Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Post Lec Exam > Orthosis > Flashcards

Orthosis Flashcards

(50 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q 
1. Function/s of an orthopedic shoe?
I. Correct a foot deformity
II. Accommodate a foot deformity
III. Forms a component part of the lower
limb orthoses
IV. Replaces an amputated foot
a. I and II 
d. I, II and III
b. I and III 
e. I, II, III and IV
c. II and III
A

d. I, II and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The therapist in an outpatient PT clinic receives an order to obtain a shoe orthotic for a patient. After evaluating the patient, the therapist finds a stage I pressure ulcer on the first MT head. Weight bearing
    surfaces need to be transferred posteriorly. Which orthotic is the most appropriate for this patient?

a. Scaphoid pad
c. Metatarsal pad
b. Thomas heel
d. Cushion heel

A

c. Metatarsal pad

pwede mortons extension/sesamoid pad

Scaphoid pad & Thomas heel - MLA weakness

d. Cushion heel - heel stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. An extension of the medial portion of the breast anteriorly which helps in supporting the medial longitudinal arch?

a. Thomas heel
b. Heel wedge
c. Reverse Thomas heel
d. Heel flare
e. A and C

A

a. Thomas heel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. This type of sole modification will evert or pronate the forefoot?

a. Medial sole wedge
b. Lateral sole wedge
c. Toe crest
d. Medial heel wedge
e. None of these

A

b. Lateral sole wedge

Medial sole wedge - INV/SUP

Toe crest - Toe pain

Medial heel wedge - INV/SUP hindfoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A therapist attempts to trial the use of an orthosis
    for a patient with a steppage gait. Which of the
    following would be MOST appropriate for the therapist to utilize in the trial?

a. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
b. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO)
c. Hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO)
d. Knee immobilizer

A

a. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Patient is a 24-year-old male, status post ACL knee
    reconstruction. He will be returning to the ski team
    next spring and will require bracing of the knee.
    Which of the braces listed is made from a cast
    impression of the leg and provides rotational and
    medio-lateral stability to the knee joint?

a. Three-way knee stabilizer
b. Pro-cam brace
c. Lenox-Hill brace
d. Swedish knee cage

A

c. Lenox-Hill brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. A therapist evaluates a patient during gait. The
    patient demonstrates excessive pronation of the
    right heel at heel strike. Which of the following
    orthotic interventions is most appropriate to
    address the problem?
    a. Forefoot medial posting
    b. Rearfoot valgus posting
    c. Forefoot lateral posting
    d. Rearfoot varus posting
A

d. Rearfoot varus posting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. A medial buckled insert attached to an ankle-foot
    orthosis is used to correct:

a. Ankle valgus deformity
b. Ankle varus deformity
c. Medial longitudinal arch depression
d. Forefoot varus deformity

A

a. Ankle valgus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A type of knee lock for Knee-Ankle-Foot orthosis,
    designed for the gradual stretching of a knee
    flexion contracture:

a. Offset knee joint
b. Pawl lock
c. Free motion
d. Serrated adjustable lock

A

d. Serrated adjustable lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The most commonly used type of knee axis for
    Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis?

a. single
b. double
c. polycentric
d. none of the above

A

a. single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A variation of a typical knee-ankle-foot orthosis
    which allows the SCI patient to stand and walk
    without an additional hip orthosis?

a. Fracture orthosis
b. Typical knee orthosis
c. Standing frame
d. Scott-Craig orthosis

A

d. Scott-Craig orthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Components of a hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis?

I. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis
II. Hip joint
III. Pelvic band
IV. Silesian belt

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

A

d. I, II, III and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Fracture orthosis is usually prescribed for which
    of the following conditions?

a. Fracture of the tibia
b. Fracture of tibia-fibula
c. Fracture of distal 1/3 of femur
d. All of these

A

d. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. A hip lock type used for HKAFO that allows
    patient to stand and sit?

a. Drop-ring lock
b. Pawl lock
c. Two-position hip lock
d. Free motion

A

c. Two-position hip lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A non-rigid spinal orthosis that stabilizes
    sacroiliac joint and commonly used for postpartum and post-trauma patients?

a. Sacroiliac belt
b. Sacroiliac corset
c. Lumbosacral corset
d. None of these

A

a. Sacroiliac belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Biomechanical effects of spinal orthoses:
I. Trunk support
II. Motion control
III. Spinal re-alignment
IV. Partial weight transfer of the head to the trunk when patient is upright (for
neck only)

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. All are correct

A

All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A type of basic collar which is bivalved with
    lateral velcro fasteners, thus ideal for bedridden
    patients?

a. Soft cervical collar
b. Philadelphia (Plastizote) collar
c. Chin piece collar
d. Double support collar

A

b. Philadelphia (Plastizote) collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Best orthosis in limiting cervical spine flexion
    only?

a. Four-poster cervical orthosis
b. Sterno-Occipital-Mandibular Immobilizer
c. Halo orthosis
d. Cuirass orthosis

A

b. Sterno-Occipital-Mandibular Immobilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. A thoraco-lumbo-sacral flexion control orthosis?

a. William brace
b. Taylor brace
c. Cowhorn brace
d. Jewett brace

A

d. Jewett brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. This orthosis is made of thermo-molded plastic
    anterior and posterior parts and fastened with
    Velcro. It is a short flexion jacket used for
    preventing extension in the lumbar spine and it is
    used in low back pain due to spondylolisthesis?

a. Minerva
b. Rainey orthosis
c. Milwaukee brace
d. Boston brace

A

a. Minerva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. A patient has a “diabetic neuropathy” with
    presenting “mediolateral instability of the right
    ankle” while ambulating. The patient also has
    presence “fluctuating edema and sensory loss” in
    both lower extremities. Which of the following
    below is the most appropriate orthotic device?

a. Prefabricated plastic ankle-foot orthosis
b. Modified posterior leaf spring
c. Double upright metal ankle-foot orthosis
d. Spiral ankle-foot orthosis

Study These Flashcards
A

c. Double upright metal ankle-foot orthosis

22
Q

They are often used to rest body parts during
healing, to reduce tone of spastic muscles, or to
decrease or to prevent deformity in upper limb
orthoses?

a. Static orthoses
b. Dynamic orthoses
c. Both
d. Neither

Study These Flashcards
A

a. Static orthoses

Dynamic orthoses - moblize jts & allow movement ; assist weaken

23
Q
  1. Considerations for fitting an upper limb orthosis?

I. Bony prominences
II. Ligamentous stresses
III. Arches of the hand
IV. Alignment

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

Study These Flashcards
A

d. I, II, III and IV

24
Q
  1. Indications of upper limb orthotics?

I. Nerve injuries
II. Paralysis
III. Post-joint replacement
IV. Burns

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

Study These Flashcards
A

d. I, II, III and IV

25
25. It holds the arm out like a wing and it is designed to promote healing of fractures or to immobilize the shoulder in abduction after a reconstructive surgery or burn injury? a. Volar positioning splint b. Dorsal positioning splint c. Airplane splint d. Resting hand splint
c. Airplane splint
26
26. Upper limb splints are used to: a. Prevent contractures b. Promote exercise c. Correct deformity d. All of the above
All of the above
27
27. This type of upper limb orthotic device is intended for CVA patient and mainly used during ambulation: a. Humeral fracture brace b. Hemi shoulder sling c. Airplane splint d. Balanced forearm orthosis
b. Hemi shoulder sling
28
28. Is an old name for the dynamic shoulder orthosis called the balanced forearm orthosis, which is attached to the upright of a wheelchair and supports the forearm and commonly used for feeding the patient himself? a. Ball-bearing feeder b. Dynamic forearm orthosis c. Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand orthosis d. A and B
a. Ball-bearing feeder
29
29. A type of splint prescribed for a patient with an elbow burn injury? a. Anterior arm splint b. Tennis elbow support c. Posterior arm splint d. Humeral cuff
c. Posterior arm splint
30
30. A static positioning device used in patients with lateral epicondylitis? a. Anterior arm splint b. Tennis elbow support c. Posterior arm splint d. Cock-up splint
b. Tennis elbow support
31
31. A wrist-hand orthosis: a. Ends in the palm b. Ends over digits c. Extends into webspace of thumb d. Extends just distal to PIP crease
b. Ends over digits
32
32. Positioning for burns using a resting hand splint? I. 15-20 degrees wrist extension II. 65-70 degrees MCP flexion III. DIP and PIP neutral IV. Thumb slightly adducted a. I, II and III b. I, II and IV c. II, III and IV d. I, II, III and IV
a. I, II and III ABD thumb dapat
33
33. What requirements must the patient meet in order to use an AFO effectively? a. Knee extension strength of >3/5 b. Stable limb size without fluctuating edema for use of a plastic AFO c. Skin pressure tolerance and patient compliance with skin checks d. All of these
d. All of these
34
34. Purpose of dynamic splint, EXCEPT: a. Corrective b. Increase function c. Strengthening d. Immobilization e. None of these
d. Immobilization
35
35. During the first 6 weeks of orthotic therapy, the patient: a. Is advise to perform exercises to help soft tissue adapt to the new postural changes b. Will wear their orthosis between 50-60% of their walking or standing hours c. Will include exercise during work or school d. All of the above e. None of the above
d. All of the above
36
36. The patient should be wearing their orthosis for about 23 hours, with the remaining 1 hour is ideally used for the following except: a. Skin inspection b. Performing stretching c. Strengthening exercises d. All of the above e. None of the above
E
37
37. When wearing an orthotic device, what are some of the guidelines when performing an exercise? a. Exercises should be done step by step b. Perform stretching for 10-12 seconds c. Exercise should relieve tension in the ligaments and muscles d. A and B only e. All of the above
e. All of the above
38
38. Characteristics of posterior leaf spring AFO, except: a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion b. Its purpose is to hold the ankle and foot in a desired position yet allow some flexibility of the ankle c. Indicated for isolated ankle dorsiflexor weakness d. It does not control subtalar eversion, midtarsal pronation, and forefoot abduction
a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion PF only
39
39. Indications for a limited motion-articulated ankle plantarflexion stop with free dorsiflexion include the following: I. Dorsiflexor weakness (drop foot) II. Knee hyperextension in early stance III. Ankle instability: medial or lateral IV. Weakness of quadriceps a. I and III b. II and IV c. I, II and III d. I, II, III and IV
c. I, II and III
40
40. The portion of the shoe over the dorsum of the foot is the upper. It consists of an anterior compartment known as the: a. Vamp b. Quarter c. Pitch d. Counter
a. Vamp
41
41. A medial heel wedge, by applying laterally directed force, can aid in realigning: a. Flexible pes varus b. Flexible pes valgus c. Rigid pes valgus d. B and C
b. Flexible pes valgus
42
42. What is the key design for Scott-Craig orthosis? a. 10 degrees DF b. 20 degrees DF c. 15 degrees PF d. 10 degrees PF
a. 10 degrees DF
43
43. Recently, a 10-year-old patient has begun walking with supination of her foot. With her shoe off, the therapist finds a new callus on the lateral side of the metatarsal head of the 5th toe. The BEST choice for orthotic prescription is: a. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot medial wedge b. Scaphoid pad c. Thomas heel d. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot lateral wedge
d. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot lateral | wedge
44
44. A brace prescribed for an abnormally tracking patella would be which of the following? a. Lerman multi-ligamentous knee orthosis b. Palumbo c. Lenox Hill d. Typical knee orthosis
b. Palumbo A&C knee rot problem
45
45. Common throat style for orthopaedic shoes: a. Balmoral b. Lace-to-toe c. Blucher d. None of the above
c. Blucher
46
46. A therapist performs gait training activities with an eight-year-old child who utilizes a reciprocating gait orthosis. Which medical diagnosis is MOST often associated with the use of this type of orthotic device? a. Cerebral palsy b. Down syndrome c. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease d. Spina bifida
d. Spina bifida
47
47. An orthotic device for children that allows standing without crutch support; it also allows for ease in sitting with the addition of hip and knee joints that can be unlocked and it is used in children with myelodysplasia? a. Parapodium b. RGO c. Standing frame d. All of the above
a. Parapodium
48
48. It is a low profile, molded plastic orthosis for scoliosis; more cosmetic, can be worn under clothing; used for mid-thoracic or lower scoliosis curves of 40 degrees or less? a. Milwaukee orthosis b. Boston orthosis c. Miami orthosis d. Knight orthosis
b. Boston orthosis - below T8
49
49. Which of the following are included in orthotic training? a. Instruct the patient in procedures for orthotic maintenance: routine skin inspection and care. b. Teach proper application (donning-doffing) of the orthosis. c. Teach proper use of the orthosis: Balance training, gait training, and functional activities training. d. All of the above
d. All of the above
50
50. Which of the following spinal orthotic devices below is used for scoliosis with apex above T6? a. Miami b. Milwaukee c. Boston d. Cruciform
b. Milwaukee

Post Lec Exam (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions