Other Limitations and Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

Is the aircraft certified for ditching when appropriate safety equipment is installed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maneuvering Load Limit Flaps Up

A

+2.6 to -1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maneuvering Load Limit Flaps Extended

A

+2.0 to 0.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum Pressure Altitude for Flight

A

FL450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When Type II, III, IV anti-icing funds have been applied the wing anti-ice system must only be selected on…?

A

just prior to thrust application for takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In accordance with FCOM, Supplement 1, -Cold Weather Operations, takeoff IS permitted with frost adhering to the:

(2)

A

a) underside of the wing that is caused by cod soaked fuel.

b) Upper surface of the fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Selecting the AIR SOURCE switch to TRIM AIR ONLY is prohibited when?

A

The aircraft is on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ________ must be operating when the aircraft electrical power is ON for more than 30 minutes and the OAT is >40C (104F)

A

PACK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Crew and Passenger oxygen masks are only approved up to what cabin altitude?

A

40,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prolonged operation of passenger oxygen masks above what altitude is not recommended?

A

25,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum differential pressure on the ground is?

A

0.1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum differential pressure during landing must not exceed?

A

1.0 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure is?

A

9.4 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure is?

A

-0.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Autopilot minimum engaged height on Climbs, Enroute flight, and Descent is?

A

700’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Precision Approach with a glide slope angle of 3.5 degrees or less is?

A

80’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Precision Approach with a glide slope angle between 3.5 to 4.5 degrees is?

A

160’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Visual or Non-Precision approach is?

A

200’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum altitude with Yaw Damper OFF is?

A

31,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Required Equipment for RVSM?

A
  1. Operational Autopilot
  2. Operational Altitude Alerting System
  3. One Operational Altitude Reporting Transponder
  4. Two Operational Air Data Computers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To use the FMS as a Navigation Source it must be receiving navigation information from the following:

A

a. Two GNSS -or-
b. Two DMEs -or-
c. One VOR/DME -or-
d. One IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Use of the FMS Secondary flight plan function is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Use of FMS navigation South of 60 degrees S is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Use of FMS navigation North of 73 degrees N is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
RNP APCH CDI Scale is?
0.3 nm
26
Basic RNP-1 CDI Scale is?
1.0 nm
27
RNP-2 CDI Scale is?
2.0 nm
28
RNP-4 CDI Scale is?
4.0 nm
29
RNP-10 CDI Scale is?
4.0 nm
30
What must be annunciated on the PFD in order to use an FMS approach?
RNP APPR or LPV APPR
31
What type of approach is prohibited with the Standby Instrument?
Localizer Backcourse
32
Do not extend the Flaps above?
FL180
33
Do not extend Flight Spoilers except during an ___________?
Emergency Condition
34
Flight Spoilers must not be extended in flight at airspeeds below?
Approach Speed +8 KIAS
35
Flight Spoilers must not be extended in flight below _____AGL.
500'
36
Do not extend the landing gear above?
FL180
37
Max continuous Amps with 2 or 3 generators?
400 amps
38
Max continuous Amps 1 generator on the ground?
400 amps
39
Max continuous Amps 1 generator in flight?
500 amps
40
Max continuous Amps Transient (5 minutes)
600 amps
41
Usable Fuel Load with Pressure fueling?
14,150
42
Usable Fuel Load with Gravity fueling?
13,000
43
Approved Fuels?
Jet A, JETA1, JET B, JP-4, JP-5, JP-8. JET B and JP-4 maximum altitude 16,000'
44
CL350 Engine Type and Thrust
HTF7350 | 7,323 lbs of thrust
45
The engines must be motored for _____ seconds after an aborted start.
30 seconds
46
How many engine start cycles may be attempted?
3 consecutive start cycles followed by a 15 minute cooling period.
47
Reverse Thrust is limited to Idle Reverse below _____KIAS.
40 KIAS
48
APU Maximum altitude to be operated?
37,000'
49
APU Maximum Altitude to be used as a generator?
30,000'
50
APU Maximum altitude to use Bleed Air for Engine Start?
20,000'
51
APU Maximum altitude to use Bleed Air for ECS?
20,000'
52
Do not use APU to start the left engine on the ground above?
9,000'
53
Can the APU be operated during fluid deicing/anti-icing?
NO
54
The APU may be started up to an altitude of? | Ground/Flight
30,000' Flight | 14,000' Ground
55
What numbers/time do you watch for when starting APU? | hung start
RPM 30% within 30 seconds.
56
APU starting attempt limitations?
1-1 minute 2-1 minute 3-20 minutes 4 and 5 may then be attempted followed by a cooling period of 40 minutes.
57
Flexjet APU Airstart limitation?
250 KIAS, 10,000; maximum, 1 attempt.
58
APU maximum RPM?
108%
59
APU Start EGT Limit?
973C
60
APU Normal Operations EGT?
718C.
61
CAS messages are inhibited on takeoff when?
Starts when you accelerate through 80 knots. Ends when you reach 400’ or 60 seconds.
62
CAS messages are inhibited for landing when?
Starts when you descend through 400’. Ends when you decelerate through 40 knots or 60 seconds.