Ortho - Spine Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

Most spine surgeries require what type of anesthetic?

A

GETA

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2
Q

Long procedures (6-8 hrs) that are associated with decreased chest wall compliance + restrictive lung disease + risk of large blood loss

A

Scoliosis surgery

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3
Q

What findings might be present on EKG in a patient with scoliosis?

A

RVH: V1-V4 R wave progression
RAE: wide P wave in lead II

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4
Q

anticipate _______ with corrective scoliosis surgery

A

large blood loss

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5
Q

______ ________ can occur If patient has received > 2 L crystalloids intraop

A

dilutional coagulopathy (need to give albumin or blood products)

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6
Q

scoliosis surgery may require ________, but can have consequences if autoregulation/CPP not maintained.

A

intentional hypotension

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7
Q

Expect partial paralysis of diaphragm & cervical spine injury if these 4 muscles are noted to be flaccid?

A

deltoid
biceps
brachialis
brachio-radialis
** innervated by C5

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8
Q

Occurs with complete spinal cord transection above T5/T6

A

autonomic hyperreflexia

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9
Q

C3,4,5 keeps….

A

the DIAPHRAGM alive

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10
Q

SCI above the cardiac accelerator nerves leads to:

A

BRADYCARDIA
T1-T4

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11
Q

SCI at T5 & higher leads to:

A

sympathectomy = hypotension
** DOC = midodrine (A1 agonist)

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12
Q

What is the DOC for hypotension r/t SCI at or below T5?

A

midodrine (A1 agonist)

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13
Q

Severe transient HTN, bradycardia, dysrhythmia’s, severe HA, vision changes, N/V, & anxiety are symtpoms of:

A

autonomic hyperreflexia

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14
Q

Below the level of SCI, you would expect the patient to have cold, dry skin d/t:

A

autonomic hyperrelflexia (reflexive SNS response to pain)
cutaneous vasoconstriction & HTN BELOW level of injury

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15
Q

Above the level of the SCI, you would expect the patient to have hot, diaphoretic skin d/t:

A

autonomic hyperreflexia (lack of PNS compensation)
cutaneous vasodilation ABOVE injury

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16
Q

What are some causes of autonomic hyperreflexia in a patient with a SCI?

A
  • distended/full bladder or bowels
  • noxious stimuli (surgical)
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17
Q

How can we prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?

A
  • deepen anesthetic
  • remove stimuli (drain bladder)
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18
Q

If autonomic hyperreflexia does occur, how do we treat it?

A

deepen anesthetic + direct/fast acting vasodilators (nitroprusside, hydralazine, phentolamine)

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19
Q

SCI at C3-C5 can result in:

A

diaphragm paralysis –> respiratory failure

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20
Q

SCI at C5 - T7 can result in:

A

risk of infection from atelectasis & inability to cough d/t impairment of abdominal & intercostal support of respirations

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21
Q

inability to maintain constant core temperature

A

poikilothermic

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22
Q

inability to vasoconstrict BELOW level of SCI and disrupted temp sensations leads to:

A

poikilothermia

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23
Q

How can we help a SCI patient maintain constant core temp?

A
  • warm IVF
  • warm air/bare hugger
  • increase OR temp if possible
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24
Q

airway management issues are more common in _____ & _____ spine cases

A

cervical & thoracic

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25
severe kyphoscoliosis can result in:
CV compromise (pulm HTN~cor pulmonale)
26
flaccid deltoid & biceps can be a sign of:
cervical spine fracture
27
Recall the 6 P's of a neurovascular assessment:
- pain - poikilothermia - paraesthesia - paralysis - pulselessness - pallor
28
What type of X-ray may be required to better visualize atlanto-axial instability?
LATERAL x-ray **esp in RA pts
29
When is regional or neuraxial anesthesia good for spine pts?
- lumbar laminectomy 1-2 levels (if no upper level involvement) - disc surgery
30
How can we facilitate low venous pressure to surgical site (aka minimize blood loss) with positioning?
- maintaining a free abdomen - reverse trendelenburg
31
Position for a cervical spine surgery with an ANTERIOR approach?
SUPINE
32
Position for a cervical spine surgery with an POSTERIOR approach?
PRONE
33
This position is uncommon in spine procedures and is associated with what risk?
sitting = VAE
34
Which THORACIC surgical approach requires a DLT or bronchial blocker to drop a lung?
ANTERIOR approach
35
A patient undergoing an anterior thoracic surgery will require what airway equipment?
DLT or bronchial blocker
36
Placement of a DLT to collapse the lung on the operative side may be required for surgery above ____
T8
37
A patient undergoing a posterior (prone) thoracic surgery will require what airway equipment?
single lumen ETT
38
What does supine laparotomy mean for an anterior lumbar spine procedure?
pt is supine + a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity
39
What preop medication should a patient receive if procedure requires the prone position?
anti-sialogogue - scope patch, glycopyrrolate glyco safer in elderly (does not cross BBB = less confusion)
40
After a patient has been turned prone and anes circuit is reconnected, what should you check?
assess for BL breath sounds
41
You notice the patient has periorbital &/or circumoral edema after being prone for the procedure, this may also indicate:
likely vocal cords also have edema --> caution with extubation (may need to go to ICU and keep intubated until edema subsides)
42
If using a wilson frame what should you check on the patient?
- males = genitalia - females = breasts **free from pressure
43
Where should arms be if patient is in the prone position?
superman or surrender position with <90 degree adduction
44
Abdominal pressure from prone position can lead to:
- increased intrathoracic pressure - decreased FRC & pulm compliance - decreased venous return - increased bleeding from epidural vein pressure
45
What's a major complication for pts when going prone?
POVL - postop visual loss
46
What are 3 causes of POVL?
- ischemic optic neuropathy (ION) - retinal artery/vein occlusio - cortical brain ischemia
47
Cause of POVL that can occur without any pressure on the eyes?
ION - ischemic optic neuropathy ** blood loss >1000mL, long surgery >6hrs, male, obese, decreased colloid use
48
How can we prevent ION (ischemic optic neuropathy)?
- head neutral/midline - blood transfusion/colloids - minimize intentional hypoT
49
Cortical brain ischemia can lead to POVL from:
intentional hypotension
50
Which 2 table frames allow the abdomen to "hang free" = no pressure on abdomen?
- andrew's frame - jackson spine table
51
Prone effects on the cardiovascular system:
- pooling of blood in extremities - compression of abdominal muscles - decrease VR/preload, CO, BP
52
Prone effects on respiratory system:
- compression of abdomen & thorax - decrease total lung compliance - increase WOB
53
Prone effects on neuro system?
extreme head rotation = decrease venous drainage & CBF
54
What is the most stable prone positioning device?
Mayfield tongs (pins in head)
55
What should you have ready to prepare for possible blood loss & transfusion in a spine case?
- 2 large bore PIVs - 2 units PRBCs in OR cooler - blood tubing primed & set up in blood warmer
56
What is a cell saver?
“Cell savers” are instruments that collect blood lost during surgery. The RBCs are washed with normal saline and concentrated to make an approximate 225 mL unit with a hematocrit of ~ 55%. RBC units can be either directly transfused into the patient or washed again and stored
57
What is the ABL formula?
(Initial Hct - target Hct) / initial Hct
58
When EBL is anticipated to be 500-1000mL, what can be done preoperatively?
autologous blood donation 2-4 wks prior
59
Autologous blood donation is contraindicated in:
significant cardiac disease & infection
60
Tranexemic acid (TXA) dosages:
10 mg/kg IV bolus gtt: 2 mg/kg/hr **max = 2.5g
61
Aminocaproid acid (Amicar) dosages: **not as common anymore
100 mg/kg IV bolus gtt: 10-15 mg/kg/hr
62
This is done in shoulder & hip surgeries but is not recommended for spinal surgeries d/t risk of end-organ ischemia:
intentional hypotension **surgeon may still request it
63
used to assess/preserve sensory & motor neurological function during spine procedures?
neurophysiologic monitoring - SSEP - MEP - EMG
64
SSEP stands for:
somatosensory evoked potential
65
MEP stands for:
motor evoked potential
66
What does SSEP monitor?
the dorsal (afferent) column pathways of the spinal cord that are responsible for proprioception & vibration **impulse comes from peripheral nerve & measured centrally
67
What does MEP monitor?
the anterior (efferent) portion of spinal cord **impulse triggered in brain and monitored in specific muscle groups
68
These are adverse effects of which neurophysiological monitoring: - cognitive defects - seizures - intraop awareness - scalp burns - cardiac arrhythmia's - bite injuries
MEPs
69
MEP monitoring should be avoided in what 3 main patients?
- active seizures - vascular brain clips (heat) - cochlear implants
70
monitors nerve root injury during pedicle screw placement & nerve decompression:
EMG - electromyogram
71
describes the signal strength
AMPLITUDE
72
the time it takes for a signal to travel through spinal cord
LATENCY
73
Name 6 cofounding factors that can affect amplitude & latency of neuro monitoring?
o Hypotension o Hypothermia o Hypocarbia o Hypoxia o Anemia o Anesthetics
74
How do volatile agents affect amplitude & latency of neuro monitoring?
dose dependent (keep at 0.5 MAC or less) - decrease in amplitude - increase in latency
75
Which anesthetic agent should be eliminated with MEP monitoring?
Nitrous Oxide
76
Best anesthetic option for procedures requiring neuro monitoring?
TIVA - opioids, ketamine, versed **but MEPs are depressed with propofol
77
If performing MEPs, what meds should be avoided?
- NMBA (but ok for induction) - propofol
78
If there are acute changes in amplitude/latency then:
STOP surgery
79
Spine surgery pts may require postop ventilation if:
- long case (>4 hrs = prone/airway edema) - thoracic cavity invasion - EBL >30ml/kg or > 2L - facial/laryngeal edema - preop VC < 30-35% of predicted
80
How do you assess for laryngeal edema if pt has facial swelling after being prone in a spine case?
deflate ETT cuff --> check for leak -- if no cuff leak = airway edema = keep intubated & go to ICU
81
Caution with this multimodal analgesic in postop spine cases:
NSAIDs = bleeding
82
What are some multimodal analgesics for postop pain mgmt for spine cases?
- multimodal - systemic opioids (PCA) - LA infiltration wound - intrathecal (spinal) morphine: 0.1-0.2 mg + LA - continuous epidural infusion - erector spinae block
83
What's the dose of epidural hydromorphone PF (preservative free)?
0.5 - 1 mg
84
What spine procedure has the highest risk for VAE?
LAMINECTOMY ** b/c large amount of exposed bone & surgical site is above heart
85
Signs of VAE intraop?
unexplained hypotension increased end-tidal nitrogen decreased ETCO2