Orthopedic Investigations Flashcards

(29 cards)

1
Q

What is dactylitis suggestive of (3)

A

psoriatic arthritis
spondyloarthritis
gout

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2
Q

4 hand signs of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Boutonniere deformity of thumb
ulnar deviation of MCP
swan neck deformity of fingers
Hebenden and Bouchard’s nodes

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3
Q

subcutaneous tophi is a sign of what

A

gout

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4
Q

splinter haemorrhages and janeway lesions are a sign of what

A

subacute bacterial endocarditis

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5
Q

malar rash, alopecia and oro-nasal ulcers signs of what

A

SLE

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6
Q

4 (XRay) signs of osteoarthritis

A
joint space narrowing 
osteophytes 
subchondral cysts 
bony sclerosis 
(and loss of shape of femoral head from AVN)
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7
Q

4 options for operative management of osteoarthritis

A
  1. osteotomy (re-align the joint/limb)
  2. arthrodesis (make a stiff, painless joint)
  3. excision arthroplasty (remove arthritis)
  4. replacement arthroplasty (large joints mostly)
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8
Q

4 indications for joint replacement

A
  • disabling pain (despite analgesia)
  • functional restrictions (walking distance)
  • quality of life (night pain)
  • radiographic significant arthritis
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9
Q

3 complications of joint replacement

A

VTE
peri-prosthetic fracture
infection

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10
Q

1st stage of management of rheumatoid arthritis (3)

A

lifestyle:
MD - physio, OT, podiatry
NSAIDs

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11
Q

what makes COX-2 inhibitors preferable to NSAIDs for pain relief

A

less GI bleeding risk (less significant GI symptoms remain eg. dyspepsia)

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12
Q

what are DMARDs

A

long-term suppressive drug therapy - disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

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13
Q

examples of DMARDs

A

methotrexate and sulfasalazine - good efficacy:toxicity ratio

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14
Q

monitoring with DMARDs

A
FBC
LFTs
U&Es
BP
Urinalysis
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15
Q

effects of blocking TNF alpha

A

immune: decreases rheumatoid factor, T cell function restored
inflammation: decreased cytokine production in joints (IL1, 6, TNF)
angiogenesis: decreased

joint destruction: decrease damage to bone/carti

haematology: decreased platelets, fibrinogen, restoration of Hb

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16
Q

do not initiate DMARDs in presence of what

A

serious active infection or high risk

17
Q

what is the Salter Harris classification for?

A
paediatric physeal fractures 
S: separated growth plate
A: above growth plate
L: beLow growth plate
T: through growth plate
ER: erasure of growth plate
18
Q

Treatment of a stable fracture

A

no surgery - hold in correct position until heals - cast/splint/traction

19
Q

Treatment of an unstable fracture

A

surgical fixation with metalwork - usually allows quicker mbilisation of affected limb

20
Q

what is acute compartment syndrome

A

intracompartmental pressure elevated (relative to end capillary-pressure) to a level and duration that causes compromised perfusion of intracompartmental structures

decompression is necessary to prevent muscle necrosis

21
Q

why is decompression required in acute compartment syndrome

A

to prevent muscle necrosis

22
Q

6 Ps of acute compartment syndrome

A
Pain 
Pain on passive stretch 
Paraesthesia 
Paralysis 
Pulses present 
Palpation
23
Q

Most common cause of limp in child

A

transient synovitis

24
Q

3 causes of a chronic limp in child

A

perthes disease
slipped upper femoral epiphysis SUFE
systemic illness (rheumatic disease or tumour)

25
child with limp with: hypothyroidism panhypopiuitarism hypogonadism
SUFE
26
4 causes of child with limp with fever
osteomyelitis septic arthritis transient synovitis leukaemia
27
What does Galeazzi test for
posterior displacement in the developmentally dysplastic hip
28
child with antalgic gait keeping hip in abduction and external rotation (and low grade fever)
transient synovitis
29
typical patient of SUFE
Adolescent obese male 10-15 years bilateral limp limp and hip pain positive trendelenburg test