Orthopaedics 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Meralgia paraesthetica?

A

Meralgia paraesthetica comes from the Greek words meros for thigh and algos for pain and is often described as a syndrome of paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is an entrapment mononeuropathy of the LFCN, but can also be iatrogenic after a surgical procedure, or result from a neuroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risk factors for meralgia paraesthetica?

A
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Tense ascites
  • Trauma
  • Iatrogenic, such as pelvic osteotomy, spinal surgeries, laparoscopic hernia repair and bariatric surgery. In some cases, may result from abduction splints used in the management of Perthe’s disease.
  • Various sports have been implicated, including gymnastics, football, bodybuilding and strenuous exercise.
  • Some cases are idiopathic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the symptoms, signs and investigations for meralgia paraesthetica?

A

Patients typically present with the following symptoms in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh:

  • Burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain
  • Numbness
  • Deep muscle ache
  • Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing, and relieved by sitting
  • They can be mild and resolve spontaneously or may severely restrict the patient for many years.

Signs:

  • Symptoms may be reproduced by deep palpation just below the ASIS (pelvic compression) and also by extension of the hip.
  • There is altered sensation over the upper lateral aspect of the thigh.
  • There is no motor weakness.

Investigations:

  • The pelvic compression test is highly sensitive, and often, meralgia paraesthetica can be diagnosed based on this test alone
  • Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic will abolish the pain. Using ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy in meralgia paraesthetica
  • Nerve conduction studies may be useful.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the features associated with a fat embolus?

A

Respiratory

  • Early persistent tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea, dyspnoea, hypoxia usually 72 hours following injury
  • Pyrexia

Dermatological

  • Red/ brown impalpable petechial rash (usually only in 25-50%)
  • Subconjunctival and oral haemorrhage/ petechiae

CNS

  • Confusion and agitation
  • Retinal haemorrhages and intra-arterial fat globules on fundoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Morton’s neuroma and what are the features?

A

Morton’s neuroma is a benign neuroma affecting the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, most commonly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. The female to male ratio is around 4:1.

Features

  • forefoot pain, most commonly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space
  • worse on walking. May be described as a shooting or burning pain. Patients may feel they have a pebble in their shoe
  • Mulder’s click: one hand tries to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb. The other hand squeezes the metatarsals together. A click may be heard as the neuroma moves between the metatarsal heads
  • there may be loss of sensation distally in the toes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you diagnose and manage a Morton’s neuroma?

A

Diagnosis is usually clinical although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis

Management

  • avoid high-heels
  • metatarsal pad
  • CKS recommends referral if symptoms persist for > 3 months despite footwear modifications and the use of metatarsal pads
  • orthotists may give the patient a metatarsal dome orthotic
  • other secondary care options include corticosteroid injection and neurectomy of the involved interdigital nerve and neuroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

A break or splinter of the bone into more than two fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the different types of fracture?

A

Oblique fracture
Fracture lies obliquely to long axis of bone

Comminuted fracture
>2 fragments

Segmental fracture
More than one fracture along a bone

Transverse fracture
Perpendicular to long axis of bone

Spiral fracture
Severe oblique fracture with rotation along long axis of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you classify open fractures?

A

Gustilo and Anderson classification system:

1 Low energy wound <1cm
2 Greater than 1cm wound with moderate soft tissue damage
3 High energy wound > 1cm with extensive soft tissue damage
3 A (sub group of 3) Adequate soft tissue coverage, contaminated (farming injuries are at least 3a)
3 B (sub group of 3) Inadequate soft tissue coverage
3 C (sub group of 3) Associated arterial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s the most common part of the bone to be affected in osteomyelitis in children?

A

metaphysis

Haematogenous spread into the long bone is the most common source of infection for osteomyelitis in children. The location of infection depends on the age due to the changing vascular supply. In children, it frequently affects the metaphysis as it is a highly vascular area. In adults it tends to be the epiphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a common cause of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is carpal tunnel from acromegaly most likely to occur?

A

after age 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What’s the most common place for osteoarthritis?

A
  1. knee

2. hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the risk factors for OA?

A
  • increasing age
  • female gender (twice as common)
  • obesity
  • developmental dysplasia of the hip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What’s the appropriate management for OA?

What are the complications of surgery and when should surgical revision take place?

A

Management

  • oral analgesia
  • intra-articular injections: provide short-term benefit
  • total hip replacement remains the definitive treatment

Complications of total hip replacement

  • venous thromboembolism
  • intraoperative fracture
  • nerve injury

Reasons for revision of total hip replacement

  • aseptic loosening (most common reason)
  • pain
  • dislocation
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the features of paget’s disease and how do you treat it?

A
  • Focal bone resorption followed by excessive and chaotic bone deposition
  • Affects (in order): spine, skull, pelvis and femur
  • Serum alkaline phosphatase raised (other parameters normal)
  • Abnormal thickened, sclerotic bone on x-rays
  • Risk of cardiac failure with >15% bony involvement
  • Small risk of sarcomatous change

Bisphosphonates

17
Q

What are the features of osteoporosis and how do you treat it?

A
  • Excessive bone resorption resulting in demineralised bone
  • Commoner in old age
  • Increased risk of pathological fracture, otherwise asymptomatic
  • Alkaline phosphatase normal, calcium normal

Bisphosphonates, calcium and vitamin D

18
Q

What are the features of secondary bone tumours and how do you treat them?

A
  • Bone destruction and tumour infiltration
  • Mirel scoring used to predict risk of fracture
  • Appearances depend on primary (e.g.sclerotic - prostate, lytic - breast)
  • Elevated serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase may be seen

Radiotherapy, prophylactic fixation and analgesia

19
Q

Is a high fever common in transient synovitis?

A

No, think septic arthritis

20
Q

What are the risk factors for avascular necrosis of the hip? What are the symptoms?

A
  • long-term steroid use
  • chemotherapy
  • alcohol excess
  • trauma
  • initially asymptomatic
  • pain in the affected joint
21
Q

How would you investigate and manage avascular necrosis of the hip?

A

Investigation

  • plain x-ray findings may be normal initially. Osteopenia and microfractures may be seen early on. Collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign
  • MRI is the investigation of choice. It is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning

Management
- joint replacement may be necessary

22
Q

What’s the imaging of choice for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

23
Q

What are the red flags for back pain and what investigations should you perform?

A
Thoracic pain
Age <20 or >55 years
Non-mechanical pain
Pain worse when supine
Night pain
Weight loss
Pain associated with systemic illness
Presence of neurological signs
Past medical history of cancer or HIV
Immunosuppression or steroid use
IV drug use
Structural deformity

Patients with red flags should have blood tests for FBC, ESR, Calcium, Phosphate, Alkaline phosphatase and PSA if appropriate. X-ray imaging should also be arranged.

24
Q

What is the Gartland scale used for?

A

to classify supracondylar fractures in children

25
Q

Which single clinical finding best supports the diagnosis of a dislocated hip?

  • asymmetrical skin creases on the thighs
  • clicking on abduction of the hip
  • a dimple at the base of the spine
  • leg length discrepancy
  • limited abduction of the hip
A

Limited abduction of the hip. This means that the hip is out posteriorly (positive Ortolani)

26
Q

What should you do if you suspect cauda equina?

A

First: history and examination including DRE
Then: MRI

27
Q

When do children in the UK have their hips checked?

A

6 weeks
8 months
2 years

28
Q

What are the risk factors for DDH?

A
  • female gender
  • first born
  • foot first (breech)
  • FH
  • further bony abnormalities (e.g talipes equinovarus)
29
Q

What’s the most common elbow fracture in paeds?

A

Supracondylar

30
Q

At what age does the elbow ossify?

A
1 Capitellum
3 Radial head
5 Internal epicondyle
7 Trochlear
9 Olecranon
11 Lateral epicondyle
31
Q

What structures are at risk from a supracondylar fracture?

A

median and ulnar nerves

brachial artery

32
Q

How do you treat a supracondylar fracture?

A
  • rest and immobilise while NV status assesses
  • if NV compromised then emergency

Gartland classification

I- non displaced, subtle, intact anterior humeral line (may only have posterior fat pad sign)- splint, non operative

II- displaced, posterior cortex intact, anterior humeral line not through middle 1/3 of capitellum, likely operative

III- completely displaced, rotation and comminution, operative

33
Q

What is a medial epicondyle fracture associated with?

A

50% elbow dislocation

34
Q

How do you treat a medial epicondyle fracture?

A
  • If < 5mm then back slab at 90 degrees flexion for 3 weeks
  • If 5-15mm then need reduction (either open or closed)
  • If >15mm then dislocation likely, need urgent reduction
35
Q

How do you treat a lateral mass fracture?

A
  • undisplaced- back slab
  • minimal displacement- immobilise or closed reduction with percutaneous pins
  • if >2mm then need to go to theatre
36
Q

How do you treat a triplane fracture?

A

> 2mm displaced then reduce

< 2mm displaced then above knee cast