Orthopaedics Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

What is the definition of osteoporosis?

A

Bone density over 2.5 SDs less than average for a young, healthy person of the same age and gender

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2
Q

What is the definition of osteopenia?

A

Bone density over 1.5 SDs less than average for a young, healthy person of the same age and gender

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3
Q

How would you manage an open fracture?

A

A-E assessment
Assess neurovascular supply of the limb
Remove any gross contamination + photograph the wound
Cover in saline-soaked gauze + splint on backslab
IV antibiotics within the hour and 8 hourly
Take to theatre <24 hours

In highly contaminated wounds, take straight to theatre

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4
Q

What nerve is likely to be damaged in a mid-shaft of the humerus fracture?

A

Radial nerve

Runs along the radial groove of the humerus

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5
Q

What is the most common nerve affected by supracondylar fractures?

A

Median nerve

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6
Q

What is the most common nerve to be affected in shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve

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7
Q

What is the most common nerve affected in hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic nerve

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8
Q

What is the most common nerve affected when the neck of the fibula is fractured?

A

Common peroneal nerve

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9
Q

What are the features of a Colle’s fracture?

A

Usually a fall onto outstretched hand
Dorsal displacement of the distal radius
Dinner fork type of deformity

Classic triad:
Transverse fracture of the radius
1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
Dorsal displacement and angulation

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10
Q

How is a Colle’s fracture managed?

A

Closed reduction and fixation in a Colle’s cast (6 weeks)
Colle’s cast holds the wrist in a flexed, ulnar deviated position

More displaced fractures may require plates and pins

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11
Q

What are the features of a Smith’s fracture?

A

Palmar displacement of the distal radius

Often caused by fall onto the back of the hand/while holding something

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12
Q

What are the features of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Anatomical snuffbox tenderness
FOOSH
Wrist swelling
Pain worse on circumduction and resisted pronation, ulnar deviation

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13
Q

How do you diagnose a scaphoid fracture?

A

X-ray of the wrist- incl scaphoid views
If no signs of fracture but clinical suspicion, repeat x-ray in 10 days

Ct superior and MRI = definitive but rarely used unless radiographs completely inconclusive

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14
Q

Why do we worry about scaphoid fractures?

A

Risk of avascular necrosis of bone due to retrograde blood supply from the hand

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15
Q

How are scaphoid fractures managed?

A

If stable and non-displaced: Cast immobilisation “Futuro splint”
If unstable or displaced: Herbert screw or ORIF

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16
Q

What is the blood supply to the neck of the femur?

A

Medial circumflex branch of the femoral artery

-> risk of avascular necrosis in intracapsular fractures

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17
Q

What is often the most appropriate pain relief to prescribe in NOF fractures?

A

Femoral block

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18
Q

What is the classification used for intracapsular NOF fractures?

A

Garden classification:

1: Non-displaced and incomplete
2: Non-displaced and complete
3: Displaced but incompletely so
4: Complete + completely displaced

1,2 = dynamic hip screw
3,4= Hemiarthroplasty
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19
Q

What are the types of extracapsular NOF fractures?

How are they managed?

A

Intertrochanteric
Subtrochanteric

  • if reduced and non-displaced: hip screw
  • if displaced: IM nail in sub-trochanteric, Screw in intertrochanteric
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20
Q

Which classification is used in fibular fractures?

A

Weber classification

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21
Q

What is the classification system for growth plate fracture?

A

Salter-Harris Fracture:

1: transverse fracture between metaphysic and epiphysis
2: most common, as above but with separation of a fraction of metaphysis
3: Transverse fracture of the physis and epiphysis, may affect the point surface
4: fracture through all three parts and into the joint
5: Crush fracture causing imposition of the plate

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22
Q

How are Salter-Harris fractures managed?

A

1 & 2: closed reduction, cast immobilisation + reassess 7-10 days
3 & 4: ORIF with wires or traction screws
5: often diagnosis made in retrospect

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23
Q

What is the most common place for a buckle fracture?

A

Distal radial metaphysis due to a fall onto an outstretched hand

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24
Q

What are the features of supracondylar fractures?

A

Fracture of olecranon
Anterior fat pad showing joint effusion- may also have posterior fat pad
Anterior line of the humerus normally intersects the middle third of the capitellum, so if this isn’t the case then there is often displacement.
May have neuromuscular compromise

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25
What are the differentials for a limping child?
``` 0-5: Developmental dysplasia of the hip Toddler's fracture Transient synovitis Neurological conditions e.g. cerebral palsy ``` ``` 5-10: Perthe's disease Transient synovitis Reactive arthritis / Septic arthritis Idiopathic juvenile arthritis Osgood schlatter's ``` ``` 10-15: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis Trauma Infection / inflammation Transient synovitis ```
26
What are the features of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Usually an overweight, male early teen Painful limp on affected side, c/o sore hip and knee often Limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present 2 months prior to hip slipping. Limited ROM with pain elicited at extremes Involuntary muscle guarding/spasm Bilateral in 20%.
27
How is slipped upper femoral epiphysis managed?
Bed rest and non-weight bearing. Aim to avoid avascular necrosis. Usually open reduction and internal fixation with screw left in-situ Often bilateral procedure with prophylactic screw being placed into opposite side
28
What is Perthe's disease?
Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the capital epiphysis of the femur Presents with a painful limp 4-6w week history of worsening limp Pain may be referred to the knee Loss of internal rotation, abduction and flexion On x-ray, loss of shape of spherical head of femur Remove pressure from joint to allow normal development. Physiotherapy. Usually self-limiting if diagnosed and treated promptly.
29
How is developmental dysplasia of the hip diagnosed and managed?
Ortolani's and Barlow's tests at birth | USS scan of the hips of all breech babies / those at suspicion of DDH when >4m old
30
How is developmental dysplasia of the hip diagnosed and managed?
Ortolani's and Barlow's tests at birth USS scan of the hips of all breech babies / those at suspicion of DDH when >4m old Managed using Pavlik harness or in more severe cases, reduction surgery
31
What are the symptoms of compartment syndrome?
Initially: Pain out of proportion to injury, worse with stretching Tight/woody feeling tissue which is very tender to touch Paraesthesia, swelling Pulses maintained in early stages ``` Later: Worsened pain and swelling Muscle weakness/paralysis Cold peripheries, absent pulses 6 Ps of ischaemia ```
32
How is compartment syndrome managed?
Fasciotomy within 5 hours (tissue death can occur within 4-6hrs) Escharotomy in case of external burn scars causing compression Debridement of any clearly necrotic tissue Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy and result in renal failure and for this reason these patients require aggressive IV fluids
33
How is compartment syndrome diagnosed?
Intracompartmental pressure measurements- Pressures in excess of 20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg is diagnostic Compartment syndrome will typically not show any pathology on an x-ray Regular U&Es should also be taken due to the risk of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobulinuria
34
Where is compartment syndrome most common?
Anterior compartment of the lower leg following fibular fractures Affects deep peroneal nerve- footdrop, sensory loss between big toe and 2nd toe
35
What is the most common cause of sciatica?
Lumbar disk herniation
36
What is the management for non-critical sciatica?
``` Try to stay as active as possible Physiotherapy NSAIDs + PPI, weak opioids Weight loss TENS Referral to pain clinic: pregabalin/gabapentin, topical capsaicin, epidural injections ```
37
What are the rotator cuff muscles and their functions?
Supraspinatus- abduction Infraspinatus- external rotation Teres Minor- external rotation Subscapularis- internal rotation
38
Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely to suffer a tear?
Supraspinatus
39
What is the nerve supply to the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis: subscapular nerve Teres minor: axillary nerve
40
What are the signs of rotator cuff injury?
Painful arc of abduction. With subacromial impingement, this is typically between 60 and 120 degrees. With rotator cuff tears the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Tenderness over anterior acromion May have asymmetry of muscles
41
What are the tests for the individual rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus: empty can test + pain arc 6-120 degrees Infraspinatus + teres minor: painful resisted external rotation Teres minor: painful external rotation in ABduction Subscapularis: Gerber's lift off test
42
How are rotator cuff tears managed?
Simple analgesia Physiotherapy Subacromial steroid + anaesthetic injections Surgical repair of tear with bone anchoring Arthroplasty
43
What is adhesive capsulitis?
Frozen shoulder Glenohumoral joint capsule contraction and adhesion to humeral head - pain and reduced ROM Increased risk in diabetes, thyroid disease + those having had breast/shoulder surgery
44
What are the features of adhesive capsulitis?
Deep, constant pain in the shoulder May radiate to biceps Disturbs sleep Joint stiffness and reduced ROM, especially in external rotation Both active and passive movement are affected May have loss of arm swing, deltoid atrophy and tenderness on palpation
45
How is adhesive capsulitis managed?
``` Self-limiting over months-years but may recur Physiotherapy NSAIDs Glenohumoral joint steroid injection surgical release ```
46
What are the symptoms of subacromial bursitis?
``` Lateral or anterior shoulder pain Pain worse at night time Overhead reaching and lifting is very difficult Reduced ROM May have redness or swelling ``` Positive: empty can test, pain arc 60-120, speed's test (painful forward flexion)
47
What are the features of supraspinatus impingement?
Usually caused by overhead lifting/trauma or secondary to other shoulder pathology Progressive ache Tenderness and burning which may radiate to the lateral/anterior arm Increasing pain on reaching and overhead work Weakened abduction or forward flexion - hard to brush hair, get dressed etc Reduced ROM Pain arc 60-120 If arm is fully externally rotated, no pain on abduction as this isolates supraspinatus
48
What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?
Anterior (95%), usually due to trauma e.g. FOOSH
49
What are the features of shoulder dislocation?
Severe pain and inability to move shoulder Arm held in external rotation and abduction Empty glenoid fossa on palpation with clear displacement of scapula Humeral head may be able to be palpated below coracoid process Numbness/paraesthesia/pain in region supplied by axillary nerve / brachial plexus injury
50
How is shoulder dislocation investigated?
Full examination + assessment of integrity of NV supply Shoulder x-ray: AP, lateral and Y-view needed Hill-Sachs deformity is a sign of anterior: indentation on posterolateral humeral head Light-bulb sign = posterior dislocation MRI scan to assess soft tissues
51
What is the cause of medial scapular winging?
Damage to long thoracic nerve or serratus anterior Most commonly traction nerve injury e.g. weight-lifting, compressive injury or iatrogenic nerve injury Causes discomfort trying to sit back against a chair
52
What causes lateral winging of the scapula?
Damage to trapezius muscle or spinal accessory nerve | Most common caused by iatrogenic interventions
53
What are the symptoms of fibromyalgia?
Chronic, widespread pain- especially where muscle/tendons attach to bone Morning stiffness Tactile allodynia Headache, fatigue, poor sleep ability/quality, cognitive dysfunction Autonomic dysfunction: IBS, weight problems, palps, sexual dysfunction, night sweats
54
What are the criteria for diagnosis of fibromyalgia?
>3 months of symptoms Affects both sides of the body, above and below the waist and along the axial spine Widespread pain index + symptom severity index scores 18 tender points exist, pain on palpation of >11= suggestive of diagnosis Laboratory tests and imaging all normal
55
How is fibromyalgia managed?
Low dose amitryptiline SSRIs Anticonvulsants Avoid NSAID and opioid analgesia Psychological therapy and input from pain management team.
56
What are the features of medial epicondylitis?
Golfer's elbow Pain at medial elbow which radiates down arm Worsens over weeks-months Usually affects dominant side Tenderness on palpation of medial epicondyle with concurrent stiffness and weakness Numbness or tingling in ulnar nerve distribution Resisted wrist flexion elicits pain
57
What are the features of lateral epicondylitis?
More common than medial- Tennis elbow Pain at elbow, radiating down arm + usually dominant side Local tenderness on palpation of lateral epicondyle and extensor tendons Reduced grip strength Resisted wrist extension elicits pain
58
How would you examine for achilles tendon rupture? | What is the gold standard investigation?
Simmond's triad: Patient should lay proned Look for abnormal angle of declination: greater dorsiflexion of the injured foot compared to the uninjured limb Feel for a gap in the tendon Squeeze the calf (simony's test) Rupture can be confirmed by USS
59
What are the indications for ankle x-ray?
Malleolar pain + bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone/ bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone/ inability to walk four weight bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department
60
What is the most common mechanism for ankle sprain? | Which ligament is most commonly affected?
Inversion injuries | Anterior talofibular ligament
61
What are the causes of avascular necrosis of the hip?
Trauma and NOF fractures Long term steroid use Alcohol excess Chemotherapy
62
What are the risk factors for biceps tendon rupture? | Where is rupture most common?
``` Age >60 Heavy overhead lifting Shoulder overuse / injury where more stress on biceps Steroids Smoking ```
63
What are the symptoms of biceps rupture?
Sudden pop or tear at the shoulder which is followed by pain, bruising and swelling. 'Popeye' deformity; this is when the muscle bulk results in a bulge in the middle of the upper arm. Weakness in the shoulder and elbow typically follows including difficulty with supination
64
How would you diagnose biceps tendon rupture?
Examination of the biceps Biceps squeeze: if in-tact, squeeze will cause supination USS MRI if still ambiguous
65
What is Paget's disease of bone?
Imbalance of bone remodelling process, causing focal bone resorption followed by excessive and chaotic bone deposition. Affects: spine -> skull -> pelvis -> femur Small risk of sarcomatous change + risk of cardiac failure
66
What are the signs of Paget's disease?
Symptoms: bone pain, joint pain and swelling, fractures, fatigue, hearing loss, neuropathy, nerve pain, spinal stenosis Serum ALP raised Abnormal thickened and sclerotic areas of bone on x-ray Can cause Hypercalcaemia and hyperuricaemia
67
How is Paget's disease of the bone managed?
Bisphosphonates
68
What are symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Pain/paraesthesia in thumb, index and middle finger Need to shake hand to provide relief Struggle with grip Often worst at night
69
What are signs of carpal tunnel syndrome on examination?
Wasting of the thenar eminence Weakness of thumb abduction especially Tinel's sign: tapping causes numbness Phalen's test: flexion of wrist >1min causes symptoms
70
What is the management of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Steroid injection Wrist splint, especially at night time Surgical decompression of the carpal tunnel
71
What is a late sign of cauda equine which may indicate irreversible damage?
Urinary incontinence
71
What is a late sign of cauda equina which may indicate irreversible damage?
Urinary incontinence
72
What is cubital tunnel syndrome? | What are the main features?
Compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through the cubital tunnel Often a history of OA or prior trauma Features: Numbness and tingling in 4th and 5th fingers, becomes constant Weakness and Hypothenar eminence wasting Pain worse when leaning on affected elbow
73
What is De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
Inflammation of the sheath containing extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons Typically affects women between the ages of 30 and 50
74
What are signs of De Quervain's tenosynovitis on examination?
Pain on radial side of the wrist Tenderness over radial styloid process Painful abduction against resistance Finkelstein's test
75
What is the most common cause of discitis and how is it best diagnosed?
Staphylococcus aureus MRI +/- CT-guided biopsy
76
How should discitis be managed?
6 weeks IV antibiotics - guided by blood/biopsy cultures All patients should be investigated for endocarditis e.g. via TTE or TOE as it is usually due to haematogenous seeding
77
Which fingers are most commonly affected by Dupuytren's contracture?
Little and ring fingers
78
What are differentials for elbow pain?
``` Medial epicondylitis: golfer's elbow Lateral epicondylitis: tennis elbow Radial tunnel syndorme Cubital tunnel syndrome Olecranon bursitis Fracture- supracondylar common esp in children. ```
79
What is a Bennett's fracture?
Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint (knuckle) Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights X-ray: triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpal
80
What are the features of post-op fat emboli?
Resp: Early persistent tachycardia, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, hypoxia, pyrexia Derm: Red/brown flat petechial rash Neuro: confusion and agitation, retinal haemorrhages May have peripheral ground-glass changes on CT thorax
81
What are symptoms of trochanteric bursitis / greater trochanteric pain syndrome?
Gradual onset of pain over lateral side of the hip radiating down outer thigh Burning/aching pain Worse on activity/standing after sitting Tenderness on palpation of the greater trochanter Most common in women 50-70 Can be result of repetitive movements, trauma, inflammatory conditions (RA) or infection.
82
What special tests can be done to identify trochanteric bursitis?
Trendelenburg test Resisted abduction of the hip Resisted internal rotation of the hip Resisted external rotation of the hip
83
How is trochanteric bursitis managed?
RICE Physio Steroid injection
84
What are the signs of hip dislocation?
Usually occurs following direct trauma e.g. RTA or fall from height 90% posterior: shortened, adducted, and internally rotated leg In anterior: abducted and externally rotated. No leg shortening. May have sciatic or femoral nerve injury and later avascular necrosis
85
What are considerations for treating intracapsular hip fractures?
Undisplaced Fracture: internal fixation, or hemiarthroplasty if unfit. Displaced Fracture: NICE recommend replacement arthroplasty to all patients with a displaced intracapsular hip fracture total hip replacement is favoured to hemiarthroplasty if patients: were able to walk independently out of doors with max a stick are not cognitively impaired and are medically fit for surgery
86
What are the common features of psoas abscess?
Fever Back/flank pain Limp Weight loss Pain elicited on hip flexion against resistance or on hyperextension of the hip
87
How are psoas abscesses managed?
Antibiotics Percutaneous drainage (90% successful) Surgical management
88
What are common features of meniscal tear?
``` Pain worse on straightening the knee Locking of the knee joint + may 'give way' Recurrent episodes of pain and effusion Delated knee swelling Tenderness along the joint line ``` Usually occurs due to rotating sport injury
89
How does spinal stenosis usually present?
Usually gradual onset Unilateral or bilateral leg pain, numbness, and weakness which is worse on walking. Resolves when sits down. May or may not have back pain. Relieved by sitting down, leaning forwards and crouching down Clinical examination is often normal Requires MRI to confirm diagnosis
90
What are the symptoms of different lumbar disc prolapses?
L3: anterior thigh numbness, weak quads, reduced knee reflex, +ve femoral stretch L4: anterior knee numbness, weak quads, reduced knee reflex, +ve femoral stretch L5: dorsal foot numbness, weak dorsiflexion, reflexes intact, +ve sciatic stretch S1: lateral foot and leg numbness, weak plantar flexion, reduced ankle reflex, +ve sciatic stretch
91
Where is the most common place for a stress fracture?
2nd metatarsal shaft
92
What are the features of hand OA?
``` Bilateral CMCs and DIPs most commonly affected Intermittent ache Stiffness after inactivity Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes Square thumbs ```
93
What are the complications of hip replacement?
``` VTE Intraoperative fracture Nerve injury Surgical site infection Leg length discrepancy Posterior dislocation Aseptic loosening of the prosthesis Prosthesis infection ```
94
How is osteomyelitis managed?
6 weeks IV flucloxacillin Clindamycin if penicillin allergic Most commonly staph aureus infection
95
What are features of osteoporotic vertebral fractures?
May be asymptomatic and found on c-ray Acute back pain Breathing difficulties May have history of trauma/fall (pain often out of proportion with mechanism) Loss of height Kyphosis Localised tenderness on palpation of spinous processes
96
Where is the most common site for humerus fracture?
Surgical neck of the humerus
97
What are features of osteomalacia on blood tests?
Low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP and raised PTH
98
What is the telltale sign of Paget's disease on blood results?
Isolated rise in ALP