Osteoporosis and Other Metabolic Bone Disease Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

Osteoporosis treatment of choice

A

Bisphosphonates

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2
Q

Bisphosphonates MOA

A

Mimics pyrophosphate, an endogenous bone resorption inhibitor

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3
Q

Bisphosphonates indicated for postmenopausal, male, and glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis

A

Alendronate
risedronate
intravenous zoledronic acid

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4
Q

Bisphosphonate ONLY indicated for postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

Intravenous and oral ibandronate

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5
Q

Contraindications for Bisphosphonates

A

Pts with creatinine clearances less than 30 to 35 mL/min
Pts who have serious GI conditions
Pts who are pregnant

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6
Q

Adverse effect of Bisphosphonates

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw- Black Box Warning

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7
Q

What should the pt do when taking Bisposphonates?

A

The patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after alendronate and risedronate and 1 hour after ibandronate administration

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8
Q

Patient’s serum calcium concentrations must be _______ prior to using bisphosphonates

A

Normal

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9
Q

Administration

A

Oral dose should be taken with at least 6 ounces of plain tap water (not coffee, juice, mineral water, or milk) at least 30 minutes before consuming any food, supplements (including calcium and vitamin D), or medications

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10
Q

What is a full human monoclonal antibody used for osteoporosis?

A

Denosumab

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11
Q

Denosumab MOA

A

Inhibits RANKL from binding RANK receptor on the surface of osteoclast precursor cells and mature osteoclasts

aka It inhibits osteoclastogenesis and increases osteoclast apoptosis

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12
Q

Indication for Denosumab

A

women and men at high risk for fracture (used to increase bone mass in men receiving androgen deprivation therapy and in women receiving adjuvant aromatase inhibitor therapy)

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13
Q

Adverse Effects of Denosumab

A

Bone turnover suppression and serious skin infections (Rare)

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14
Q

What is Raloxifene (Mixed Estrogen Agonists/Antagonists) indicated for?

A

prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis

invasive breast cancer risk reduction

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15
Q

Raloxifene MOA

A

estrogenic agonist actions in bone but antagonist actions in breast and uterine tissue

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16
Q

Does Raloxifene have positive Lipid effects?

A

Yup.

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17
Q

Does Raloxifene have reduction in cardiovascular effects?

A

Na.

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18
Q

Raloxifene contraindications

A

Pts with active or past history of venous thromboembolic event

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19
Q

When should therapy be stopped?

A

If the pt anticipates extended immobility

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20
Q

Adverse Reaction

A

Hot flashes

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21
Q

What is Calcitonin

A

endogenous hormone released from the thyroid gland when serum calcium is elevated

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22
Q

If a pt is allergic to fish (salmon) should Calcitonin be given?

A

No. It comes from salamon

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23
Q

What line treatment is Calcitonin?

A

LAST

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24
Q

Name an Anabolic Therapy

A

Teriparatide

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25
What is Teriparatide?
It is a recombinant product representing the first 34 amino acids in human PTH
26
Teriparatide is indicated in who?
postmenopausal women, men, and patients on glucocorticoids who are at high risk for fracture
27
What position should the pt be in when receiving the first dose?
sitting or lying down in case orthostatic hypotension occurs
28
Teriparatide Adverse Effects
Transient hypercalcemia ( measure serum Ca at 1 month and decr Ca intake if high)
29
Teriparatide black box warning
Incr risk of osteosarcoma
30
Can you use Estrogen and Testosterone as therapy for osteoporosis?
Yeah
31
RA is associated with an incr risk of what?
Cardiovascular mortality
32
What can be used for symptomatic relief?
NSAIDS and/or corticosteriods
33
What does DMARD stand for?
Disease-modifying antirheumatic drug
34
How long does it take for DMARDs to show benefit?
Weeks to months
35
Examples of Non-Biologic DMARDS
- Methotrexate - hydroxychloroquine - sulfasalazine - leflunomide - Minocycline
36
Examples of Biologic DMARDS
- Anti-TNF drugs (etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab, golimumab) - abatacept - rituximab
37
What do biologic DMARDS do?
Deplete Perif B cells
38
What is less commonly used for RA?
-IL-1 receptor antagonist anakinra, azathioprine, D-penicillamine - gold - minocycline - cyclosporine - cyclophosphamide
39
What properties does Methotraxate have?
Anti-inflam
40
When given Methotrexate what also needs to be given?
Folic acid suppliment
41
Leflunomide has a risk of?
Liver Tox
42
Leflunomide is contraindicated in who?
Pts planning to be pregnant or are pregnanat
43
What is the main advantage to Hydroxychlotoquine?
the lack of myelosuppressive, hepatic, and renal toxicities
44
What are some short term toxicities of hydroxychloroquine? How can you manages them?
nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Take with a meal
45
Major side effect of hydroxychloroquine
Ocular Toxicity
46
Contraindication of Anti-TNF agents
CHF
47
Abatacept is approved for .....
the treatment of RA in patients with moderate to severe disease who fail to achieve an adequate response from one or more DMARDs
48
How does Abatacept function?
by binding to CD80/CD86 receptors (prevents inflammatory process)
49
Who is Rituximab used for?
patients who failed methotrexate or TNF inhibitors
50
What does Tocilizumab do?
attaches to IL-6 receptors (IL-6 plays a role in RA inflam)
51
What is Anakinra?
naturally occurring IL-1 receptor antagonist
52
Can NSAIDs and Acetaminophen be used for Osteoarthritis?
Yup
53
If they have kidney problems what should you do?
Use Acetaminophen. If you have to us NSAIDs fort some reason use the smallest possible dose.
54
What should you use if they have cardiovascular problem?
Naproxen--> Max dose is 1000mg
55
Max dose of Ibuprofen?
3200mg
56
Example of a COX2 inhib?
Celebrex
57
Where is COX1 expressed?
Gastric Mucosa and vascular endothelial cells
58
What should the pt do to minimize adverse drug reactions from NSAIDs?
Take with food or milk
59
Do NSAIDs incr BP?
Yeah
60
What is a topical Therapy for OA?
Capsaicin--> Depletes substance P
61
Alternative Therapies for OA
- glucosamine and chondroitin - Coticosteroids - Hyaluronic acid - Tramadol - Low dose opioids
62
How is uric acid cleared form the body?
Renally
63
Who is gout consistently higher in?
obese individual or those who consume large amounts of alcohol or higher amounts of meat or fish
64
What drugs are capible of inducing hyperuricemia and gout?
Diuretics | Salicylates
65
What is a antimitotic drug that is highly effective at relieving acute attacks of gout?
Colchicine
66
What happens if you delay the initiation of Colchicine?
The probability of success diminishes substantially
67
What does Xanthine Oxidase do?
Lowers uric acid Concentration
68
Examples of Xanthine Oxidases
Allopurinol (first line but needs renal adjustment) and febuxostat (no renal adjustment needed)
69
What are examples of Uricosuric Drugs?
Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone
70
How should uricosuric drugs be administered?
Start with a low dose to avoid stone formation
71
What is a major disadvantage of Uricosurics?
Salicylates may interrupt its mechanism resulting in treatment failure
72
Contraindication of uricosurics
Creat clearance <50 mL/min and hx of renal calculi
73
Major adverse effects of uricosurics
gi irritation, rash, hypersensitivity, precipitation of acute gouty arthritis, stone formation
74
When taking uricosurics they should be kept...
well hydrated