Orthopaedics Flashcards

(122 cards)

1
Q

What is a hemiarthroplasty?

A

Replacing only half the joint e.g. head of femur in the hip joint only as opposed to a total hip replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is given to patient before/during a joint replacement surgery?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics
Tranexamic acid
VTE prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What types of fracture typically only occur in children?

A

Greenstick, buckle, salter-harris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Multiple fragments of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A fall on an outstretched hand is likely to result in what two kinds of fracture?

A

Colle’s fracture and scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Colle’s fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the distal radius near the wrist causing the distal portion to displace posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a key sign of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why do displaced scaphoid fractures require surgical fixation?

A

They have a retrograde blood supply which can result in avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Ottawa criteria for ankle x-rays following ankle injury?

A

Pain is present in the malleolar zone and one of the following:
1. Inability to walk four steps
2. Bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone
3. Bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can you break you pelvis in only one place?

A

No due to it being a ring you have to break it in two locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the most common sites for pathological fractures?

A

Femur and vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can you achieve mechanical alignment of a fracture?

A

Closed reduction via manipulation of the limb OR open reduction via surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can you provide relative stability to a joint in order to allow it to heal?

A

External casts, K wires, intramedullary wires, screws, plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a fat embolism?

A

Occur 24-72 hours following a fracture in a long bone, fat globules are released and becomes lodged in blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are intracapsular fractures located?

A

Break in the femoral neck, affect the area proximal to the intertrochanteric line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is a non-displaced intracapsular fracture treated?

A

Internal fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is a displaced intracapsular fracture treated?

A

If older/frail = hemiarthroplasty

Otherwise = total hip replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are intertrochanteric fractures managed?

A

Dynamic hip screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are subtrochanteric fractures treated?

A

Intramedullary nail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the presentation of hip fracture?

A

Pain in groin/hip, fall, not able to weight bear, shortened, abducted and externally rotated leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the imaging of choice for a hip fracture?

A

AP and lateral view XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long following surgery should patients be encouraged to weight bear?

A

Immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Where the pressure within the fascial compartment is abnormally elevated cutting off the blood flow to the contents of that compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes acute compartment syndrome?

A

Acute injury where bleeding or tissue swelling leads to the increased pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the symptoms of compartment syndrome?
Disproportionate pain to the underlying injury, worse pain on passive stretching, pale, paraesthesia, paralysis
26
What is the management of compartment syndrome?
Emergency fasciotomy
27
What is the most common cause of osetomyelitis?
Staph aureus
28
What are the modes of infection in osteomyelitis and which is most common?
Haematogenous (most common) Direct (fracture or during surgery)
29
What is the presentation of osteomyelitis?
Fever, pain, erythema, swelling, non-specific
30
What is the best imaging modality for diagnosing osteomyelitis?
MRI scans
31
How is osteomyelitis managed?
Surgical debridement, 6 weeks of IV flucloxacillin (+ rifampicin or fuscidic acid)
32
What are the red flags for back pain?
Non-mechanical back pain, history of previous malignancy/HIV, night pain, systemically unwell, thoracic back pain, widespread neurological symptoms
33
What are the red flag causes of back pain?
Cauda equina, spinal fracture, spinal stenosis, ankylosing spondylitis, spinal infection, malignancy
34
Where does the sciatic nerve supply sensory and motor innervation to?
Sensation to lateral lower leg and foot Motor function to posterior thigh, lower leg and foot
35
What are the symptoms of sciatica?
Unilateral pain from buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to knee/foot - electric/shooting pain Paraesthesia, numbness, motor weakness, absent or reduced reflexes
36
What is the initial management for sciatica and what is the chronic management?
NSAIDs Amitriptyline or duloxetine for persisting pain
37
What do the nerves of the cauda equina supply?
Sensation - lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum Motor - lower limbs, anal and urethral sphincters Parasympathetic innervation of bladder and rectum
38
What are the causes of cauda equina?
Herniated disc - most common Tumours Spondylolisthesis Abscess Trauma
39
What are the red flag symptoms in cauda equina?
Saddle anaesthesia, loss of sensation in bladder and rectum, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, bilateral sciatica, bilateral motor weakness in legs, reduced anal tone on PR exam
40
What is the management of cauda equina?
Emergency MRI and lumbar decompression surgery
41
What is the management of metastatic spinal cord compression?
High dose dexamethasone May require surgery or radiotherapy/chemotherapy
42
What is spinal stenosis?
Narrowing of part of the spinal cord resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots (most commonly lumbar spine)
43
What are the causes of spinal stenosis?
Congenital, degenerative, herniated disc, thickening of the ligamenta flava, spinal fractures, spondylolisthesis, tumours
44
What is the presentation of spinal stenosis?
Intermittent neurogenic claudication - lower back/buttock/leg pain, leg weakness, numbness Symptoms are worse on standing/walking and are relieved by leaning forward (e.g. cycling)
45
What is the management of spinal stenosis?
Exercise, weight loss, physio, analgesia Laminectomy can be performed
46
What are the features of L3 nerve root compression?
Sensory loss over anterior thigh, weak hip flexion and knee extension, reduced knee reflex
47
What are the features of L4 nerve root compression?
Sensory loss over anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus, weak knee extension and hip adduction, reduced knee reflex
48
What are the features of L5 nerve root compression?
Sensory loss over dorsum of foot, foot drop, intact reflexes
49
What are the features of S1 nerve root compression?
Sensory loss over posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot, weakness in plantar flexion of foot, reduced ankle reflex
50
What is in initial investigation of choice in bony lumps and soft tissue swellings?
Bony lumps = x-ray Soft tissue swellings = USS
51
What is meralgia paraesthetica?
Mononeuropathy - sensory symptoms of the outer thigh due to compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
52
What are the presenting symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica?
Abnormal or loss of sensation in the outer thigh, aggravated by walking or standing for a long duration and improve when sitting down, symptoms worse with extension of the hip
53
What are the management options for meralgia paraesthetica?
Physio, analgesia, surgical decompression
54
What is discitis and what is the most common causative agent?
Infection of the intervertebral disc space Staph aureus is most common cause
55
What is the management of discitis?
MRI spine 6-8 weeks of IV antibiotics (e.g. IV flucloxacillin)
56
What is trochanteric bursitis?
Also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome Bursa because inflamed due to repetitive movements, trauma or inflammatory conditions such as RA
57
What are the symptoms of trochanteric bursitis?
Gradual onset lateral hip pain, worse with activity, may disrupt sleep, pain on resisted movement but ROM should be normal
58
What is the management of trochanteric bursitis?
Rest, ice, analgesia, physio and steroid injections
59
What kind of knee injury results in a meniscal tear?
Twisting movement in the knee - common in sporting injuries In older age the meniscus becomes more prone to injury and tears can occur with very minor twisting movements
60
What is the presentation of meniscal tear?
Popping sensation, pain, swelling, stiffness, restricted ROM, locking of the knee, knee giving way
61
What is the 1st line and gold standard imaging investigation in meniscal tears and ACL injuries?
1st line = MRI Gold = arthroscopy
62
What is the management of meniscal tears?
NSAIDs, physio, arthroscopy with repair or resection of the meniscus
63
What are the Ottawa knee rules for determining whether a patient requires a knee XR after acute injury?
Age 55 or above Patella tenderness (not anywhere else) Fibular head tenderness Cannot flex the knee to 90 degrees Cannot weight bear
64
What is the presentation of an ACL injury?
Damaged during twisting injury Pain, swelling, popping of the knee, instability of the knee
65
What is the management of ACL injury?
NSAIDs RICE Arthroscopic surgery to reconstruct knee Crutches and knee braces required to protect knee while mobilising
66
What are the causes of a baker's cyst?
Most common = degenerative changes in the knee Meniscal tears, knee injuries, inflammatory arthritis, osteoarthritis
67
What is the presentation of a baker's cyst?
Pain, fullness, pressure, lump/swelling, restricted ROM Lump is most obvious when patient stands with their knees fully extended
68
What is the presentation of a ruptured baker's cyst?
Pain, swelling and erythema of the knee and calf muscle (need to exclude DVT as differential)
69
What imaging investigations can be done in Baker's cyst?
USS (diagnose but also rules out DVT) MRI can evaluate cyst further if required
70
What is the management of baker's cyst?
Analgesia, physio, USS guided aspiration, steroid injections
71
What are the causes of achilles tendinopathy?
Sports that stress the achilles, inflammatory conditions, diabetes, raised cholesterol, fluoroquinolone antibiotics
72
What is the presentation of achilles tendinopathy?
Gradual onset of pain or aching in the achilles tendon or heel with activity, stiffness, tenderness, swelling
73
What is the management of achilles tendinopathy?
Exclude rupture, RICE, physio, orthotics (insoles), surgery to remove nodules and adhesions Do not do steroid injections as increases risk of rupture
74
What are the risk factors for achilles tendon rupture?
Sports that stress the achilles, increasing age, existing achilles tendinopathy, family history, fluoroquinolone antibiotics, systemic steroids
75
What is the presentation of of achilles tendon ruputre?
Sudden onset of pain in achilles or calf, snapping sound, something has hit them in the back of the leg, rest in a more upright position
76
What is the Simmond's calf squeeze test?
Positive result in achilles tendon rupture Squeezing the calf muscles will not cause plantar flexion of the ankle
77
What investigation is used in achilles tendon rupture?
USS
78
What are the management options of achilles tendon rupture?
Non-surgical - specialist boot to immobilise the ankle Surgical - surgery followed by boot to immobilise ankle
79
What is the presentation of plantar fasciitis?
Gradual onset of pain on the plantar aspect of the heel, worse with pressure and standing for prolonged periods
80
How is plantar fasciitis managed?
RICE, NSAIDs, physio
81
What is fat pad atrophy and what are the symptoms?
Fat pad over heel atrophies due to age or inflammation (measured with USS), pain and tenderness over plantar aspect of heel
82
What is the management of fat pad atrophy?
Comfortable shoes, custom insoles, weight loss
83
What is Morton's neuroma and what are the symptoms?
Dysfunction of the nerve between the toes towards the top of the foot, pain at the foot of the foot, sensation of lump in shoe, burning/numbness/paraesthesia
84
What is the management of Morton's neuroma?
USS/MRI to confirm Analgesia, insoles, weight loss, steroid injections
85
What is a bunion and what are the symptoms?
Bony lump created by deformity at base of big toe, first MTP becomes angled medially and toe is angled laterally Pain in the area when walking and wearing tight shoes
86
What are the management options for bunions?
Conservative = wide shoes, analgesia Surgical correction
87
What is the presentation of frozen shoulder/adhesive capsulitis?
Painful phase, followed by stiff phase (external rotation most affected), gradual improvement and return to normal
88
What are the differential diagnoses for shoulder pain not preceded by trauma?
Supraspinatus tendinopathy (tested with empty can test), acromioclavicular joint arthritis (tested with scarf test), frozen shoulder, glenohumeral joint arthritis
89
What are the differential diagnoses for shoulder pain preceded by trauma?
Shoulder dislocation, fractures, rotator cuff tear
90
What is the management of frozen shoulder?
Continue to use arm but do not make pain worse, NSAIDs, physio, steroid injection
91
What are the causes of rotator cuff tears?
Acute injuries such as falling on outstretched hand, degenerative, overhead activities such as playing tennis
92
What 4 muscles make up the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
93
What imaging is done in suspected rotator cuff tears?
USS/MRI
94
What is the management of rotator cuff tears?
Rest, analgesia, physio Can have surgery if young or full thickness tear
95
Which is more common anterior or posterior should disclocations?
Anterior - posterior are caused by electric shocks and seizures
96
Which nerve is commonly damaged in shoulder discloations and what symptoms occur as a result?
Axillary nerve - loss of sensation over lateral deltoid, motor weakness in deltoid
97
What is the apprehension test?
Test for shoulder instability due to previous anterior shoulder dislocation - won't allow you to do movement due to fear of shoulder popping back out
98
What imaging is done for shoulder dislocations?
X-rays are used in acute scenarios Arthroscopy
99
What is the management of shoulder dislocations?
Relocated as soon as possible as the muscle spasms over time making it more difficult followed by immobilisation
100
What is olecranon bursitis and what are the symptoms?
Inflammation and swelling of bursa over elbow due to repetitive movements or leaning on elbow, infection Symptoms = swollen, warm, tender and fluid filled elbow
101
What is the management of olecranon bursitis?
Aspirate the fluid for MC+S (rule out infection as a cause) RICE, analgesia, protect elbow from pressure, aspirate the fluid to relieve pressure, steroid injections if problematic
102
What is lateral epicondylitis?
Tennis elbow, pain and tenderness at the lateral epicondyle (outer elbow) - type of RSI
103
What is medial epicondylitis?
Golfer's elbow, pain and tenderness on inner elbow - type of RSI
104
How do you manage epicondylitis?
Self-limiting, NSAIDs, physio, steroid injections, rest
105
What is De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
RSI --> swelling and inflammation of tendon sheaths of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
106
What are the symptoms of De Quervains's tenosynovitis?
Symptoms at the radial aspect of the wrist near the thumb - aching, burning, weakness, numbness, tenderness
107
What is the test for De Quervains's tenosynovitis?
Finkelstein's test - make fist with thumb inside fist and deviate wrist towards ulnar Positive test = pain on this movement
108
What is the management of De Quervains's tenosynovitis?
Rest, splints, analgesia, physio, steroid injections
109
What is the presentation of trigger finger?
Painful finger around MCP joint, does not move smoothly, makes popping noise, gets stuck in flexed position
110
What is the management for trigger finger?
Rest, analgesia, splinting, steroid injection, surgery
111
What are the risk factors for carpal tunnel?
Repetitive strain, obesity, perimenopause, RA, diabetes, acromegaly, pregnancy, hypothyroidism
112
What is the presentation of carpal tunnel?
Sensory symptoms in palmar aspects of thumb, index, middle and lateral half of ring finger, shaking hands may relieve symptoms, difficulty with fine movements of thumb
113
What special tests can be done to help aid diagnosis of carpal tunnel?
Phalen's test - reverse prayer sign Tinel's test - tapping of the wrist
114
What is the management of carpal tunnel?
Rest, wrist splints at night for 4 weeks, steroid injections, surgery
115
What investigations are done for ganglionic cysts?
USS can confirm and exclude other causes - usually a clinical diagnosis
116
How can ganglionic cysts be managed?
Conservatively Needle aspiration, surgical excision
117
How can you differentiate between meniscal tear and ACL/PCL injury?
Meniscal tear will gradually swell and have pain on the joint line ACL/PCL will swell immediately will have pain above/below the joint line where the ligament inserts
118
When should you refer to orthopaedic surgeons in trauma cases?
If there is any neurovascular deficit
119
How do c-spine fractures present?
Severe pain in neck/chest/back, may have neuro findings in hands/arms
120
What is the best imaging modality for C-spine fractures?
CT scan neck
121
What initial imaging investigation should be done in someone with persistent/red flag back pain?
Plain x-ray (followed by MRI)
122
Compression of the T1 nerve leads to ...
Intrinsic hand muscle wasting and loss of sensation over the ulnar aspect of the forearm