriceps muscle activity with the knee flexed at 60 degrees or greater (isometric quadriceps, simultaneous quadriceps and hamstrings contraction), or involve active knee motion between 35 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion.
Rehabilitation
•Early postoperative ◦immediate ◾aggressive cryotherapy (ice)
◾immediate weight bearing (shown to reduce patellofemoral pain)
◾emphasize early full passive extension (especially if associated with MCL injury or patella dislocation)
◦early rehab ◾focus rehab on exercises that do not place excess stress on graft ◾appropriate rehab ◾eccentric strengthening at 3 weeks has been shown to result in increased quadriceps volume and strength
◾isometric hamstring contractions at any angle
◾isometric quadriceps, or simultaneous quadriceps and hamstrings contraction
◾active knee motion between 35 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion
◾emphasize closed chain (foot planted) exercises
◾avoid: isokinetic quadricep strengthening (15-30°) during early rehab
◾open chain quadriceps strengthening
Complications
•Failure due to Tunnel Malposition is the most common cause of ACL failure - causes failure in 70%
◦femoral tunnel malposition
◾coronal plane - vertical femoral tunnel placement caused by starting femoral tunnel at the vertical position in the notch (12 o:clock) as opposed to lateral wall (9 o: clock). Will cause continued rotational instability which can be identified on physical exam by a positive pivot shift
◾sagittal plane - anterior tunnel placement leads to a knee that is tight in flexion and loose in extension - occurs from failure to clear “residents ridge”
◾posterior misplacement (over-the-top), leads to a knee that is lax in flexion and tight in extension
◦tibial tunnel malposition
◾sagittal plane: anterior misplacement leads to knee that is tight in flexion with impingement in extension
◾posterior misplacement leads to an ACL that will impinge with the PCL
•Other cause of failure ◦inadequate graft fixation e.g. can be caused by graft-screw divergence >30 degrees
◦missed diagnosis ◾in combined ACL and PLC injuries, failure to treat the PLC will lead to failure of ACL reconstruction
◦overaggressive rehab
•Infection ◦septic arthritis ◾coagulase negative Staph (S. epidermidis) most common ◾Staph aureus 2nd most common
◾presentation ◾pain, swelling, erythema, and increased WBC at 2-14 days postop
◾treatment ◾perform immediate joint aspiration with gram stain and cultures
◦treatment ◾immediate arthroscopic I&D
◾often can retain graft with multiple I&Ds and antibiotics (6 weeks minimum) ◾graft retention more likely to be successful with S. epidermidis
◾graft retention less likely to be successful with S. aureus
•Loss of motion & arthrofibrosis ◦preoperative prevention ◾be sure patient has regained full ROM before you operate (“pre-hab”)
◾wait until swelling (inflammatory phase) has gone down to reduce the incidence of arthrofibrosis
◦operative prevention ◾proper tunnel placement is critical to have a full range of motion
◦postop prevention ◾aggressive cryotherapy (ice)
◦treatment ◾< 12 weeks, then treat with aggressive PT and serial splinting
◾> 12 weeks, then treat with lysis of adhesions/manipulation under anesthesia
- Infrapatellar contracture syndrome: an uncommon complication following knee surgery or injury which results in knee stiffness. The physical exam will show decreased patellar translation
- Patella Tendon Rupture ◦will see patella alta on the lateral radiograph
- RSD (complex regional pain syndrome)
- Patella fracture ◦most fx occur 8-12 weeks postop
- Hardware failure
- Tunnel osteolysis ◦treat with observation
- Late arthritis ◦related to meniscal integrity
- Local nerve irritation ◦saphenous nerve
- Cyclops lesion : fibroproliferative tissue blocks extension, “click” heard at terminal extension
A 2-year-old child is referred by her pediatrician for fixed flexion deformity of the left thumb. She has been wearing a splint for the last 6 months. She has ventricular septal defect and left renal agenesis. The interphalangeal joint does not extend past 40 degrees of flexion as seen in Figures A and B. There is no triggering. There is a firm, nontender nodule overlying the metacarpophalangeal joint as outlined in blue in Figure C. What is the diagnosis and most appropriate treatment?
Thumb camptodactyly. Therapy including passive stretching exercises.
Congenital clapsed thumb. Percutaneous release of the A1 pulley.
Pediatric trigger thumb. Open release of the A1 pulley.
Pediatric trigger thumb. Open release of the A1 pulley and resection of the tendon nodule.
Blauth Type I hypoplastic thumb. Open release of the A1 pulley and volar plate, and resection of the tendon nodule.
Pediatric trigger thumb. Open release of the A1 pulley.
This child has pediatric trigger thumb (PTT). The potential for spontaneous resolution beyond the age of 2 years is limited. Surgical release of the A1 pulley is indicated.
Pediatric trigger thumb presents as fixed flexion at the interphalangeal joint (IPJ) rather than triggering. It is likely to be acquired (rather than congenital). It is associated with the presence of Notta’s nodule, a thickening of the FPL tendon and overlying tendon sheath. Treatment involves A1 pulley release. The role of non-surgical management (splinting/stretching) remains unclear. The duration of non-surgical treatment is long (up to 30 months) and compliance can be difficult.
Shah et al. reviewed pediatric trigger thumb. The condition is associated with MCP hyperextension. The authors note no advantage to percutaneous release as general anesthetic is required anyway.
Marek et al. performed a retrospective review and survey response review of surgery for pediatric trigger thumb. They found that age at the time of surgery influences residual flexion contracture and rate of recovery. They found surgery to be safe and effective, and recommend: (1) surgery for a 2-year-old child with a locked thumb for 6 months, (2) observation for a child <1 year if the thumb is triggering (not locked), and (3) a 6-month observation period if observation is advocated.
Figures A and B show a fixed flexion deformity of the thumb and an attempt at thumb extension. Figure C shows the outlined Notta nodule.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Camptodactyly is a congenital flexion deformity that usually involves the little finger. Surgery is indicated in congenital trigger thumb for patients >3 yrs, and those that have failed a course of splinting/stretching. The efficacy of passive exercises has not been established.
Answer 2: Percutaneous release of the A1 pulley in PTT carries a risk of incomplete release, radial digital nerve injury, and FPL laceration. The gold standard is open release. This is not congenital clasped thumb.
Answer 4: The tendon nodule, or Notta’s nodule, does not have to be resected.
Answer 5: The volar plate does not have to be released. This is not thumb hypoplasia. Type I thumb hypoplasia is treated nonoperatively.
A 25-year-old marathon runner presents with pain, coolness, and tingling in her lower leg and foot which are exacerbated with walking, but relieved once she starts running for a few minutes. Compartment pressures are normal at rest and with exercise. Her physical exam is significant for pain with passive dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the ankle. These symptoms are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
Lumbar radiculopathy Piriformis syndrome Exertional compartment syndrome Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome Tibial stress fracture
The clinical presentation is most consistent with popliteal artery entrapment syndrome.
Patients with popliteal artery entrapment syndrome typically present with intermittent claudication and decreased pulses. The pathoanatomy involves compression of the popliteal artery by the medial head of the gastrocnemius. Therefore, dorsiflexing and plantarflexing the ankle are provocative maneuvers that would worsen the claudication as a result of the compressive effect of the medial gastrocnemius on the popliteal artery. An arteriogram would demonstrate the popliteal artery compression by the medial head of the gastrocnemius.
Gokkus et al. present a case and systematic review of popliteal artery entrapment syndrome. They state the differential diagnosis for patients with lower leg pain from exercise includes chronic exertional compartment syndrome, medial tibia stress syndrome, fibular and tibial stress fractures, fascial defects, nerve entrapment syndrome, vascular claudication (artherosclerotic or popliteal artery entrapment syndrome) and lumbar disc herniation.
Illustration A shows MR angiogram images demonstrating a segmental occlusion of the right popliteal artery.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1&2: Since the patient is not exhibiting signs of a lower extremity nerve entrapment syndrome (neuropathy would not explain the cool crampy leg), lumbar radiculopathy and piriformis syndrome should not be the 1st choice (in this case the parasthesias are a result of the claudication).
Answer 3: Elevated post exercise compartment pressure measurements are essential to diagnose exertional compartment syndrome where vigorous athletic exercise leads to swelling of myofascial compartments in the lower leg leading to pain which is relieved with rest.
Answer 5: A stress fracture would not be relieved with running and would not have exhibited signs of claudication like the cool leg, cramping and parasthesias.
A 25-year-old patient presents with a posterior wall/ posterior column acetabular fracture. She is scheduled for open reduction internal fixation through a posterior approach. What position of the leg exerts the least amount of intraneural pressure on the sciatic nerve?
hip flexion, knee extension hip extension, knee extension hip flexion, knee flexion hip extension, knee flexion the pressure does not vary based on position
hip extension, knee flexion
In the cited study, researchers measured tissue fluid pressure within the sciatic nerve in cadaveric specimens using a pressure transducer. The hip and knee were taken through a combination of ranges and found that the clinically relevant increase in pressure happened with the hip flexed at 90 degrees and the knee fully extended. They concluded that increased intraneural pressure was related to excursion of the nerve as linear distance between the greater sciatic notch and the distal leg increase. Hence, according to the question stem, to avoid traction injury, the reverse position should be implemented (hip extension and knee flexion).
During the early swing phase of the normal gait cycle, what lower extremity muscle is primarily contracting?
Tibialis posterior Tibialis anterior Vastus medialis Adductor longus Gastrocnemius
Tib ant
Electromyography during walking reveals the tibialis anterior muscle is active during early swing, allowing the foot to clear the ground. All of the other muscles are quiet, as the limb moves forward through space with minimal muscular effort. The other muscles are primarily active during weight acceptance or push-off.
•One gait cycle is measured from heel-strike to heel-strike
Consists of :
◾stance phase: period of time that the foot is on the ground, ~60% of one gait cycle is spent in stance. during stance, the leg accepts body weight and provides single limb support
◾swing phase: period of time that the foot is off the ground moving forward, ~40% of one gait cycle is spent in swing - the limb advances
- Stride: the distance between consecutive initial contacts of the same foot with the ground
- Step: the distance between initial contacts of the alternating feet
Swing Phase
•Initial swing (toe off) - start of single limb support for opposite limb
◦definition: from elevation of limb to point of maximal knee flexion
◦muscular contractions: hip flexors concentrically contract to advance the swinging leg
•Mid-swing (foot clearance)
◦definition ◾following knee flexion to point where tibia is vertical
◦muscular contractions: ankle dorsiflexors contract to ensure foot clearance
•Terminal swing (tibia vertical) ◦definition ◾from point where tibia is vertical to just prior to initial contact
◦muscular contractions ◾hamstring muscles decelerate forward motion of thigh
Variables Affected During Gait Cycle
•Pelvic rotation ◦pelvis rotates 4 degrees medially (anteriorly) on swing side ◾lengthens the limb as it prepares to accept weight
•Pelvic tilt ◦pelvis drops 4 degrees on swing side ◾lowers COG at midstance
•Knee flexion in stance: early knee flexion (15 degrees) at heel strike ◾lowers COG, decreasing energy expenditure
◾also absorbs shock of heel strike
•Foot mechanisms: ankle plantar flexion at heel strike and first part of stance
•Knee mechanisms ◦at midstance, the knee extends as the ankle plantar flexes and foot supinates
◦restores leg to original length
◦reduces fall of pelvis at opposite heel strike
•Lateral displacement of pelvis ◦pelvis shifts over stance limb ◾COG must lie over base of support (stance limb)
•Center of gravity (COG): in standing position is 5cm anterior to S2 vertebral body
◦vertical displacement: during gait cycle COG displaces vertically in a rhythmic pattern. The highest point is during midstance phase and lowest point occurs at the time of double limb support
◦horizontal displacement ◾COG displaces 5cm horizontally during adult male step
A 3-year-old boy presents with the skin lesion seen in Figure A and a leg deformity. Radiographs are shown in Figure B (anterior tibial bowing, no # or pseudoarthrosis). What is the most appropriate first step in treatment?
observation
bracing in total contact orthosis
intramedullary nailing with bone grafting
free fibular graft from contralateral side
external fixation using Illizarov techniques
bracing in total contact orthosis
The clinical presentation is consistent with neurofibromatosis with associated anterolateral tibial bowing. Neurofibromatosis is the most common cause of anterolateral tibial bowing and congenital pseudoarthrosis of the tibia, two conditions which represent a continuum of the same disease process. Because there is no fracture or pseudoarthrosis the treatment in this case is bracing in a total contact orthosis, otherwise known as a clamshell orthosis. If the patient had a fracture or a pseudoarthrosis, then you would treat him with surgery. The reference by Crawford et al is a review article that describes the incidence and treatment of orthopaedic conditions seen with neurofibromatosis. In their database of 588 patients they found the incidence of spinal deformity in children with NF-1 to be 21%; pectus deformity, 4.3%; limb-length inequality, 7.1%; congenital tibial dysplasia, 5%; hemihypertrophy, 1.4%; and plexiform neurofibromas, 25%. The cited reference by Feldman et al is a more recent review article that also discusses the orthopaedic manifestations of neurofibromatosis. There are various tibial bowing conditions found in children and one should be familiar with the differential diagnosis and associated conditions. Bowing of the tibia that is present at birth typically occurs either anteriorly (in association with fibular hemimelia), anterolaterally (in association with congenital pseudoarthrosis), or posteromedially (in association with calcaneovalgus foot deformity).
•Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder of neural crest origin characterized by:
◦extremity deformities
◾congenital anterolateral bowing and pseudoarthrosis of tibia/ fibula and forearm
◾hemihypertrophy
◦spine involvement ◾scoliosis & kyphosis
◾atlantoaxial instability
•Epidemiology ◦ 1:3,000 births for NF1
•Genetics ◦autosomal dominant (AD)
◦mutation in NF1 gene on chromosome 17q21 ◾codes for neurofibromin protein ◾negatively regulates Ras signaling pathway
◾neurofibromin deficiency leads to increased Ras activity
◾affects Ras-dependent MAPK activity which is essential for osteoclast function and survival
◦neurofibromatosis is the most common genetic disorder caused by a new mutation of a single gene
•Associated conditions ◦scoliosis ◦anterolateral bowing of tibia ◦bowing of forearm bones with obliteration of medullary cavity: ulnar pseudoarthrosis, radius pseudoarthrosis ◦neoplasias
•Prognosis ◦normal life expectancy
◦high incidence of malignancy and hypertension
•Diagnostic criteria ◦according to the NIH Consensus Development Conference Statement (1987) the diagnostic criteria for NF-1 are met in an individual if two or more of the following are found
◾six or more café-au-lait macules over 5 mm in greatest diameter in prepubertal individuals and over 15 mm in postpubertal individuals.
◾two or more neurofibromas of any type or one plexiform neurofibroma.
◾freckling in the axillary or inguinal region.
◾optic glioma.
◾two or more Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas).
◾a distinctive osseous lesion such as sphenoid dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex with or without pseudarthrosis.
◾a first-degree relative (parent, sibling, or offspring) with NF-1 by the above criteria.is based on presence of both
Classification
•NF1 (von Recklinghaussen disease) ◦most common
•NF2 ◦associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas
•Segmental NF ◦features of NF1 but involving a single body segment
Presentation ◦often presents with anterolateral bowing of tibia or radial bowing
•Physical exam ◦verrucous hyperplasia
◦hemihypertrophy
◦cafe-au-lait spots
◦axillary freckling
◦scoliosis
◦anterolateral bowing or pseudoarthrosis of tibia
◦dermal Plexiform-type neurofibroma may be seen
◦Lisch nodules are benign pigmented hamartomas of the iris
Anterolateral Tibial Bowing (Neurofibromatosis)
◾anterolateral bowing is often associated with neurofibromatosis (NF1)
◾50% with anterolateral bowing have NF1
◾10% of NF1 have anterolateral bowing
◾may progress to pseudoarthrosis
◦differentials for tibia bowing ◾anteromedial: associated with fibular hemimelia and congenital loss of lateral rays of the foot
◾posteromedial: usually congenital due to abnormal intrauterine positioning - dorsiflexed foot pressed against anterior tibia. Will develop leg length discrepancy - associated with calcaneovalgus deformity
•Imaging ◦radiographs ◾obtain AP and lateral of tib/fib
•Treatment
◦nonoperative: bracing in total contact orthosis
◾indications: bowing without pseudoarthrosis or fracture (goal is to prevent further bowing and fractures)
◾spontaneous remodeling is not expected
◾osteotomy for bowing alone is contraindicated
◦operative: bone grafting with surgical fixation ◾indications: bowing with pseudoarthrosis or fracture
◾amputation with prosthesis fitting ◾indications: Three failed surgical attempts
◾Syme’s often superior to BKA due to atrophic and scarred calf muscle in these patients
•Techniques ◦intramedullary nailing with bone grafting
◾resect pseudoarthrosis
◾insert Charnley-Williams rod
◾antegrade through resection site, then retrograde through the heel
◾< 4 y.o., extend fixation to calcaneus
◾5-10 y.o., extend fixation to talus ◾2 yrs. postop, typically a 2nd surgery to push rod proximally to free the ankle joint
◦free fibular graft ◾often need to take fibula from contralateral side because ilpsilateral fibula is not normal
◾Illizarov’s external fixation
During total hip arthroplasty (THA) via a posterior approach, where is the sciatic nerve most likely to be found?
Superficial to the piriformis and superficial to the short external rotators
Superficial to the piriformis and deep to the short external rotators
Deep to the piriformis and deep to the short external rotators
Deep to the piriformis and superficial to the short external rotators
Splits the piriformis and is superficial to the short external rotators
Deep to the piriformis and superficial to the short external rotators
During the posterior approach to the hip, the most predictable course of the sciatic nerve is deep to the piriformis and superficial to the short external rotators exiting above the superior gemellus. As such, most recommend identification of the sciatic nerve by palpation in primary THA. In revision THA, many advocate identification of the sciatic nerve by both palpation and direct visualization.
The most common anatomic variant in the relationship of the short external rotators and the sciatic nerve is with the sciatic nerve traveling between the capsule and the short external rotators exiting below the superior gemellus.
Smoll reviewed the anatomy of the gluteal region and sciatic nerve anomalies in a meta-analysis and review of over 6000 cadavers. They concluded that the anomalies were present in about 16.8% of cadavers. They recommended a heightened awareness of the anomalies in hip surgery. The most common variants are found in Illustration D which were also supported by an earlier Beaton et al study.
A 52-year-old male farmer presents with right hip pain for the past 4 months. On physical examination there is pain with internal rotation of his right hip. Laboratory studies show elevated serum alkaline phosphatase. Serum calcium is normal. Urinary studies show elevated urinary N-telopeptide, alpha-C-telopeptide, and deoxypyridinoline markers. A radiograph of the pelvis is shown in Figures A. What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Antibiotics Bisphosphonates Monoclonal-B antibodies Chemotherapy Wide resection and radiotherapy
This patient has the clinical presentation of symptomatic Paget’s disease. The most appropriate initial treatment would be medical management with bisphosponate therapy.
Paget’s disease is the second most common chronic bone-remodelling disorder in the US after osteoporosis. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, normal serum calcium and elevated urinary N-telopeptide, alpha-C-telopeptide, and deoxypyridinoline markers, are indicative of Paget’s disease. First line treatment for symptomatic Paget’s disease would include medical management for osteoclast inhibition, including bisphosphonates or calcitonin, as well as supportive symptomatic therapy with physiotherapy, NSAIDS, or oral analgesics.
Hadjipavlou et al. reviewed Paget’s disease of the bone and its management. Farmers have been shown to have an increased incidence of Paget’s disease. Average age at presentation is in the 5th and 6th decade. Symptomatic individuals are recommended to be treated initially with medical management. They suggest that bisphosphonates are more effective than calcitonin at suppressing the histological and biochemical activity in Paget’s disease.
Figure A shows thickening of the cortex and a coarse trabecular pattern in right hemipelvis characteristic of Paget’s bone disease. There are 4 radiographic phases of Paget’s bone disease: the osteolytic, osteoblastic, osteosclerotic and mixed phase. This radiograph shows mixed phase. Note significant arthritis of the right hip joint.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: The history, laboratory and radiographic findings are not suggestive of osetomyelitis
Answer 3: Immunotherapy is not used in the treatment of Paget’s disease
Answer 4: Chemotherapy is not used in the initial treatment of Paget’s disease
Answer 5: Wide resection and radiotherapy is not used in the initial treatment of Paget’s disease
•A condition of abnormal bone remodeling : original osseous tissue is reconstructed through active interplay between excessive bone resorption and abnormal new bone formation
•Pathophysiology
◦increased osteoclastic bone resorption is the primary cellular abnormality - cause is thought to be a slow virus infection (intra-nuclear nucleocapsid-like structure) ◾paramyxovirus
◾respiratory syncytial virus
•Epidemiology ◦peak incidence in the 5th decade of life ◦common in Caucasians (northern European / Anglo-Saxon descent)
◦males = females
◦location - may be monostotic or polyostotic
◾common sites include femur > pelvis > tibia > skull > spine
•Genetics: most cases are spontaneous
◾hereditary: familial clusters have been described with ~40% autosomal dominant transmission
◾most important is 5q35 QTER (ubiquitine binding protein sequestosome 1) SQSTM1 (p62/Sequestosome) - tend to have severe Paget disease
◾also insertion mutation in TNFRSF11A for gene encoding RANK
•Orthopaedic manifestations
◦bone pain
◦long bone bowing
◦fractures, due to brittle bone and tend to be transverse
◦large joint osteoarthritis - excessive bleeding during THA, malalignment during TKA
◦secondary sarcoma
•Associated conditions
◦high output heart failure
•Prognosis & malignancy
◦Paget’s sarcoma: less than 1% will develop malignant Paget’s sarcoma (secondary sarcoma) ◾osteosarcoma > fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma - most common in pelvis, femur, and humerus. Poor prognosis: 5-year survival for metastatic Paget’s sarcoma < 10%. Treatment includes chemotherapy and wide surgical resection
Classification
•Phases
◦lytic phase: intense osteoclastic resorption
◦mixed phase: resorption and compensatory bone formation
◦sclerotic phase: osteoblastic bone formation predominates
◦all three phases may co-exist in the same bone
Presentation
•Symptoms
◦asymptomatic: frequently asymptomatic and found incidentally
◦pain ◾pain may be the presenting symptom due to ◾stress fractures
◾increased vascularity and warmth
◾new intense pain and swelling ◾suspicious for Paget’s sarcoma in a patient with history of Paget’s + new intense pain and swelling
◦cardiac symptoms ◾can present with high-output cardiac failure particularly if large/multiple lesions & pre-existing diminished cardiac function
Imaging
•Radiographs: coarsened trabeculae which give the bone a blastic appearance - both increased and decreased density may exist depending on phase of disease
◾lytic phase: lucent areas with expansion and thinned, intact cortices, ‘blade of grass’ or ‘flame-shaped’ lucent advancing edge
◾mixed phase: combination of lysis + sclerosis with coarsened trabeculae
◾sclerotic phase: bone enlargement with cortical thickening, sclerotic and lucent areas image
◦remodeled cortices: loss of distinction between cortices and medullary cavity
◦long bone bowing : bowing of femur or tibia image
◦fractures
◦hip and knee osteoarthritis
◦osteitis circumscripta - (cotton wool exudates) in skull image
◦Paget’s secondary sarcoma: shows cortical bone destruction, soft tissue mass
•MRI: may show lumbar spinal stenosis
•Bone scan image ◦accurately marks site of disease:
◦intensely hot in lytic and mixed phase
◦less hot in sclerotic phase
•CT scan: cortical thickening and coarsened trabeculae
Evaluation
•Laboratory findings
◦elevated serum ALP
◦elevated urinary collagen cross-links
◦elevated urinary hydroxyproline (collagen breakdown marker)
◦increased urinary N-telopeptide, alpha-C-telopeptide, and deoxypyridinoline
◦normal calcium levels
Histology
•Characteristic histology: woven bone and irregular broad trabeculae with disorganized cement lines in a mosaic pattern
◦profound bone resorption - numerous large osteoclasts with multiple nuclei per cell - virus-like inclusion bodies in osteoclasts. Paget’s osteoclasts larger, more nuclei than typical osteoclasts
Fibrous vascular tissue interspersed between trabeculae
Treatment
•Nonoperative: observation and supportive therapy. Treatment for asymptomatic Paget’s disease: physiotherapy, NSAIDS, oral analgesics
◦medical therapy aimed at osteoclast inhibition: bisphosphonates are 1st line treatment for symptomatic Pagets
◾oral alendronate and risedronate
◾etidronate disodium (Didronel) (older generation medication, inhibits osteoclasts and osteoblasts, cannot be used for more than 6 months at a time)
◾intravenous: pamidronate, zoledronic acid (Zometa) - newer generation medications that only inhibit osteoclasts
◾calcitonin are 2nd line (after bisphosphonates): causes osteoclasts to shrink in size and decreases their bone resorptive activity within minutes- administered subcutaneously or intramuscularly
◾teriparatide is contraindicated in Paget’s disease due to risk of secondary osteosarcoma
•Operative ◦THA / TKA ◾indications ◾affected patients with degenerative joint disease. Treat Paget’s with pharmacologic agents prior to arthroplasty to reduce bleeding
◾outcomes: greater incidence of suboptimal alignment secondary to pagetoid bone. The most common complications include malalignment with knee arthroplasty and bleeding with hip arthroplasty
◦metaphyseal osteotomy and plate fixation
◾indications:
◾fractures through pathologic bowing of long bones
◾impending pathologic fracture of long bone with bowing
All of the following are true regarding excessively anterior femoral tunnel placement during ACL reconstruction EXCEPT?
It may cause loss of knee flexion
It may cause graft over-stretching and failure
It is the most common technical error
It may cause interference screw divergence
It is often due to poor visualization
All of the given responses are true except for Answer 4, because an excessively anterior femoral tunnel does not cause interference screw divergence.
Anterior placement of the femoral tunnel is the most common surgical error during arthroscopic ACL reconstruction. Errors in surgical technique are one of the most common reasons for graft failure in patients who present with recurrent instability after ACL reconstruction. Technical shortcomings that result in graft failure after primary reconstruction include nonanatomic tunnel placement, graft impingement, improper tensioning of the graft, inadequate fixation of the graft in bony tunnels, graft material problems, and the failure to address insufficiency of the secondary stabilizers of the knee during ACL reconstruction.
The papers by Allen and Harner et al stress the importance of determining the cause of failure prior to revision surgery. It is estimated that 70% to 80% of graft failures are caused by malpositioned tunnels. The consequences of nonanatomic tunnel placement are well described in the literature.
Sommer et al note that inappropriate positioning of either the tibial or femoral tunnels results in excessive changes in graft length as the knee moves through its functional range of motion and can effect clinical results. Because biologic ACL grafts can only accommodate small changes in length before undergoing plastic deformation, a mal-positioned graft may result in either capturing of the knee or lengthening of the graft over time; this results in either a loss of motion or recurrent instability, respectively. Improper femoral tunnel placement is most often caused by the failure to adequately visualize the most posterior aspect of the notch (the “over-the-top” position). Because the femoral attachment of the ACL is closer to the center of rotation of the knee, small errors in femoral tunnel placement may have deleterious effects on knee kinematics.
Complications of ACL Repair:
Complications
•Failure due to Tunnel Malposition is the most common cause of ACL failure - causes failure in 70%
◦femoral tunnel malposition
◾coronal plane - vertical femoral tunnel placement caused by starting femoral tunnel at the vertical position in the notch (12 o:clock) as opposed to lateral wall (9 o: clock). Will cause continued rotational instability which can be identified on physical exam by a positive pivot shift
◾sagittal plane - anterior tunnel placement leads to a knee that is tight in flexion and loose in extension - occurs from failure to clear “residents ridge”
◾posterior misplacement (over-the-top), leads to a knee that is lax in flexion and tight in extension
◦tibial tunnel malposition
◾sagittal plane: anterior misplacement leads to knee that is tight in flexion with impingement in extension
◾posterior misplacement leads to an ACL that will impinge with the PCL
•Other cause of failure ◦inadequate graft fixation e.g. can be caused by graft-screw divergence >30 degrees
◦missed diagnosis ◾in combined ACL and PLC injuries, failure to treat the PLC will lead to failure of ACL reconstruction
◦overaggressive rehab
•Infection ◦septic arthritis ◾coagulase negative Staph (S. epidermidis) most common ◾Staph aureus 2nd most common
◾presentation ◾pain, swelling, erythema, and increased WBC at 2-14 days postop
◾treatment ◾perform immediate joint aspiration with gram stain and cultures
◦treatment ◾immediate arthroscopic I&D
◾often can retain graft with multiple I&Ds and antibiotics (6 weeks minimum) ◾graft retention more likely to be successful with S. epidermidis
◾graft retention less likely to be successful with S. aureus
•Loss of motion & arthrofibrosis ◦preoperative prevention ◾be sure patient has regained full ROM before you operate (“pre-hab”)
◾wait until swelling (inflammatory phase) has gone down to reduce the incidence of arthrofibrosis
◦operative prevention ◾proper tunnel placement is critical to have a full range of motion
◦postop prevention ◾aggressive cryotherapy (ice)
◦treatment ◾< 12 weeks, then treat with aggressive PT and serial splinting
◾> 12 weeks, then treat with lysis of adhesions/manipulation under anesthesia
- Infrapatellar contracture syndrome: an uncommon complication following knee surgery or injury which results in knee stiffness. The physical exam will show decreased patellar translation
- Patella Tendon Rupture ◦will see patella alta on the lateral radiograph
- RSD (complex regional pain syndrome)
- Patella fracture ◦most fx occur 8-12 weeks postop
- Hardware failure
- Tunnel osteolysis ◦treat with observation
- Late arthritis ◦related to meniscal integrity
- Local nerve irritation ◦saphenous nerve
- Cyclops lesion : fibroproliferative tissue blocks extension, “click” heard at terminal extension
A 10-year-old boy presents with a painless mass on the dorsal aspect of his wrist that has been present for 3 weeks. A clinical image is shown in Figure A (well circumscribed, transillumates, not fixed to skin). T1 and T2 magnetic resonance images are shown in Figure B and C (well-marginated, homogenous signal intensity mass) , respectively. On your exam, the mass transilluminates and Allen test reveals patent radial and ulnar arteries. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Referral to a orthopaedic oncologist Surgical excision with wide margins Observation Autologus bone marrow aspirate injection Injection of N-Butyl-Cyanoacrylate
This child has a ganglion cyst on the dorsal aspect of his wrist. Imaging provided shows a well-marginated, homogenous signal intensity mass consistent with a ganglion cyst. Physical examination findings of a mass transilluminating corroborate the MRI findings of a ganglion cyst. Performing an Allen’s test to evaluate radial and ulnar artery collateral blood flow is especially important when evaluating ganglion cysts on the volar aspect of the wrist as they are often adjacent to the radial artery. Wang et al. peformed a Level 4 review of 14 children with hand and wrist ganglion cysts and found that 79% of these cysts resolved spontaneously within 1 year. Autologus bone marrow aspirate injection is a treatment option for unicameral bone cysts and N-Butyl-Cyanoacrylate injections have been described for treatment of hemangiomas. Referral to an orthopaedic oncologist is not indicated.
A mucin-filled synovial cyst caused by either trauma, mucoid degeneration, synovial herniation
incidence: it is the most common hand mass (60-70%)
location:
dorsal carpal (70%) - originate from SL articulation
volar carpal (20%) - originate from radiocarpal or STT joint
volar retinacular (10%) - originate from herniated tendon sheath fluid
dorsal DIP joint (mucous cyst, associated with Heberden’s nodes)
Pathophysiology
filled with fluid from tendon sheath or joint, no true epithelial lining
Associated conditions
median or ulnar nerve compression may be caused by volar ganglion
hand ischemia due to vascular occlusion may be caused by volar ganglion
Presentation
usually asymptomatic - may cause issues with cosmesis
Physical exam
inspection: transilluminates (transmits light through tissue)
palpation, firm and well circumscribed, often fixed to deep tissue but not to overlying skin
Vascular exam
Allen’s test to ensure radial and ulnar artery flow for volar wrist ganglions
Imaging
Radiographs: normal
MRI - not routinely indicated. Shows well marginated mass with homogenous fluid signal intensity
Ultrasound: useful for differentiating cyst from vascular aneurysm - may provide image localization for aspiration while avoiding artery
Histology
Biopsy - not routinely indicated, will show mucin-filled synovial cell lined sac
Treatment
Nonoperative
observation: first line of treatment in adults, children - 76% resolve within 1 year in pediatric patients
closed rupture: home remedy, high recurrence
Aspiration: second line of treatment in adults with dorsal ganglions. Aspiration typically avoided on volar aspect of wrist due to radial artery. Higher recurrence rate (50%) than surgical resection but minimal risk so reasonable to attempt
Operative: surgical resection
indications: severe symptoms or neurovascular manifestations
Requires adequate exposure to identify origin and allow resection of stalk and a portion of adjacent capsule. At dorsal DIP joint: must resect underlying osteophyte
results
volar ganglions have higher recurrence after resection than dorsal ganglions (15-20% recurrence)
Complications
With aspiration: infection (rare), neurovascular injury
With excision: infection, neurovascular injury (radial artery most common), injury to scapholunate interosseous ligament, stiffness
A 45-year-old male falls onto his left shoulder while biking and an injury radiograph is shown in Figure A (comminuted displaced mid shaft clavicle fracture). He elects for nonoperative treatment. What is the most likely clinical outcome at one year after injury?
Symmetric cosmesis of shoulders Decreased shoulder motion Symptomatic nonunion Shoulder instability Decreased shoulder strength and endurance
Patients who have nonoperative treatment of displaced midshaft clavicle fractures have significant decreases in both strength and endurance to approximately 80% of the contralateral side as described by the McKee article. There was a trend correlating shortening >2cm with poor outcome (p=0.06). Motion was found to be preserved.
In the Canadian Orthopaedic Trauma Society’s landmark randomized control trial of operative versus nonoperative treatment for displaced clavicle fractures, patients treated non-operatively had lower subjective outcomes scores, slower rates to union, more nonunions, more symptomatic malunions, and were less satisfied with the appearance of their shoulder. There were more hardware related complications in the operatively treated group.
The second McKee article describes improvements in subjective outcome scores after midshaft clavicle malunion corrective osteotomy.
Figure A shows a comminuted, displaced midshaft clavicle fracture.
Clavicle shaft fractures are common traumatic injuries that occur in the middle third of the clavicle - treatment is somewhat controversial but may be nonoperative or operative based on the degree of displacement and patient factors
incidence
clavicle fractures account for 2.6-4% of all adult fractures
demographics
often seen in young, active patients - most common in males < 30 years old
Pathophysiology
mechanism of injury: fall on an outstretched arm or direct trauma to the shoulder
Pathoanatomy
75-80% of all clavicle fractures will occur in the middle third segment- the junction of the outer and middle thirds is the thinnest part of the bone and is the only area not protected by or reinforced with muscle and ligamentous attachments
it is therefore prone to fracture, particularly with axial loading
displaced fractures:
- medial fragment: sternocleidomastoid muscle pulls the medial fragment posterosuperiorly
- lateral fragment: pectoralis and weight of arm pull the lateral fragment inferomedially
- open fractures usually the result of the medial fragment as it “buttonholes” through the platysma
Associated conditions - rare but may include
ipsilateral scapular fracture
scapulothoracic dissociation (should be considered with significantly displaced/widened fracture fragments)
rib fracture
pneumothorax
neurovascular injury
Treatment
Nonoperative: sling immobilization or figure of 8 brace with gentle ROM exercises at 2-4 weeks and strengthening at 6-10 weeks
indications
< 2cm shortening and displacement
< 1cm displacement of the superior shoulder suspensory complex
no neurovascular injury
outcomes: nonunion (1-5%)
risk factors: comminution, > 100% displacement, > 2cm shortening, advanced age, female gender, poorer cosmesis, decreased shoulder strength and endurance - seen with displaced midshaft clavicle fractures healed with > 2cm of shortening
Operative
closed reduction and intramedullary fixation vs. open reduction internal fixation
indications
- absolute: open fractures, displaced fracture with skin tenting, subclavian artery or vein injury, floating shoulder (clavicle and scapular neck fracture), symptomatic nonunion, symptomatic malunion
- relative and controversial indications: displaced with > 2cm shortening, bilateral displaced clavicle fractures, brachial plexus injury (questionable because 66% have spontaneous return), closed head injury, seizure disorder, polytrauma patient
Closed Reduction and Intramedullary Fixation
contraindications: substantial comminution, segmental fractures
approach: beach chair or supine, posterolateral incision
instrumentation: cannulated screw, specialized screw systems (e.g, Dual Trak), titanium elastic nail, Hagle pin
advantages: smaller incision, less soft-tissue disruption, less prominent hardware, avoids the supraclavicular cutaneous nerves commonly injured with plating
disadvantages: higher complication rate including hardware migration, hardware breakage, temporary brachial plexus palsy, and skin breakdown over the entry portal. Biomechanically inferior to plating
Open Reduction Internal Fixation
approach: beach chair vs. supine, direct superior vs. anterior incision
instrumentation
most common: limited contact, pre-controured, dynamic compression plate with k-wires for preliminary fixation
other options: 3.5mm reconstruction plate, locking plates
technique: superior vs. anteroinferior plating
higher load to failure (superior plating > anterointerior plating)
decreased plate strength with inferior bone comminunion (anteroinferior plating > superior plating)
lower risk of neurovascular injury (anteroinferior plating > superior plating)
lower removal of deltoid attachment (superior plating > anterointerior plating)
advantages: improved results with ORIF for clavicle fractures with > 2cm shortening and > 100% displacement
improved functional outcomes/less pain with overhead activity, faster time to union, decreased symptomatic malunion rate, improved cosmetic satisfaction, improved overall shoulder satisfaction, increased shoulder strength and endurance
disadvantages: increased risk of need for future procedures- implant removal, debridement for infection
outcomes: time to union - operative (16.4 weeks) vs. non-operative (28.4 weeks)
Postoperative Rehabilitation
early: sling for 7-10 days followed by active motion
late
strengthening at ~6 weeks when pain-free motion and radiographic evidence of union
full activity including sports at ~3 months
Complications of Nonoperative treatment: nonunion (1-5%)
risk factors: fracture comminution (Z deformity), fracture displacement, female gender, advanced age, smoker
treatment
if asymptomatic, no treatment necessary
if symptomatic, ORIF with plate and bone graft (particularly atrophic nonunion)
malunion - definition: shortening > 3cm, angulation > 30°, translation > 1cm
presentation
increased fatigue with overhead activities
thoracic outlet syndrome
dissatisfaction with appearance
difficulty with shoulder straps, backpacks and the like
treatment
clavicle osteotomy with bone grafting, if symptomatic
Operative treatment
hardware prominence ~30% of patient request plate removal
superior plates associated with increased irritation
neurovascular injury (3%)
superior plates associated with increased risk of subclavian artery or vein penetration
subclavian thrombosis
nonunion (1-5%)
infection (~4.8%)
risk factors: illicit drug use, diabetes, previous shoulder surgery, mechanical failure (~1.4%), pneumothorax, adhesive capsulitis - 4% in surgical group develop adhesive capsulitis requiring surgical intervention
A 62-year-old gentleman with a 10-year history of Type II diabetes complains of warmth, swelling, and pain in his right foot that has progressively worsened over the past 6 weeks. He denies fevers or chills, and states that the swelling and warmth dissipates each night after he sleeps with his foot elevated on pillows. A clinical photograph of the foot is provided in Figure A. The midfoot is hot to touch and mildly tender with palpation. A radiograph is provided in Figure B. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Custom orthotics with first ray recession and lateral heel posting
Total contact cast and non-weight bearing
Intravenous antibiotics
Talonavicular and tarsometarsal arthrodeses
Transtibial amputation
The clinical presentation, photograph, and radiograph are consistent with diabetic charcot neuropathy of the midfoot.
The lack of systemic symptoms and resolution of erythema with foot elevation rule against the presence of infection. This patient appears to be in the fragmentation phase of the pathologic process given the osteopenia, fracture, and collapse of the midfoot. This is followed by the coalescence and reconstitution phases. The goal of treatment in the first phase is to prevent further collapse and deformity. Given there is no ulceration, and/or deep infection present, this is best accomplished through protected weight bearing and total contact casting. A CROW walker could also be considered.
Examples of total contact casting and a CROW walker are demonstrated in Illustrations A and B. The objective is to prevent high contact stress points and subsequent ulceration in the insensate foot. Surgical intervention should be reserved for debridement of a deep infection from open wounds or arthrodesis of arthritic joints following the consolidation that occurs during the reconstitution phase.
Symptoms
swollen foot and ankle
pain in 50%, painless in 50%
loss of function
Physical exam
acute Charcot neuropathy: swollen , warm, average of 3.3 degrees C warmer than contralateral side, erythema - often confused with infection but erythema will decrease with elevation in Charcot arthropathy, but is unchanged in infection
chronic Charcot neuropathy: structurally deformed foot
bony prominences, rocker bottom deformity , collapse of medial arch,
motion: may be ligamentously unstable
neurovascular: Semmes-Weinstein monofilament testing
Radiographs
obtain standard AP and lateral of foot, complete ankle series
early changes: degenerative changes may mimic osteoarthritis
late changes: obliteration of joint space, fragmentation of both articular surfaces of a joint leading to subluxation or dislocation, scattered “chunks” of bone in fibrous tissue surrounding soft tissue edema, joint distension by fluid
heterotopic ossification
Bone scan - useful to help determine presence of superimposed osteomyelitis
type of study
technetium bone scan: may be positive for a neuropathic joint and osteomyelitis
indium WBC scan: negative (cold) for neuropathic joints and positive (hot) for osteomyelitis
MRI : best for differentiating abscess from soft-tissue swelling - most sensitive in diagnosing soft tissue and/or osteomyelitis
limitations - difficult to differentiate infection from Charcot arthropathy on MRI