Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

AHP Semester > Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Orthopaedics Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

The superficial femoral artery passes through what canal in the thigh?

It then exits the canal and becomes the popliteal artery at what structure?

A

Hunter’s canal (also called adductor canal, subsartorial canal)

The adductor hiatus (hole made between adductor magnus hamstring part and femur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the compartments of the thigh, and their innervation? (include exceptions)

A

Anterior - femoral nerve

Posterior - sciatic nerve

Medial - Obturator nerve (except adductor magnus hamstring part (tibial n.) and pectineus (femoral n.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the compartments of the leg, and their innervation?

A

Anterior - deep fibular nerve

Posterior - tibial nerve

Lateral - superficial fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What ligaments make up the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle?

A

Anteriortalofibular +posterior talofibular + calcaneofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What tendons make up the pes anserinus?

A

Sartorius + Gracilis +Semitendinosus

Say Grace before Tea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a maisonneuve fracture?

A

Proximal fibula # associated with an unstable ankle injury (deltoid ligament injury or tear in distal tibiofibular syndesmosis + med malleolus #)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ligaments make up the medial collateral ligament of the ankle?

What is another name for this complex?

A

Anterior tibiotalar + posterior tibiotalar + tibiocalcaneal + tibionavicular ligaments

Deltoid ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which gene is frequently associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA-DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 pathological stages of RA?

A

1) Preclinical: raised ESR, CRP, RF detectable before clinicial Sx
2) Synovitis: synovial membrane inflammation & thickening. Painful, swollen joints
3) Destruction: persistent inflamm causing joint & tendon destruction, articular cartilage & bone erosion, pannus, synovial effusion
4) Deformity: articular destruction + capsular stretching + tendon rupture -> progressive instability and deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The classic ‘rheumatoid’ deformities are (radial/ ulnar) deviation of the fingers and (radial/ ulnar) deviation of the wrist

A

Ulnar deviation of fingers

Radial deviation of wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Juvenile Chronic Arthritis is also known as ______ disease

A

Still’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false: in children, malunion can sometimes be partly corrected by growth

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What organisms are implicated in triggering reactive arthritis?

A

GI or GU infections: Salmonella, Yersinia, Chlamydia, Shigella, Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Kienbock’s disease?

A

Avascular necrosis of the lunate. Most common in 20-40yo males, exact cause unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What gene is associated with the seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

A

HLA-B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the pathological steps of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Inflammation -> granulation tissue formation -> erosion of cartilage/ bone -> replacement with fibrous tissue -> ossification of fibrous tissue -> ankylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which disease is diagnosed based on needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence?

A

Gout (urate crystals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which disease is diagnosed based on rhomboid-shaped crystals with weakly positive birefringence

A

Pseudogout aka calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease (calcium crystals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

__% of monosodium urate is derived from endogenous purine metabolism and __% from purine-rich foods in the diet

A

70%

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the side effects of colchicine?

A

Diarrhoea, N&V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are 4 MSK complications of RA?

A

Infection
Tendon rupture
Joint rupture
Secondary OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infliximab, etanercept and adalimumab are all _____[drug class]

A

TNF inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which type (mechanism) of pelvic fracture is associated with the largest amount of blood loss?

A

Ant-post compression (APC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 classification systems for pelvic fractures?

A

1) Young-Burgess based on mechanism
APC (ant post compression), LC (lat compression), VS (vertical shear), combined
2) Tile Classification of severity
Stable, partially stable, unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_____ hormone stimulates bone growth whilst ____ hormone promotes stable physeal fusion
Pituitary growth hormone | Gonadal hormone
26
What percentage of Paget's disease undergoes malignant transformation into osteosarcoma?
Approx 1%
27
Describe the difference between Paget's disease of bone, osteomalacia and osteopetrosis
Paget's disease of bone = disorganised bone remodelling with increased osteoclastic & osteoblastic activity aka problem with bone STRUCTURE Osteomalacia = defective bone mineralisation d/t loss of inorganic material, producing brittle, soft, weak bones aka problem with bone MINERALISATION Osteopetrosis = genetic disorder decreasing bone resorption, producing abnormally dense bones aka problem with bone RESORPTION
28
Name two drugs used for Paget's disease of bone
Any of: NSAIDs for analgesia Bisphosphonates (reduce bone turnover) Calcitonin (reduce osteoclast activity)
29
Patients with sickle cell anaemia are prone to an osteomyelitis infection by ______ (organism)
Salmonella typhi
30
What organism is the most common cause of osteomyelitis? (in adults & children) Which antibiotic is routinely given?
Staph aureus | Flucloxacillin
31
Septic arthritis usually affects (small/ large) joints?
Large
32
Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a predilection for ______ & _________ joints
vertebral bodies & large synovial joints
33
What are the high-risk injuries for the development of compartment syndrome?
Fractures of the elbow, forearm bones, prox 1/3 of tibia ad multiple hand/ foot #s (Apley's pg 354)
34
Patellar dislocation usually happens (medially/laterally)
Laterally Because knee is normally angled in slight valgus, there is natural tendency for the patella to pull towards the lat side when the quadriceps muscle contracts (Apley's p446)
35
Patellar dislocation can be associated with torn ____ and ____
Medial retinacular fibres (part of quadriceps expansion) and med patellofemoral lig (MPFL)
36
What factors (4) predispose to recurrent patellar dislocation
Generalised joint laxity Marked genu valgum Unduly high or small patella Under-development of lat femoral condyle + flattening of intercondylar groove
37
List 6 conditions that predispose to pathological fractures
1. Osteoporosis/ osteopaenia 2. Osteomalacia 3. Paget's disease of bone 4. Osteogenesis imperfecta 5. HyperPTH 6. Neoplasm (myeloma, osteosarcoma)
38
What are the 4 stages of fracture bone healing?
1) Haematoma (wk 1) 2) Soft pro-callus (wk1-2): uncalcified fibrous tissue/ cartilage 3) Hard bony callus (wk2-4): spongy woven bone 4) Remodelling (>wk4): lamellar bone, weight-bearing
39
Arterial injury is associated with what 2 fracture locations? (joint + bone for each)
Knee/ femur | Elbow/ humerus
40
What are 4 injuries at high-risk of developing compartment syndrome?
``` Elbow # Forearm # Prox 1/3rd tibial # Multiple #s of hand/ foot (Apley's p354) ```
41
Muscle dies after ____ hrs of ischaemia
4-6 hours
42
Nerve injury is more likely to be complete in (open/ closed) fractures?
Open
43
Malalignment of a fracture >___ degrees in any plane may cause asymmetrical loading of the join & 2oOA
15 degrees
44
Any fracture with an intra-articular step of the radiocarpal joint >___mm is also advised to be surgically corrected.
>2mm
45
Explain the Gustilo & Anderson Classification System
Used to classify open fractures I: clean wound <1cm, minimal muscle contusion II: 1-10cm wound, soft tissue damage but minimal/ moderate crushing IIII: >10cm wound, extensive soft tissue damage affecting neurovascular/ muscular/ skin tissue - A: adequate soft tissue flap - B: needs soft tissue flap - C: vascular injury requiring repair or high E trauma/ segmental #/ contaminant exposure
46
The treatment of cauda equina syndrome is _____
urgent surgical decompression <48hrs via discectomy or laminectomy. The sooner this is performed, the better the outcomes. Unfortunately, bladder dysfunction may not be completely resolved.
47
What is the classification system for AC joint injury?
Rockwood Classification - I: AC lig sprain (clavicle not elevated wrt acromion) - II: AC lig tear + CC lig sprain (clavicle elevated but not above sup border of acromion, CC distance <25%) - III: AC + CC lig tear; clavicle elevated above sup border of acromion, CC distance 25-100% - IV: AC + CC lig tear; clavicle displaced posteriorly into trapezius - V: AC + CC lig tear; clavicle elevated, CC distance >100% - VI: AC + CC lig tear; clavicle displaced inferiorly behind coracobrachialis/ biceps
48
What is Wolff's law?
States that bone in a healthy person or animal will adapt to the loads under which it is placed i.e. if loading increases, the bone will remodel to become stronger
49
The most common malignant lesions in bone are ____
Metastatic tumours | Mostly Prostate, breast, Kidney, Lung, Thyroid ('Pb KTL')
50
What is the most useful imaging technique for ?bone tumour
Plain X-rays (Apley p101) | But may not be relied upon for definitive diagnosis
51
On plain Xray, stippled calcification inside a vacant area is characteristic of _____ tumours
Cartilage tumours
52
What are the common sites for osteosarcoma? (3) Where does it often metastasize
1) Distal femur 2) Proximal tibia 3) Proximal humerus Mets to lung (~10% already present at time of Dx)
53
Chondrosarcoma most commonly affects the ____ and ____
Pelvis and scapula
54
Osteochondromas are also known as _____
Cartilage-capped exotosis
55
True or false: chondrosarcomas are responsive to chemo/ radiotherapy
False - they don't respond to either
56
What is the classic presenting triad in fat embolism syndrome and over what time frame does it usually develop?
Hypoxaemia/ resp compromise + confusion + petechial rash | Develops over 24-72hrs post-injury
57
Cancellous bone heals a) (faster/ slower) than cortical bone. Transverse fracture heals b) (faster/ slower) than spiral fracture
a) faster | b) slower
58
What are the risk factors for DDH?
``` 'BOFFF' > Breech position (>34/40) > Oligohydramnios > Female > FHx (> First born) ```
59
Congenital scoliosis is defined as a lateral curvature of the spine with a Cobb angle of ____
≥10 degrees Cobb's angle: lines drawn along the endplates of the uppermost and lowest end vertebrae of the curve deformity & angle between their intersection is measured
60
Spinal stenosis is classically aggravated by a) _____ and relieved by b) _____
a) Standing & walking | b) Sitting & bending forwards
61
The most common curvature in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is ____
Right thoracic
62
List at least 4 conditions associated with neuromuscular scoliosis. Describe the typical deformity
``` Any of: 1) Poliomyelitis 2) Syringomelia 3) Muscular dystrophy 4) Cerebral palsy 5) Friedreich's ataxia 6) Lower MND Typical deformity is long, convex curve towards weaker side ```
63
What are Ennekings 4 rules?
Used to determine likelihood of bone lesion being malignant Asks 4 Questions 1) Where is the lesion? 2) What is it doing to the bone? 3) What is the bone doing to it? 4) Are there any clues to its histological Dx (what is its matrix)?
64
Babies with talipes equinovarus ('club foot') should always be checked for _____ (2 other conditions)
Congenital hip dislocation and spina bifida Unclear aetiology, but FHx is a risk factor. 50% are bilateral, M>F
65
What are 3 causes of stiff ('rigid') flat feet?
1) Inflammatory disorder of joint 2) Neuromuscular disorder 3) Tarsal coalition
66
Hallux valgus is usually a) unilateral or b) bilateral
B) bilateral
67
Which joint is most commonly affected in diabetic neuropathic joint?
Midtarsal | followed by MTP and ankle
68
What is the first ROM lost in OA of the hip?
Internal rotation
69
Genu varum (bow legs) is normal under the age of ___ and usually corrects by age ___
Normal <2yo | Corrects by 3yo
70
Cauda equina syndrome presents as an a) UMN or b) LMN disorder
b) LMN

AHP Semester (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions