Orthopedic Anesthesia: Unit 1 Module 1-2 Flashcards

(174 cards)

1
Q

What are the two biggest factors associated with development of osteoporosis?

A
  • Elderly age
  • Menopause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormonal changes are characteristic of osteoporosis?

A
  • ↑ PTH
  • ↓ Vit D
  • ↓ HGH
  • ↓ Insulin-like growth factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four most common meds used to treat osteoporosis?

A

dronate drugs
- Fosamax (Alendronate)
- Actonel (Risedronate)
- Boniva (Ibandronic Acid)
- Reclast (Zoledronate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Differentiate between Bouchard’s nodes and Heberden’s nodes.

A
  • Bouchard’s = proximal interphalangeal joints
  • Heberden’s = distal interphalangeal joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drug is the most common chondroprotective agent that helps protect the articular joint?

A

Glucosamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What anesthetic considerations should be given to glucosamine?

A

Glucosamine needs to be stopped two weeks prior to surgery due to PLT aggregation inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Arthritis characterized by morning stiffness that improves throughout the day is….

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arthritis that is characterized by worsening symptoms throughout the course of the day is…

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What labs are typically elevated in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • ↑ Rheumatoid factor (RF)
  • ↑ Anti-immunoglobulin antibody
  • ↑ C-reactive protein (CRP)
  • ↑ Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What common dose of stress dose glucocorticoid is used for RA patients?

A

50mg hydrocortisone (Solu-cortef)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two TNFα inhibitors are commonly used to treat RA?

A
  • Infliximab
  • Etanercept
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following drugs treat RA?
- Methotrexate
- Hydroxychloroquine
- Sulfasalazine
- Leflunomide

A

Trick question. All of them do
- Methotrexate
- Hydroxychloroquine
- Sulfasalazine
- Leflunomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What airway concerns should be considered with RA patients?

A
  • Limited TMJ movement
  • Narrowed glottic opening
  • Cricoarytenoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the most instability typically located in the cervical spine of RA patients?

A

Atlantoaxial Junction

(be careful not to displace the odontoid process and impinge on the c-spine or vertebral arteries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of atlantoaxial subluxation?

A
  • Headache
  • Neck pain
  • Extremity paresthesias (especially with movement)
  • Bowel/bladder dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of vertebral artery occlusion?

A
  • N/V
  • Dysphagia
  • Blurred Vision
  • Transient LOC changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What ocular syndrome is typical of RA patients?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

(Dry eyes and mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What pulmonary issues are associated with RA?

A
  • Interstitial fibrosis
  • Restricted ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of ventilatory settings would be utilized for an RA patient exhibiting a restrictive ventilatory pattern?

A

Pressure Control @ 5mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What artery is typically injured due to pelvic fractures? Where is the bleeding located in this instance?

A

Iliac artery → retroperitoneal space bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the typical worst complication of long bone fractures?

A

Bone marrow fat embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What technique is used for intubation of a patient who has c-spine concerns?

A

MILS

Manual In-Line Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the MILS technique

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase and limits the availability of Vitamin K throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the mechanism of action of LMWH?
LMWH binds to antithrombin thus → no thrombin → no fibrinogen forming into fibrin
26
What are some typical triggers for delirium? (11)
- Hypoxemia - Hypotension - Hypercarbia - Sleep Deprivation - Hypervolemia - Infection - Electrolyte abnormalities - Pain - Benzos - Anticholinergics - Circadian Rhythm disruption
27
FEV₁ decreases by ___% for each decade of life.
10%
28
What occurs with closing volume as we age?
Closing volume **increases**.
29
What is the goal of regional anesthesia vs general anesthesia?
Avoid: - DVT - PE - EBL - Respiratory complications - Death
30
With placement of what device is fat embolism syndrome most likely to occur?
Femoral Medullary Canal Rod
31
What is the s/s Triad of fat embolism syndrome? When do s/s typically present?
1. Dyspnea 2. Confusion 3. Petechiae Typically presents in 12 - 72 hrs
32
What lab findings are noted with fat embolism syndrome?
- Fat macroglobulinemia - Anemia - Thrombocytopenia - ↑ ESR
33
What is ESR? What are normal values for males and females?
- Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate - Male: 0 - 22 mm/hr - Female: 0 - 29 mm/hr
34
What minor s/s can be construed to characterize fat embolization syndrome?
- Fever - ↑HR - Jaundice - Renal Changes
35
What are the anesthetic management techniques for fat embolization syndrome?
Supportive Therapy - 100% FiO₂ - **No N₂O** - IV Heparin - CV & Resp support
36
What factors contribute to the development of DVT's? (7)
- **Lack of Prophylaxis** - Obesity - > 60yrs old - > 30min procedure - Tourniquet use - > 4 days immobilization - > Lower extremity fracture
37
Which three surgery types present the greatest risk for DVT formation?
- Hip surgery - TKA - Lower extremity trauma
38
When does LMWH need to be initiated?
12 hours preop or 12 hours postop
39
Can neuraxial anesthesia be done after LMWH 40 mg (qD) has been given?
Yes, if **12 hours** after the dose. *Delay next dose 4 hours*.
40
Can an epidural be placed in a patient on LMWH anticoagulation therapy twice daily?
No. Neuraxial catheter NOT okay
41
Neuraxial catheters must be removed ___ hours before the intiation of LMWH therapy (twice daily dose).
2 hours
42
Can a patient have neuraxial anesthesia if on warfarin?
Only if the **INR is ≤ 1.5**
43
When can you give the next dose of warfarin after DCing neuraxial catheter?
2 hrs
44
When can you give the next dose of heparin after DCing neuraxial catheter?
1 hr
45
When can you give the next dose of Fondaparinux (Arixtra) 2.5 mg or 5-10 mg SQ qd after DCing neuraxial catheter?
6-12 hrs
46
When can you give the next dose of Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 1 mg/kg SQ bid or 1.5mg/kg SQ qd (full dose) after DCing neuraxial catheter?
24 hrs
47
When can you give the next dose of Lovenox (40 mg SQ qd) after DCing neuraxial catheter?
6-8 hrs
48
indwelling catheters are contraindicated with antithrombotic agents except 1 traditional anticoagulant
heparin antithrombotic agents are contraindicated with indwelling catheters when taking OTHER TRADITIONAL ANTICOUGULANTS: -warfarin, fondaparinux lovenox DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITORS: -Argatroban, Bivalirudin (ANGIOMAX), Lepirudin (Refludan), Dabigatran (Pradaxa) oral antiplatelet agents GP IIB/IIIA inhibiors Thrombolytic agents Apixaban (Eliquis)
49
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking warfarin if....
INR < 1.5
50
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Heparin full dose IV if....
aPTT < 40 after holding medication for 2 hrs
51
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Heparin minidose (5000 u) SQ BID if....
No contraindication
52
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking heparin (minidose 5000 u SQ TID) if....
aPTT < 40 or 6 hrs after the last dose
53
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking heparin full dose (>5000 u SQ BID or TID) if....
aPTT < 40 or 6 hrs after the last dose
54
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Fondaparinux (Arixtra) <2.5 mg SQ qd (prophylaxis) if....
36-42 hours
55
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Fondaparinux (Arixtra) 5-10 mg SQ qd (full dose) if...
contraindicated
56
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 1 mg/kg SQ bid or 1.5mg/kg SQ qd (full dose) if...
after 24 hrs
57
A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Lovenox 40 mg SQ qd (prophylaxis)
12 hrs
58
Flip card for Anticoagulation guidelines for Neuraxial procedures.
59
Flip card for additional Anticoagulation guidelines for Neuraxial procedures.
60
What advantages does neuraxial anesthesia present in the prevention of DVT's?
- ↑ extremity venous blood flow (sympathectomy). - LA systemic anti-inflammatory properties. - ↓ PLT reactivity
61
What is the maximum dose of TXA? (Tranexamic Acid)
2.5 g
62
What is typical dosing of TXA?
10 , 15, or 30 mg/kg **1000mg is typical**
63
Tourniquet pain typically begins ___ minutes after application.
45 min
64
The width of a tourniquet must be greater than ____ its diameter.
½
65
How long can tourniquets be placed on an extremity?
- 2 hours is typically not exceeded - **3 hours is max**.
66
What mmHg is typically used for thigh tourniquets?
300 mmHg (or 100 mmHg > SBP)
67
What mmHg is typically used for arm tourniquets?
250 mmHg (or 50 mmHg > SBP)
68
When utilizing a double tourniquet, it is important to remember to...
inflate proximal → deflate distal
69
What occurs with tourniquet deflation?
- Transient lactic acidosis - Transient Hypercarbia - ↑ HR - ↓ pain - ↓ CVP, BP, & temp -increased minute ventilation -metabolic acidosis -hyperkalemia
70
Prolonged inflation of tourniquet > 2 hrs can lead to ...
nerve injury -risk of ischemia & rhabdomyolysis -mechanical trauma ** minimize risk by deflating the tourniquet 20-30 mins to allow for reperfusion
71
What are some important points of assessment necessary for upper body procedures preoperatively?
- Baseline vitals: BP and HR - Airway - Pre-existing nerve conduction issues - Examine pupils
72
Most common reasons for shoulder surgery (4)
* Rotator Cuff Tear * Subacromial Impingement * Glenohumeral Instability * Labral Tear
73
two most common positions for shoulder surgery
beach chair and lateral decubitus
74
What are the cardiac consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?
- ↓ CO & BP - ↑ HR & SVR Due to pooling of blood in lower body.
75
What are the respiratory consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?
- ↑ FRC & lung volumes
76
What are the neurologic consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?
↓ CBF
77
How is venous air embolism prevented in a beach chair patient?
↑ CVP (above 0) to prevent a "suction" effect
78
VAE: air enters the right ventricle interfering iwth blood fow into the pulmonary artery causing pulmonary ____ & reflex ____
pulmonary edema and reflex bronchoconstriction
79
VAE: air may reach the cerebral and coronary circulation via a patent ___ ____
foramen ovale
80
In what percent of the population is a patent foramen ovale present?
20 - 30 %
81
How does one treat venous air embolism? *Besides prevention...*
- Inform surgeon → irrigation & occlusive dressing - DC N₂O if being used - Bilateral compression of jugular veins (prevent neuro consequences) - Place patient in head down position to trap in right atrium - Withdraw air through right atrial catheter - CV collapse will need tx with pressor - & Resp support
82
The ultrasound transducer is being utilized to located venous air embolism in a patient. Where do you place the probe?
2ⁿᵈ - 3rd ICS right of sternum *Over the Right Atrium*
83
Though ultrasound over the right atrium is the most sensitive indicator of VAE (venous air embolism), the most definitive is....
TEE
84
The characteristic sound of a VAE is a _____________ murmur.
"Mill-Wheel" murmur
85
What would be an indicator of a sudden decreased perfusion to the lungs?
↓ EtCO₂
86
________ of the neck in a sitting position patient can accidentally extubate them.
Hyperextension
87
In a sitting position patient, where would one zero their art line?
Tragus of the ear *Establishes knowledge of brain BP & thus perfusion*.
88
What are ocular conditions do we want to avoid due to the hypotension inherent to the sitting position?
- Retinal Ischemia - Ischemia Optic Neuropathy *Also avoid corneal abrasion*.
89
There is a 40cm distance from the patients heart to their brain. The patient's BP measured on the arm is 120/70. What is the estimated BP in the brain?
40cm x 0.77mmHg = 30.8mmHg 120 - 30.8 = 89.2mmHg 70 - 30.8 = 39.2mmHg The patient's brain BP is **89/39** Thus indicating hypotension and necessary correction.
90
A standing patient's NIBP on the arm is 134/92. The distance between the patient's knee and the NIBP cuff is 120cm. What is the BP in the patient's knee?
120 x 0.77 = 92.4 134 + 92 92 + 92 Patient's "knee" BP standing up is 226/184
91
What is the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?
Cardiac inhibitory reflex resulting in signification HoTN & ↓HR. r/T venous pooling (decreased preload) & hypercontractile ventricle * can prevent by giving zofran upfront
92
What are possible complications of a brachial plexus block?
- Respiratory depression - Horner Syndrome (SE) - Hoarseness - Dysphagia --> aspiration
93
Why can respiratory depression occur with brachial plexus blocks?
Hemidiaphragmatic Paresis from Phrenic nerve blockade.
94
What is the triad of Horner Syndrome?
- Ptosis - Miosis - Anhydrosis
95
Postop concerns for shoulder surgery (3)
assess for nerve injury pain management (opioid/regional) delirium/confusion (elderly)
96
What commonly regional blocks do elbow surgeries require?
infraclavicular and axillary ** The brachial plexus block might not cover the elbow
97
What are the cardiac consequences of a lateral decubitus position? (2)
*Cardiac output remains unchanged unless venous return is obstructed (e.g. kidney rest). *Arterial BP may fall as a result of decreased vascular resistance (right side > left side).
98
What are the respiratory consequences of a vented pt in lateral decubitus position?
(VQ mismatch) - ↓ ventilation of **dependent** lung. - ↑ perfusion of **dependent lung**. * further decreases in dependent lung ventilation with paralysis and open chest
99
During mechanical ventilation in left lateral decubitus patient, which lung is overventilated?
Right lung (nondependent lung)
100
During mechanical ventilation in left lateral decubitus patient, which lung more perfused?
Left lung (dependent lung)
101
What are the respiratory consequences of pt in lateral decubitus position who is spontaneously breathing?
increased ventilation of dependent lung (no V/Q mismathc)
102
Where is an axillary roll placed on a lateral decubitus patient?
Caudad to the axilla to avoid compression of the neurovascular bundle. ** axillary roll displaces the head of the humerus against the brachial plexus (stretch and compression)
103
How is the upper arm placed during lateral decubitus?
the upper arm can rest on pillows or be placed in a padded support bar ( Allen arm rest), making sure not to stretch the brachial plexus
104
how should the neck be in lateral decubitus?
keep the neck in normal alignment via shea, pillow, or donut ** check that there is no pressure on the dependent eye and that the dependent ear is flat against the head.
105
How should the legs be positioned while in lateral decubitus?
-pillow placed btw the knees, -dependent leg should be flexed slightly to pad bony prominences and lessen stretch on nerves. ** check breast and genitalia is free of pressure as well
106
When using an inflated bingbag during lateral decubitus, what effects does it have on respiration?
pushing abdominal contents cephalad --> decreased Vt & FRC and increases closing volume
107
Where should a pulse oximeter be placed in a lateral decubitus patient?
Dependent hand to ensure that there is no neurovascular compromise
108
Elbow surgeries need what additional block (in comparison to shoulder surgeries) ?
Musculocutaneous nerve * most commonly missed
109
When a surgery requires a tourniquet what all do you need to document?
1. inflation and delfation time 2. total inflated time 3. inflation pressure and any changes
110
Post op considerations for elbow surgery
-Pain management: (opioids/ NSAIDS/regional) -immobility
111
Preop considerations for forearm to hand surgeries (4)
1. preexisting nerve conduction issues 2. fracture? 3. Nerve impingement 4. Traumatic amputation 5. Typical assessment: head to tow or system to system
112
Positioning for forearm/hand surgeries
Supine w/ hand table
113
What blocks are used for forearm/hand surgeries
Axillary (supplement musculocutaneous nerve) & Bier block
114
Postop considerations for forearm/hand surgeries
pain management and immobilization
115
Is a patient with a hip fracture induced on the OR table or on the bed/stretcher?
Bed/Stretcher to avoid pain from movement to OR table.
116
Hip fracture mortality for -initial hospitalization -1 year
-initial hospitalization: about 10% -1 year 25-30%
117
Why is the morality rate much higher at 1 year for hip fractures?
immobility and sedentary life style significanlty increases the risk of -Cardiac and pulmonary conditions -DVT -Delirium
118
Preop: hip fracture (6)
Pain management *Early surgery = lower pain scores Intravascular fluid status Hgb & Hct Central line & arterial line? Baseline VS *SpO2 on room air Full stomach?
119
What is the position for hip fracture surgeries?
supine with fracture table
120
Postop consideration for hip fractures (4)
pain managment mental status blood transfusion ICU admission?
121
What are the benefits of neuraxial anesthesia for hip fracture repairs?
- ↓ delirium - ↓ DVT - ↓ hospital stay - Better pain control
122
Preop: total hip arthroplasty (4)
-mental status (confusion/delerium) -Labs: H&H/anti-coagulation -medications -typical assessment
123
Etiology: total hip arthroplasty (8)
Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Degenerative Synovium or Cartilage Disease Avascular Necrosis Tumors Congenital Deformity Dislocation Failed Reconstruction
124
What are the three life-threatening complications of total hip arthroplasty?
- BCIS: bone cement implantation syndrome - Hemorrhage (Intra and postoperative) - VTE
125
What is the position for THA?
Lateral decubitus -operative side up, padding, axillary roll
126
What are the benefits of neuraxial anesthesia for Total hip arthroplasty?
-decreased EBL -Decreased DVT and PE incidence -Decreased incidence of postop delirium *Most hips get a spinal with hydromorphone or doromorph
127
Is muscle relaxation required in THA?
Yes
128
What chemical is bone cement?
PolyMethylMethAcrylate (PMMA)
129
What does bone cement do when introduced to the intramedullary bone surface?
Release heat and pressurize (Intramedullary HTN >500mmHg!) This can lead to possible embolization of fat, bone marrow, and cement.
130
If cement is systemically absorbed, what happens?
-vasodilation, decreased SVR --> HoTN -Plt aggregation: r/t tissue thromboplastin release -Microthrombus in lungs -CV instability
131
Prevention of BCIS (5)
o Minimize hypotension & hypovolemia o Maximize FiO2 (100%) & SpO2 o Vent hole in femur o Lavage of femoral shaft o Avoid bone cement
132
S/S of BCIS (5)
hypoxia hypotension arrhythmias pulmonary HTN Decreased CO
133
What is the anesthetic management of BCIS?
- ↑ FiO₂ -Maintain euvolemia -Manage HoTN with vasopressors
134
What are the most common complications post THA? (5)
-Cardiac events -PE -Pneumonia -Respiratory failure -infection
135
Indications for hip arthroscopy (4)
Femoro-acetabular impingement Acetabular labral tears Loose bodies Osteoarthritis
136
Positioning for hip arthroscopy
supine w/ weighted traction other equipment
137
What are the 8 pressure points you worry about when pt is in the supine position?
-Toes -heel -thighs -sacrum -elbow -humerous -vertebrae -occiput
138
What are the cardiac physiological changes when a pt is lying supine?
*equalization of pressures throughout the arterial system *increased right-sided filling and cardiac output *decreased heart rate and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR)
139
What respiratory physiological changes occur in supine ?
*Gravity increases perfusion of dependent (posterior) lung segments *abdominal viscera displace diaphragm cephalad *FRC decreases (~800 mL) and may increase/fall below CV (closing volume) in older patients *further exacerbated by an enlarged abdomen such as with obesity, pregnancy, or ascites.
140
In a supine position, spontaneous ventilation favors _______ lung segments, whilst closing volume favors ________ lung segments.
Dependent ; independent
141
The most common postoperative peripheral neuropathy is: a. Ulnar neuropathy b. Brachial plexus injury c. Median nerve injury d. Sciatic nerve compression
a. Ulnar Neuropathy
142
Where are the two major sites of injury in ulnar nerve injury?
Elbow at the **condylar groove** and **cubital tunnel**.
143
How is the condylar groove formed?
*the medial epicondyle of the humerus *the olecranon process of the ulna. *The ulnar nerve is shallow at this point pre-disposing to compression injury, especially in males where there is less protective adipose tissue
144
How is ulnar nerve injury avoided?
Supinate hands (palms up!)
145
Preop hip dislocation (4)
NPO status Comorbidities Intravenous fluid status Require closed reduction
146
What common drugs are often used for "conscious sedation" of a hip dislocation?
Ketamine/Propofol Mix Succinylcholine
147
Postop management of hip dislocation
Pain management mental status * may be admitted for observation
148
Positioning for knee arthroscopy
supine with knee flexed
149
is neuraxial anesthesia common for knee arthroscopy?
No, it is a quick procedure and neuraxial can delay discharge usually sedation with extraarticular and intraarticular injections
150
Post op pain management is typically what for knee arthroscopy?
peripheral nerve block or injections by the surgeon
151
Preop: Total knee arthoplasty
Mental status *Confusion/delirium Labs *Hgb & Hct *Coagulation Medications Typical assessment
152
Anesthesia management: TKA -position -general -Neuraxial -Peripheral nerve block (2) -tourniquet applied:
-position: supine -general -Neuraxial: preferred * spinal -Peripheral nerve block (2) -femoral & sciatic -tourniquet applied: -blood loss begins w/d deflation -risk of peroneal nerve palsy
153
What are the possible complications of tourniquet placement for knee surgeries?
- Blood loss on deflation (note for 24hrs) - Peroneal Nerve Palsy
154
What are the 4 artificial components to a TKA (Total Knee Arthroplasty) ?
1. Tibial Component 2. Femoral Component 3. Patellar Component 4. Plastic Spacer
155
There is significant post op pain after a TKA. What are some pain management considerations?
indwelling epidural catheter continuous peripheral nerve block
156
What three conditions (that anesthesia can control) are most often associated with wound infections?
- Peri-operative glucose control - Post-op hypoxia - Post-op hypothermia
157
What are techniques that can be implemented to decreased risk of wound infections in the OR? (4)
-Decrease traffic in and out of the OR -prep & drape -preop abx -use of hoods
158
Preop: amputation
comorbidities: -diabetics: FBS -pressure ulcers Full sensory assessment psychological support
159
positioning for amputation
supine ** make sure there is appropriate padding for obese and cachectic pts
160
is general or neuraxial anesthesia preferred for amputation?
neuraxial dt decreased incidence of delirium and potentially less phantom pain
161
When can phantom pain occur after amputation
a few days of surgery ** can feel like shooting, stabbing, squeezing, burning, or throbbing pain (C-fibers and A-delta fibers)
162
what are some triggers for phantom pain?
weather changes emotional stress pressure on the remaining area
163
What are some causes of phantom pain? (5)
 Remapping of circuitry  Damaged nerve endings  Scar tissue  Physical memory  Pain prior to amputation
164
TX of phantom pain
biofeedback relaxation massage TENS unit medication
165
What medication classes can be used to treat phantom pain from amputation?
- Neuroleptics - Antidepressants - Na⁺ channel blockers
166
What position is the pt in for an achilles tendon repair?
lateral or prone ** all other ankle/foot procedures are usually done supine
167
Ankle and foot procedures can be done with three different anesthetic approaches. What are they
General, neuraxial or regional
168
What are the 5 nerves that innervate the foot?
Posterior tibial nerve Saphenous nerve Deep peroneal nerve Superficial peroneal nerve Sural nerve
169
What nerve innervates the plantar surface?
Posterior Tibial nerve
170
What nerve innervates the medial malleolus?
Saphenous nerve
171
What nerve innervates the interspace between the great & 2ⁿᵈ toes?
Deep Peroneal nerve
172
What nerve innervates the space between the dorsum of the foot and the 2ⁿᵈ - 5th toes?
Superficial peroneal nerve
173
What nerve innervates the lateral foot and lateral 5th toe?
Sural nerve
174
Postop management for foot/ankle surgery
pain management immobilization *typically outpatient surgery