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4th Year Revision > Orthodontics > Flashcards

Orthodontics Flashcards

(91 cards)

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1
Q

What are the skeletal classifications? (3)

A
  • class I maxilla lies 2-4mm in front of mandible
  • class II maxilla lies >4mm in front of mandible
  • class III mandible lies <2mm behind the maxilla
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2
Q

What is the vertical assessment of the patient? (2)

A
  • frankfort mandibular plane angle

- lower facial height

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3
Q

What points does the frankfort plane intersect? (2)

A
  • inferior margin of orbit

- superior margin of external acoustic meatus

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4
Q

What is class II div I incisors?

A

Upper central incisors are proclined. Lower incisor edges lie posteriorly to cingulum plateau of upper incisors

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5
Q

What are the types of overbite? (3)

A
  • complete
  • incomplete
  • traumatic
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6
Q

What is the nasion?

A

The most anterior point of the fronto nasal suture in the median plane

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7
Q

What is the pogonion?

A

The most anterior point of the bony chin

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8
Q

What is the menton?

A

The most anterior inferior midline point on the mandibular symphysis

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9
Q

What is the gonion?

A

The constructed point of intersection of the ramus plane and the mandibular plane

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10
Q

What is the E plane angle?

A

Ricketts aesthetic plane

In a balanced force the lower lip is +2mm and the upper lip is -2mm

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11
Q

What materials do we use for fixed appliances? (5)

A
  • brackets
  • wires
  • elastomers
  • coil springs
  • mini implants/screws
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12
Q

What materials do we use for removable appliances? (3)

A
  • wires
  • acrylic
  • thermoplastic
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13
Q

What are the ideal material properties of orthodontic brackets? (5)

A
  • strong
  • bio compatible
  • bondable
  • aesthetic
  • low friction
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14
Q

What are the types of ceramic brackets? (2)

A
  • mono crystalline

- poly crystalline

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15
Q

What are the stages of fixed appliances? (2)

A
  • aligning and levelling

- space closure/major tooth movements

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16
Q

What are the different shapes of orthodontic arch wires? (3)

A
  • round
  • rectangular
  • square
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17
Q

What are the characteristics of nickel titanium wires? (2)

A
  • shape memory

- super elasticity

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18
Q

What is resilience?

A

The amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to its proportional limits

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19
Q

What is formability?

A

The amount of permanent deformation that a wire can withstand before failing

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20
Q

What are the ideal properties of aligning arch wires? (4)

A
  • formable
  • cheap
  • low friction
  • flexible
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21
Q

What is another name for heat treating?

A

Annealing

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22
Q

How do you heat treat SS? (2)

A
  • removes stress

- increases elastic limit/resilience

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23
Q

What are the types of coil springs? (2)

A
  • open

- closed

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24
Q

What materials are elastomeric made out of?

A

Polyurethane

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25
What are the properties of polyurethane? (4)
- elongates on stretching - contracts - full recovery to original shape - quick force degradation
26
What are the uses of thermoplastics? (2)
- retainers | - aligners
27
What are miniscrews?
Temporary anchorage devices that provide temporary mechanical retention
28
What are miniscrews made out of?
Titanium alloy
29
What are the comments types of fixed appliances?
Variations on the pre adjusted edgewise system
30
What are the indications for fixed appliances? (5)
- rotations - multiple tooth movements - bodily movement - space closure - lower arch treatment
31
What are the contraindications for fixed appliances? (4)
- poor oral hygiene - active caries - poor motivation - mild malocclusions
32
What are the risks of fixed appliances? (6)
- decalcification - root resorption - loss of periodontal support - TMJ dysfunction - failed treatment and relapse - pain, ulceration etc
33
What are the types of attachment to the tooth? (2)
- bands | - bonds
34
What teeth would you usually use bands on?
Molars or premolars or teeth with ceramic crowns
35
What are bonds?
Perforated or mesh bases held on to the teeth by acid etch composite
36
What are the types of brackets? (3)
- modules and wire ties - self ligating - ceramic brackets
37
What are the phases to active treatment? (3)
- alignment and levelling - major tooth movement - finishing
38
What types of wire would you use in the alignment phase?
Light flexible
39
What is the alignment phase? (4)
- usually arch wires changed each visit - wires of increasing stiffness - deformation energy dissipates as wires straighten and pull teeth into alignment - each new wire is deformed less but has a higher deformation energy
40
What occurs in the major tooth movement stage? (2)
- usually left unchanged each visit | - sliding mechanics is when teeth are pushed or pulled along the arch wire by power chain, coil springs or elastic bands
41
What occurs in the finishing stage? (3)
- detailing of alignment and interdigitation - fine adjustments to bracket position - some bends to arch wire
42
What is intra membranous bone formation?
When mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts which calcify into bone
43
What is the location of intra membranous bone formation? (2)
- maxilla | - mandible
44
What is endo chondrial bone formation?
When cartilage cells hypertrophy into a calcified matrix and osteogenic invasion creates bone
45
What is the best age for treatment using a growth modifying appliance in females and males? (2)
- 12-14 for males | - 11-14 for females
46
What is the treatment for a class III occlusion maxillary deficiency?
Face mask
47
What is the definition for a functional appliance?
An appliance that utilises or redirects the forces of masticatory and/or circum oral muscles to produce or permit tooth movement and may modify facial growth
48
How do non functional appliances work? (3)
- stretch the muscles of mastication - posture mandible - differential tooth eruption
49
What are the skeletal effects of functional appliances? (4)
- causes forward displacement of the mandible - places a backward force on the maxillary arch - accelerates condylar growth - redirects condylar growth
50
What functional appliance can you use if the patient is not very compliant?
Herbst appliance
51
When should you prescribe a functional appliance? (4)
- mild to moderate increase in overjet - increase in overbite - active facial growth - willingness to comply
52
What are the indications for functional appliances? (6)
- motivated patient - pre adolescent growth phase - skeletal discrepancy mild or moderate - increased overjet/overbite - procaines maxillary incisors - well aligned arches
53
What are the contraindications for functional appliances? (5)
- poor motivation - age>14 - poor dental health - condylar disease - proclaimed lower incisors
54
What are the advantages of functional appliances?(5)
- removable and easy to clean - may avoid extractions - accelerates skeletal growth - early treatment - less damage to tooth tissue
55
Why do functional appliances have less damage to tooth tissue? (3)
- less root resorption - less chance of decalcification - less effect on bone levels
56
What are the disadvantages of functional appliances? (3)
- compliance - lack of detailed tooth movement - candidosis
57
What are the types of functional appliances? (5)
- anderson - twin block - frankel - bass - herbst
58
What are the examples of removable appliances? (4)
- an active plate - functional appliance - space maintainer - retainer
59
What are the drawbacks of removable appliances? (5)
- can tip teeth only - can only move a few teeth at a time - can be taken out by the patient - adverse effects on speech - poorly tolerated in lower arch
60
What are the advantages of removable appliances? (4)
- relatively simple to use - difficult to over activate - good anchorage - less chair side time and low cost
61
What are the components of removable appliances? (4)
- active components - retentive components - anchorage - baseplate
62
What is the value of forces required to move teeth?
No more than 24-40grams per teeth
63
What kind of clasps can you get? (3)
- adams or delta clasps - southend clasps - ball hooks
64
What is the definition for anchorage? (2)
- the area from which the force is applied to move the teeth | - for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
65
How do you increase anchorage? (5)
- clasp more teeth - move only one or two teeth at a time - use lighter forces - occlusal capping - add headgear
66
What is the role of the baseplate? (4)
- connects all components - vehicle for transmission of force from anchorage to active components - supports anchorage through palatal coverage - can incorporate bite planes
67
What are the uses of anterior bite planes? (2)
- reduce deep overbites | - rarely used to free occlusal interferences
68
How do anterior bite planes work? (2)
- work by allowing posterior teeth to erupt | - temporary increase in face height accommodated by facial growth
69
What are the additional claimed effects on an anterior inclined bite plane? (2)
- proclamation of lower incisors | - functional effect
70
What are posterior bite planes used for?
To free occlusal interferences
71
What are the advantages of removable appliances? (3)
- removed for cleaning - excessive forces cannot be applied - little clinical time needed
72
What are the disadvantages of removable appliances? (4)
- limited to tipping movements only - limited rotational movement on incisors only - problems with retention - not well tolerated in lower arch
73
What are the indications for removable appliances? (4)
- minor tooth movements in mixed dentition as first phase of 2 phase treatment - to prevent damage to dentition and periodontium whilst permanent dentition established - to establish normal function - to reduce deep overbites in growing patients
74
What are the active components? (2)
- springs | - screws
75
What are the advantages of springs? (2)
- cheap | - less pt compliance
76
What are the disadvantages of screws? (2)
- expensive | - bulky
77
What are the advantages of screws? (4)
- effective speech more - ease of insertion - minimal operator skill - retention on teeth being moved
78
What are the alternative sources of space? (4)
- extractions - increased arch length - increased arch width - inter proximal reduction
79
What factors should you consider for borderline extractions? (4)
- profile - skeletal pattern - class II div 2 - MH
80
When should you extract upper central incisors? (3)
- trauma - dilaceration - ectopic
81
When should you extract 2 lower incisors? (2)
- severe lower incisor crowding | - severe displacement of incisors
82
When would you extract one lower incisor? (4)
- class 3 malocclusion - lower incisor crowding - severe rotation - severe displacement
83
Why are premolars the favourite choice for orthodontic extraction? (4)
- no aesthetic impact on smile - space near to crowding - straightforward extraction - molars provide good anchorage for appliances
84
When would you extract second permanent molars? (3)
- only provides a very little space to relieve crowding - can help with moving upper posterior teeth distally - may dis impact 3rd molar
85
What non orthodontic factors would you consider for tooth extractions? (5)
- tooth quality - pathology - congenitally absent teeth - abnormal tooth shape - difficult extractions
86
What factors should you consider when choosing the retention regimen? (5)
- likely stability of result - initial malocclusion - oral hygiene - compliance of patient - pt preference
87
What are the types of retainers? (3)
- essex retainer - hawley retainer - bonded retainer
88
What is the overjet normally?
2-4mm
89
What features of the lip do we assess? (4)
- lip competence - lip fullness - nasolabial angle - method of achieving an anterior seal
90
What is the nasolabial angle?
Formed between the base of nose and the upper lip and should be 90-110*
91
What factors indicate that a low fraenal attachment is causing a midline diastema? (3)
- when the frenum is placed under tension there is blanching of the incisive papilla - radiographically a notch can be seen at the crest of the interdental bone between upper central incisors - anterior teeth may be crowded

4th Year Revision (12 decks)

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