ORTHO Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
Why is orthopedic surgery performed?
A
To treat or correct injuries, congenital anomalies, and diseases of the bone, joints, ligaments, tendons, or muscle.
2
Q
What is the primary goal of surgical intervention?
A
Alleviating pain.
3
Q
What do most orthopedic procedures focus on?
A
Restoring bone and joint function that has been lost or diminished because of traumatic injury or disease.
4
Q
What does the skeleton do?
A
Provides structural support to the soft tissues of the body.
5
Q
What two parts is the skeleton divided into?
A
The axial and the appendicular.
6
Q
What is included in the axial skeleton?
A
Skull, face, ear bones, hyoid, sternum, and ribs.
7
Q
What is included in the appendicular skeleton?
A
Bones of the legs, feet, hands, trunk, and spine.
8
Q
The _____ has eight main bones that are connected by tough connective tissues called sutures.
A
Skull (cranium)
9
Q
In the prenatal period, the _____ are wide and soft, which allows the head to mold as it passes through the mother’s pelvis during birth.
A
Sutures
10
Q
What are the two most common sites of fractures in sports and motor vehicle accidents?
A
The zygoma and orbital rim.
11
Q
How many vertebrae are in the vertebral column?
A
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
12
Q
The _____ forms the anterior chest wall and is composed of three sections.
A
Sternum
13
Q
What are the three sections of the sternum?
A
Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.
14
Q
What is the appendicular skeleton composed of?
A
Clavicle, scapula, bones of the arms, hands, legs, feet, and hip bones.
15
Q
What is the longest bone in the body?
A
Femur
16
Q
What are the two types of bone tissues that are found in the body?
A
Cortical bone and cancellous bone
17
Q
Where is cortical bone found?
A
On the surface of bones and is organized in tubular units called osteons.
18
Q
Where is cancellous bone found?
A
The ends of bones and the inner layers.
19
Q
Where is red marrow found?
A
The center of long bones, in the vertebrae, and in the pelvic bones.
20
Q
Long bones are characterized by a middle shaft called the _____.
A
Diaphysis
21
Q
What are the ends of long bones called?
A
Epiphyses
22
Q
The tough bi-layered membrane that covers bones is called ______.
A
Periosteum
23
Q
What is the function of the periosteum?
A
To protect the bone surface and proved attachment for tendons.
24
Q
What do the long bones include?
A
Legs, arms, and digits (fingers and toes).
25
The hollow cavity inside a mature long bone is called the ________.
Medullary canal
26
How are bones classified?
By their shape.
27
The _____ bones are those of the wrist and ankle.
short
28
_______ bones include the vertebrae, spine, and face.
Irregular
29
What is an example of a sesamoid bone?
Patella
30
_____ bones are usually thin compared to other types of bones.
Flat
31
What are some examples of flat bones?
Ribs, cranial bone, scapula, and sternum.
32
What do the landmarks on bones do?
These function as areas of attachment for tendons and ligaments. They also provide a passageway for nerves and blood vessels.
33
How do landmarks appear on the bone?
Raised projections, bumps, ridges, channels, and tunnels.
34
What is a common site for harvesting a bone graft?
Iliac crest
35
The _____ _____ includes areas of the body where two bones meet and some degree of movement occurs.
articular system (joints)
36
How are joints classified?
By the degree of movement they allow and also by the shape of the articulating surfaces.
37
A joint with limited movement or fixed articular surfaces:
Synarthrosis (suture joint)
38
What is an example of a synarthrosis joint?
Between the skull bones.
39
A joint in which the bones are connected by cartilage and only slightly able to move:
Amphiarthrosis (cartilaginous joint)
40
What is an example of an amphiarthrosis joint?
Symphysis pubis
41
A joint that is freely moveable:
Diarthrosis (synovial joint)
42
What is an example of a diarthrosis joint?
Hip or shoulder
43
A ______ is composed of articulating bone ends and connective tissues that surround them.
synovial joint
44
What is the space inside the joint capsule called?
Joint cavity
45
What surrounds the joint and contains nerves and blood vessels?
Joint capsule
46
_____ ______ are separated by immovable cartilaginous or fibrous tissue.
Non-synovial joints
47
A joint that has rocker and cradle components, which allow extension and flexion:
Hinge joint
48
What is an example of a hinge joint?
Elbow
49
A joint in which the two components have complementary convex-concave shape, and the bones slide over each other:
Saddle joint
50
What is an example of a saddle joint?
The thumb
51
A joint in which relatively flat surfaces of bone slide over each other:
The vertebrae
52
A joint with a spherical component and a concave component:
Ball-and-socket joint
53
What is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
Hip and humerus
54
A joint composed of a bony protuberance and an open collar component; this type of joint allows rotation:
Pivot joint
55
What is an example of a pivot joint?
The first and second vertebrae of the neck.
56
A joint in which a small protrusion slides within a slightly elliptical component:
Condyloid joint
57
What is an example of a condyloid joint?
Carpal bones of the wrist
58
Tendons attach _____ to _____.
muscle;bone
59
Ligaments attach _____ to ______.
bone;bone
60
What type of muscle provides movement of the skeletal system?
Striated muscle (skeletal muscle)
61
Is striated muscle movement voluntary or involuntary?
Voluntary
62
What are the primary functions of muscle?
To provide skeletal movement, support the body's posture, and to maintain body heat through anaerobic metabolism.
63
What are the three phases of bone healing?
Inflammatory, reparative, and remodeling.
64
What is the inflammatory phase of bone healing?
The body's clotting mechanism is triggered and fibrin is released to form the basis of platelet aggregation and hematoma, which eventually is absorbed by the body.
65
What happens during the reparative phase of bone?
Growth cells originating from the periosteum develop into rudimentary bone cells and cartilage. These cells proliferate and form a callus that fills in the space.
66
What happens during the remodeling phase of bone?
This is the replacement of the initial bone matrix with compact bone cells and absorption of excess callus.
67
The modern orthopedic table is mainly used for the surgery of the femur and lower leg is called a ______.
Fracture table
68
What is a distraction system?
A system that pulls the fractured limb along the long axis of the bone to hold it in alignment and elevate it for operative exposure.
69
What does the pneumatic tourniquet do?
Provides a bloodless operative site by blocking the flow of blood.
70
What is used to control bleeding areas of the bone?
Bone putty (Ostene)
71
_____ occur as a result of trauma or disease and represent the majority of pathology requiring orthopedic surgery.
Fractures
72
The fracture line is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone:
Transverse fracture
73
______ is the alignment of bone fragments into anatomical position by manipulation or traction.
Closed reduction
74
______ is a mechanical method of applying pulling forces to a fractured bone in order to bring the fragments into alignment.
Traction
75
All are parts of the upper extremities EXCEPT for:
Patella
76
All of the following are diagnostic procedures EXCEPT for:
CT-angioplasty
77
This common fracture pattern is a type of transverse fracture the occurs in an angle.
Oblique
78
A ______ fracture in which the fractured end penetrates the skin.
Open
79
_____ occur as a result of trauma or disease and is the majority of pathology requiring orthopedic surgery.
Fractures
80
Common surgical goals for all types of fractures are alignment of the bones and stabilization of the bone until healing is complete.
True
81
The ______________________ is a retractor designed to be used as levers against the bone, to shift the position.
Bennet
82
The instrument is used to cut bone in a precise direction and angle.
Saw
83
___________________________ are made of titanium or stainless steel and is used to provide stability and support during healing.
Plates
84
The shoulder is composed of _______________________ main bones.
Three
85
The purpose for the ____________________procedure is to reattach the glenoid rim to the joint capsule with biosynthetic or other anchoring device or with heavy sutures.
Bankart
86
In a _________________, the humeral head and glenoid capsule are replaced with artificial components to restore function and relieve pain.
Total shoulder arthroplasty
87
Fracture of the hip includes the following areas:the trochanter, fermoral neck, femoral head and acetabulum.
True
88
All of the following are arthritic conditions in which a hip arthroplasty may be performed for the course of treatment EXCEPT for:
Osteomyelitis
89
During a total hip arthroplasty, the position is either lateral or prone.
False
90
During a total hip arthroplasty, the femoral medullary spaced _________ to prepare the femoral side of the joint.
Reamed
91
_______ is used in arthroplasty procedures to secure the implant and tissue.
Bone cement
92
A(n) _____ _____ is a thick rod inserted into the medullary canal of long bones to provide structural support from inside the bone.
Intramedullary nail
93
_____ _____ are metal or synthetic components used to replace the diseased or injured tissues.
Joint implants
94
______ is a method of external fixation in which a limb is immobilized by applying plaster or synthetic resin.
Casting
95
_____ ______ is edema of tissue within a closed compartment of the body or inside an external cast.
Compartment syndrome
96
What are the two types of traction?
Skin traction and skeletal traction
97
What are the three main bones of the shoulder?
Scapula, clavicle, and humerus.
98
What are the three positions commonly used in shoulder surgery?
Lateral decubitus, Fowler, and beach chair.
99
The rotator cuff is composed of _____ tendons that attach to the humerus.
four
100
What are the muscles that originate at the scapula?
Supraspinatus, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and teres minor.
101
What position is the patient in for a rotator cuff repair?
Beach chair or lateral decubitus.
102
_____ are fin-shaped rasps that closely match the contour of the medullary implant.
Broaches
103
Fractures of the _____ may occur during sports, industrial accidents, or motor vehicle accidents.
Forearm
104
What is a common technique used in fixing fractures of the forearm?
Fixation
105
Fractures of the mid radius and ulna are usually repaired using a ___________.
dynamic compression plate
106
Closed reduction using a cast for external fixation is applied only to _______.
children
107
_______ ________ with external fixation is utilized only as a temporary measure in unstable poly trauma patients or fractures that are highly contaminated.
Closed reduction
108
______ ______ of the radius mid shaft is performed as a temporary repair of severe open fractures or those with severe soft tissue injury.
External fixation
109
What are the components of the external fixation system?
Threaded self-drilling/self tapping pins
Pin-to-bar clamps
Bars
Bar-to-bar clamps
110
The _________ is a common site of injury in a fall.
femoral neck (trochanter)
111
The goal of ___________ is to replace diseased components of the hip joint, including the acetabulum, trochanter, and ball of the femur, with one or more artificial implants.
hip arthroplasty
112
A ________ is a rigid rod that is seated in the medullary canal and held in position with locking screws placed at a 90-degree angle to the nail.
femoral nail
113
The _______ fracture is among the most common injuries of the leg.
femoral shaft
114
What are some instruments that may be used in an intramedullary femoral nailing procedure?
Hip retractors, drill, Steinman pin set, and femoral nailing system.
115
The _____ is the most complicated joint of the body.
knee
116
The _____ is the largest joint, and it carries a great deal of body weight, especially when in motion.
knee
117
What are the two joints of the knee that are surrounded by ligaments and tendons?
Tibiofemoral joint and patellofemoral joint
118
The _______ separate the femoral and tibial condyles and provide shock absorption.
menisci
119
Many procedures of the knee are approached ______.
endoscopically
120
________ is a common technique for assessing and correcting problems arising for injury or disease of the knee.
Knee arthroscopy
121
The ______ is a horseshoe shaped cartilage that distributes load across the joint and creates stability.
meniscus
122
What is the most common knee injury?
A tear in the meniscus
123
The _________ stabilizes the knee in the anterior-posterior position, preventing buckling of the knee.
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
124
How do ACL tears usually occur?
During a twisting motion of the leg, often during sports or strenuous activity.
125
What three cartilaginous surfaces of the knee that are replaced during a total knee arthroplasty?
Patella, tibia, and femur.
126
What are the three common forms of arthritis that affect the knee?
Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and post-traumatic arthritis.
127
_______ is the most common indication for knee arthroplasty.
Osteoarthritis
128
The patient is encouraged to ambulate within ____ hours after surgery.
24
129
Fractures of the _____ are commonly the result of high-velocity impact caused by motor vehicle accident or sports trauma.
tibia
130
What does ischemic mean?
Lacking blood supply
131
The goal of ________ is to increase the quality of life of the patient by offering a means to regain the use of the leg.
transfemoral amputation
132
The most common indication for amputation is ischemia caused by ______.
diabetes mellitus primary vascular disease
133
The _______ of the muscles during a transtibial amputation are extremely important to the rehabilitation of the patient and their ability to bear weight on the stump.
flap design and attachment
134
Fractures and sprains of the _____ and distal tibia are common sport injuries.
foot
135
How many bones does the foot contain?
26
136
Surgical repair of the Achilles tendon is the _________ for active individuals.
golden standard
137
A _________ is one that is shredded and torn and partially avulsed but not completely severed.
ruptured tendon
138
_________ is the fusion of the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints.
Triple arthrodesis
139
In a _______, an enlarged metatarsal head is reduced or removed.
bunionectomy
140
What is the goal of a bunionectomy procedure?
Alleviate pain and increase patient mobility.
141
_________ is a deformity of the first metatarsal head and is associated with various structural anomalies of the entire toe.
Hallux valgus
142
How is infection control addressed in orthopedic surgery?
Laminar airflow, helmet systems, and particular attention to skin preparation.
