choose the correct answers:
a) coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) C. burnetii is rather sensitive to heat and cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat and they can survive the pasteurisation
d) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat and cannot survive the pasteurisation
a) coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
d) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat and cannot survive the pasteurisation
choose the correct answers:
a) broilers infected with salmonella Enteritidis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at designated slaughterhouse
b) Broilers infected with salmonella Enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
c) cattle producing postive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
d) cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately
b) Broilers infected with salmonella Enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
d) cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately
what parameters can be seen on heat penetration graph from the list below?
a) temperature of can itself
b) retort temperature
c) storage time of the product
d) processing time of the product
b) retort temperature
d) processing time of the product
which two of the following sentences is true about clostridia?
a) obligate aerobes
b) produce spores
c) are the perfect indicators for the effectiveness of the chlorination
d) are able to reduce sulphite and sulphide
b) produce spores
d) are able to reduce sulphite and sulphide
choose the correct statements?
a) salmonella contamination of the carcass should be checked according to the microbiological EU regulation
b) salmonella contamination of the carcass according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
c) carcasses can be put onto the market irrespective to the result of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
d) carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process of hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market
a) salmonella contamination of the carcass should be checked according to the microbiological EU regulation
c) carcasses can be put onto the market irrespective to the result of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
choose the correct statements:
a) cattle are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
b )cattle are stunned with mechanical stunning
c) at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned with mechanical stunning
d) at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
b )cattle are stunned with mechanical stunning
d) at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
choose the correct statements:
a) dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissue of the consumer
b) dioxins accumulate in the kidneys of the consumer
c) dioxins are widely used compounds in different industrial processes
d) significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires
a) dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissue of the consumer
d) significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires
choose the correct statements:
a) category 1 waste shall be disposed of by incineration
b) category 1 waste shall be used for the manufacture of pet food
c) blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
d) blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
a) category 1 waste shall be disposed of by incineration
d) blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) an increased potential acidity decree indicates the souring of milk
b) a decreased potential acidity degree of milk indicates the souring of milk
c) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically lower than normal
d) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically higher than normal
a) an increased potential acidity decree indicates the souring of milk
c) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically lower than normal
choose the correct statements:
a) campylobacters are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurisation
b ) campylobacters are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by the pasteurisation
c) salmonella are rather resistant to heat and can survive the pasteurisation
d) salmonella are rather sensitive to heat and are killed by the pasteurisation
b ) campylobacters are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by the pasteurisation
d) salmonella are rather sensitive to heat and are killed by the pasteurisation
choose the correct statements:
a) campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
b) campylobacter jejuni can get into an egg through its pores, causing a secondary contamination of it
c) salmonella enteritidis cannot get into an egg through its pores causing secondary contamination
d) salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination
a) campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
d) salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination
choose the correct statements:
a) After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
b) in the case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) for small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
d) for small game, the official veterinarians meat in section is done on each single animal
b) in the case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) for small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
choose the correct statements:
a) in case of drinking water the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
b) in case of drinking water the test for C. perfringens as faecal indicator is obligatory
c) the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature
d) the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature
a) in case of drinking water the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
c) the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature
choose the correct statement:
a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment
b )organophosphates are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment
c) Pyrethroids are persisting compounds in the environment
d) Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment
a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment
d) Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment (rapid degradation in the body and in environment)
choose the correct statements:
a) the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
b) the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers
c) the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality
d) the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety
a) the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
d) the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety
choose the correct statements:
a) Emergency slaughter involved the urgent bleeding of animals being suspected of infection
b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding or healthy, injured animals
c) Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection
d) immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding or healthy, injured animals
c) Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection
choose the correct answer:
a) the use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
b )during smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400˚C
c) during smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400˚C
d) the durability of the cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process
a) the use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
d) the durability of the cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process
which one is microbial growth inhibition test?
a) ROSA
b) Delvotest
c) KIS
d) snap test
b) Delvotest
c) KIS
choose the correct statements:
a) only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
b )only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement
c )the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of a gram - bacteria
d) the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of a gram + bacteria
a) only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
c )the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of a gram - bacteria
choose the correct statements:
a) the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are not heat treated therefore cannot be eaten cold
b )the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated therefore can be eaten cold
c) the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are not always heat treated
d) the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience
b )the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated therefore can be eaten cold
d) the frankfurters distributed in shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience
choose the correct statements:
a) control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the GHP audit
b )control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c )the poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution
d) the poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
b )control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c )the poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution
choose the correct statements:
a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
b) According to the corresponding EU legislation food processing establishment shall be controlled at least annually
c )conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
d )conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the HACCP
a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d )conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the HACCP
choose the correct statement:
a) the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy all forms of pathogenic bacteria
b) the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c )Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at temperature below 100˚C
d) Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at temperature above 100˚C
b) the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c )Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at temperature below 100˚C
choose the correct statements:
a) milk collecting centres are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
b )milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
C) wholesale cold stores are subject to approval
d) wholesale cold stores are not subject to approval
b )milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
C) wholesale cold stores are subject to approval
which of these cheese types are hard and full-fat cheese?
a) Cheddar
b) Mozzarella
c) feta
d) Emmental
a) Cheddar
d) Emmental
what applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for enterobacterium multiplication based on VRBG agar during our practicals?
a) 60˚C for 30 mins
b) 80˚C for 20 mins
c) 90˚C for 5 mins
d) only boiling water
a) 60˚C for 30 mins
b) 80˚C for 20 mins
what is typical for Hungarian Trappist cheese made also during the practical?
a) Rennet coagulated
b) acid coagulated
c) prespressing under whey
d) irregular holes
a) Rennet coagulated
c) prespressing under whey
choose the correct statements:
a)when applying immersion chilling the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 16˚c
b )when applying immersion chilling the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C
c) chilling is a critical step for poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
d) Evisceration is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
b )when applying immersion chilling the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C
c) chilling is a critical step for poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
choose the correct statements:
a) cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasturised milk
b) cheese made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
c) Early blowing of semi hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
d) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms
a) cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasturised milk
d) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms
choose the correct statement:
a) buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
b) buttermilk cannot be separated by washing
c) physical ripening of cream results in sour butter
d) biological ripening of cream results in sour butter
a) buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
d) biological ripening of cream results in sour butter
choose the correct statements:
a) phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by micro algae
b) phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by moulds
c) solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
d) solanine mainly occurs in stone fruits
a) phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by micro algae
c) solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
choose the correct statements:
a) patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
b) zearalenone may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
c) fumonisins can be produced mainly on oilseeds
d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize
a) patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize
choose the correct statements:
a) in general, the water activity demand of gram positive bacteria is higher than the gram negative ones
b) In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria is higher than the gram positive ones
c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than yeasts
d) in general, the water activity of bacterial is lower than yeasts
b) In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria is higher than the gram positive ones
c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than yeasts
choose the correct statements:
a) campylobacter usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
b) L. monocytogenes usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
c) the clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extra intestinal signs
d) the clinical signs caused by monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by intestinal signs
b) L. monocytogenes usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
c) the clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extra intestinal signs
choose the correct statement:
a) for quick curing, nitrate-containing salt mix is used
b )for quick curing, nitrite containing salt mix is used
c )the products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
d) the products prepared by quick curing are microbiologically more stable
b )for quick curing, nitrite containing salt mix is used
c )the products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
choose the correct statements:
a) In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food-producing animals
b )In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food producing animals
c) Beta agonists are illegal growth promoters, but can be used for therapy
d) beta agonists are not allowed for use in food producing animals, at all
b )In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food producing animals
c) Beta agonists are illegal growth promoters, but can be used for therapy
choose the correct statements:
a) water activity means total water content of foods
b) water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) water activity of foods is characterised by the aw value
d) water activity of foods is characterised by the Eh value
b) water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) water activity of foods is characterised by the aw value
choose the correct statements:
a) milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles
b) milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
c) caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules
d) caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles
b) milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
d) caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles
which substance can be measured in the fishery product if there is doubt about freshness?
a) total volatile basic nitrogen
b) ciguatoxin
c) tetrodotoxin
d) trimethylamine-nitrogen
a) total volatile basic nitrogen
d) trimethylamine-nitrogen
choose the correct statements:
a) yogurt may contain probiotic bacteria
b) yogurt is made with mesophilic starter culture
c )yogurt can be set-type and stirred type
d) after yogurt fermentation there is no need for ageing in the fridge
a) yogurt may contain probiotic bacteria
c )yogurt can be set-type and stirred type
choose the correct statements:
a) Caseins are produced in the udder
b )caseins originate from the blood
c) caseins remain in solution during sour coagulation
d) whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation
a) Caseins are produced in the udder
d) whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation
choose the correct statements:
a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella are available
b) pigs must not be health marked before the results of the trichinella are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) poultry meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) if trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
b )If trichenellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c) Ig hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver only the affected organ shall be condemned
d) If hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
b )If trichenellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c) Ig hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver only the affected organ shall be condemned
choose the correct statements:
a) the meat emaciated animals can be used for human consumption after heat treatment if the causative agent is zoonotic
b) the meat of an emaciated animal is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
c) in case of sex odour of pork the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d )in case of sex odour of port the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
b) the meat of an emaciated animal is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
d )in case of sex odour of port the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) if foot and mouth is confirmed at the slaughter house all susceptible animals present at the slaughter shall be slaughtered according to the rule of immediate slaughter
b )if foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughter house all susceptible animals present shall be killed
c )the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the strong zoonotic potential of its causative agent
d )the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due too the highly contagious nature of its causative agent
b )if foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughter house all susceptible animals present shall be killed
d )the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due too the highly contagious nature of its causative agent
choose the correct statements:
a) the meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
b )the meat ageing in pigs is faster than in poultry
c) the meat ageing of cattle is faster than in pigs
d) the meat ageing of pigs is faster than in cattle
a) the meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
d) the meat ageing of pigs is faster than in cattle
choose the correct statement:
a) if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection only the affected organs shall be condemned
b )if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass is condemned
c )if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
b )if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass is condemned
d) if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
choose the correct statements:
a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance only in cattle
b) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in pigs
c) If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) if Q fever is diagnosed a the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance only in cattle
d) if Q fever is diagnosed a the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
choose the correct statements:
a) the health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets into the retail shops
b )the health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets into retail shops
c) in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment
d) in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification mark
b )the health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets into retail shops
c) in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment
mark the correct statements:
a) in restaurants raw milk can only be used after boiling
b )in restaurants raw milk can also be served
c) in restaurants hunted unskilled wild game can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence
d) In restaurants it is not allowed to process hunted unskilled game
a) in restaurants raw milk can only be used after boiling
c) in restaurants hunted unskilled wild game can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence
choose the correct statements:
a) in cattle, the last 4 metres of ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
b) in cattle, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
c) in sheep the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
d )in sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
a) in cattle, the last 4 metres of ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
d )in sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
mark the correct statements:
a) clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxic-infection in infants
b) clostridium botulinum spores surviving in honey cannot germinate in the intestines of infants
c )wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
d) depending on the environment conditions, listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk
a) clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxic-infection in infants
c )wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
choose the correct statements:
a) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, liver shall be inspected by incision
b) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, liver shall be inspected visually
c) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthways
d )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
b) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, liver shall be inspected visually
d )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
choose the correct statements:
a) rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
b )rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent faecal contamination
c) in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM irrespective of the animals age
d) in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals > 12 months old
a) rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
d) in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals > 12 months old
choose the correct statements:
a) in the case of a single, localised cyst of cystircercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
b) in the case of a single, localised cyst of cystircercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption without cold treatment
c) classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animal health significance
d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever
a) in the case of a single, localised cyst of cystircercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever
choose the correct statement:
a) in case of food poisoning the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
b )in case of food poisoning the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract
c )in case of toxico-infection the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d )in case of toxico-infection the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract
a) in case of food poisoning the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d )in case of toxico-infection the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract
choose the correct statements:
a) in case of BSE, diseased animals shall be slaughtered at a designated slaughterhouse according to the rules of immediate slaughter
b )In the case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at designated slaughterhouse
c) the definitive hosts of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man
d) the definitive hosts of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis are carnivores
b )In the case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at designated slaughterhouse
c) the definitive hosts of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man
choose the correct statements:
a) In the EU, its is member states competence to determine their official organisation
b) in the EU, the official control organisations are defined in the official control regulation
c )In the EU, it is member states competence to define the methods of official control
d) in the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation
a) In the EU, its is member states competence to determine their official organisation
d) in the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation
what is the maximum amount of colonies that can be counted?
a) 150 colonies/ Petri dish
b) 300 colonies/ Petri dish
c) 150 colonies/ membrane
d) 300 colonies/ membrane
b) 300 colonies/ Petri dish
c) 150 colonies/ membrane
what is the definition of migration and penetration in packaging?
a) migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
b )migration means that a component directs from the product to the packaging
c) penetration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
d) penetration means that a component directs from the product to the packaging
a) migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
d) penetration means that a component directs from the product to the packaging
for which plants is registration not sufficient (subject to authorisation)?
a) slaughterhouse
b) small scale fruit slicer
c) large scale fruit slicer
d) cold store
a) slaughterhouse
d) cold store
which of the following statements is true about PSE meat?
a) the PH of the meat is slightly alkaline
b )usually caused by chronic stress
c )fit for human consumption
d) there is a rapid PH decrease during the ageing process
c) fit for human consumption
d) there is a rapid PH decrease during the ageing process
for which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures of the previous year?
a) swine
b) cattle
c) broiler chickens
d) Honey
c) broiler chickens
d) Honey
choose the correct statements:
a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
b )the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least two samples from the neck skin
c) if imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d) if imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
d) if imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) basic document of the intra-community trade of foodstuffs in the EU is the common health entry document (CHED)
b) basic document of the international trade of foodstuff imported from third countries is the common health entry document (CHED)
c) Foodstuff of animal origin can enter the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only
d) Food stuff of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only
b) basic document of the international trade of foodstuff imported from third countries is the common health entry document (CHED)
c) Foodstuff of animal origin can enter the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only
choose the correct statements:
a) cracked eggs must not be used for human consumption
b) cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
c) Eggs containing blood or meat spots must not be used for human consumption at all
d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
b) cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
choose the correct statement:
a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change in the feed
b) spoilage is a profound safety change of the food
c) microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
d) microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and viruses
a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change in the feed
c) microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
choose the correct statement:
a) food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
b) food quality is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food hygiene
c) food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production
d) food hygiene requirements and tools do not refer to the primary production
a) food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
c) food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production
choose the correct statement:
a) the spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria
b) the spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria
c) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a higher water activity
d) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with low water activity
a) the spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria
c) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a higher water activity
choose the correct statement:
a) the official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c )Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
d) scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in the flesh
b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c )Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
in which cases is the carcass unfit for human consumption?
a) leanness
b) icterus/ jaundice
c) insufficient bleeding
d) DFD meat
b) icterus/ jaundice
c) insufficient bleeding
which product belongs to the primary products?
a) raw milk
b) dairy products
c) egg
d) sausage
a) raw milk
c) egg
which information is part of the producer code on the eggshell?
a) the approval number of the egg packing centre
b) the registration number of the laying hen farm
c) EC (European community)
b) the registration number of the laying hen farm
b) the registration number of the laying hen farm
b) the registration number of the laying hen farm
which investigation must be performed during the official control of bivalves?
a) faecal contamination of the production area
b) measurement of histamine concentration
c) biotoxin content of the flesh of bivalves
d )measurement of mercury concentration
a) faecal contamination of the production area
c) biotin content of the flesh of bivalves
choose the correct statement:
a) during meat ageing the meat water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the PH reduction
b )during meat ageing the water holding capacity of proteins increases due to the PH reduction
c) After bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster due to the final PH than in pigs
d )after bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster due to the final PH than in cattle
a) during meat ageing the meat water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the PH reduction
d )after bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster due to the final PH than in cattle
choose the correct answer:
a) lactoscan equipment is used to perform microbial growth inhibition test
b )lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and protein which is important for the price quotation of milk
c) lactoscan equipment is used to determine the total plate count of the received raw milk
d) Lactoscan equipment is not just for the raw milk but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during manufacture of the dairy products
b )lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and protein which is important for the price quotation of milk
d) Lactoscan equipment is not just for the raw milk but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during manufacture of the dairy products
which methods may be used for determining the water added to the milk (possible food alteration):
a) Alcohol test
b )Density measurement
c) Peroxidase test
d) measuring the freezing point
b )Density measurement
d) measuring the freezing point
what is the role of nitrite in cured meat products?
a) it is prohibiting the growth of germs of colostrum botulinum
b )it causes a red colour to the cured meat, which is NOT heat resistant
c )it has an antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
d) it has no role since it is not allowed to apply in the EU
a) it is prohibiting the growth of germs of colostrum botulinum
c )it has an antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
which of the following statements are true?
a) the E. coli produces Beta-galactosidase enzyme
b )the E. coli produced beta-glucoronidase enzyme
c) the E. coli are able to survive 60˚C for 30 mins
d) the E. coli are UV fluorescent
a) the E. coli produces Beta-galactosidase enzyme
b )the E. coli produced beta-glucoronidase enzyme
choose the correct statements:
a) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as live animals
b) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered an unprocessed product such as fresh meat
c) Ante mortem inspection of hunted wild game shall be performed by a veterinarian
d) ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter
a) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as live animals
d) ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter
what is the difference between food industrial by-products and waste?
a) it is not generated inevitably
b )Exclusively legal requirements may decide on it
c )rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate
d )not to be treated within the plant
a) it is not generated inevitably
c )rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate
which if the following are true for trichinella examination?
a) faecal samples are used
b )muscle samples are used
c) the basis of examination is the detection of trichinella larvae
d) in the slaughterhouse maximum 5 animals must be sampled daily
b )muscle samples are used
c) the basis of examination is the detection of trichinella larvae
which of the following eggs can be suitable for human consumption?
a) cracked
b) contaminated shell
c) blood ring
d) mixed content
a) cracked
b) contaminated shell
what are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods?
a) more reliable qualitative analysis
b) more sensitive quantitative analysis
c ) more cost effective procedures
d) all statements are true
a) more reliable qualitative analysis
b) more sensitive quantitative analysis
which organic acid and what PH was applied successfully during our practicals?
a) Formic acid
b) PH6.5
c) Sorbic acid
d) PH 4.5
c) Sorbic acid
d) PH 4.5
choose the correct statements:
a) in most European countries single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
c )in most European countries a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control
choose the correct statements:
a) in the case of suspected anthrax infection, an immediate slaughter of affected animals should be ordered
b )in the case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
c) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected can be slaughtered unconditionally at the slaughterhouse
d) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at slaughterhouses
b )in the case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
d) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at slaughterhouses
choose the correct statements:
a) surface contamination of eggs shall be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
b )surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c) candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market
d) candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption
b )surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c) candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market
choose the correct statement:
a) Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
b )the hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre
c) the hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
d) the hunted game must not be skinned on the spot
a) Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
d) the hunted game must not be skinned on the spot
choose the correct statements:
a) the routine Post-mortem inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
b) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
c )as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced
d) In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision
b) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
d) In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision
choose the correct statements:
a) as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
b )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways
d) as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the heart shall be opened lengthways
b )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways
choose the correct statements:
a) one of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human consumption
b) the meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c) in poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
d) In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
b) the meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c) in poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
choose the correct statement:
a) S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
b )S. aureus is not excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
c) the heat resistance of mycobacterium paratuberculosis is lower than that of M. bovis
d) the heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis
a) S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
d) the heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis
choose the correct statement:
a) Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short time (HTST) pasteurisation
b )peroxidase test can be used for determine the effectiveness of HTST pasteurisation
c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72˚C within 15 seconds
d) peroxidase is inactivated at 72˚C within 15 seconds
a) Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short time (HTST) pasteurisation
c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72˚C within 15 seconds
choose the correct statement:
a) combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
b) combined preservation is based on the hazard analysis concept
c) In protective atmospheric packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen
d )in protective atmosphere packaging, carbon dioxide is partly replaced by oxygen and nitrogen
a) combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
c) In protective atmospheric packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen
choose the correct statement:
a) Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce toxins under these climatic conditions
b )Aflatoxin-producing mould species may also occur in Central Europe and can also produce toxins due to the climatic change
c) Ochratoxins can be produced under hot climatic conditions
d) Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions
b )Aflatoxin-producing mould species may also occur in Central Europe and can also produce toxins due to the climatic change
d) Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions
choose the correct statements:
a) the minimum water activity of campylobacters is lower than that os salmonellae
b) the minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
c) campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30˚C
d) Campylobacters are psychrophilic bacteria that can still grow below 5˚C
b) the minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
c) campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30˚C
choose the correct statements:
a) food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
b) food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
c )food safety includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
d) food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
a) food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
d) food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
choose the correct statements:
a) the D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
b) the D value is the temperature increase necessary for a ten fold reduction of the thermal death time
c )the z value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
d) the z value is the temperature increase necessary for a ten fold reduction of the thermal death time
a) the D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
d) the z value is the temperature increase necessary for a ten fold reduction of the thermal death time
choose the correct statements:
a) the HACCP plan should be established - and product - specific
b )the GHP plan should be established - and product -specific
c) the GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by the HACCP
d) the HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP
a) the HACCP plan should be established - and product - specific
d) the HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP
choose the correct statements:
a) in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms reduces as the water activity decreases
b) in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
c )the heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the PH optimum of their growth
d) the heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the PH optimum for their growth
b) in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
d) the heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the PH optimum for their growth
choose the correct statements:
a) in food processing plants water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well
b) In food processing plants water of drinking water of non-potable quality can be used for hand washing and cleaning
c) Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect
d) Equipment surfaces coming into contact with food shall be sterile
a) in food processing plants water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well
c) Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect
choose the correct statement:
a) the redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of minced meat
b )the redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
c )in general, the PH optimum of bacterium is lower than that of moulds
d )In general, the PH optimum of bacterium is higher than that of moulds
b )the redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
d )In general, the PH optimum of bacterium is higher than that of moulds
choose the correct statements:
a) the efficacy of iodophors is increased by the elevation of temperature
b )the efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature
c )the cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
d )the anion-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
b )the efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature
c )the cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
choose the correct statements:
a) food chain and animal foodstuff does not include the farm and feed industry
b )Food chain and animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and feed industry
c )food safety is based primarily on consumer expectations
d )Food quality is based primarily on consumer expectations
b )Food chain and animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and feed industry
d )Food quality is based primarily on consumer expectations
choose the correct statements:
a) the ineffective dose of campylobacters is high, at least 10 000 cells are needed to induce disease in humans
b )the ineffective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans
c) the ineffective dose of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
d) the ineffective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae
b )the ineffective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans
d) the ineffective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae
choose the correct statements:
a) the infective dose of salmonellae is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
b )the ineffective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacteria may induce disease in humans
c) the infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains
d) the infective dose of EHEC strains is higher than that of other E. coli strains
b )the ineffective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacteria may induce disease in humans
c) the infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains
choose the correct statements:
a) botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b) Botulinum toxin ia an emetic toxin that can cause GI signs
c )the emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
d) the diarrheic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
a) botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
d) the diarrheic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
choose the correct statements:
a) Listeria monocytogenes is psychrophilic bacterium
b )Listeria monocytogenes is a mesophilic bacterium
c) salmonella enteritidis is a psychrophilic bacterium
d) salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium
a) Listeria monocytogenes is psychrophilic bacterium
d) salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium
choose the correct statement:
a) Yersinia enterocolica is a mesophilic bacterium
b) Yersinia enterocolica is a psychrophilic bacterium
c) Yersinia enterocolica typically causes extra intestinal signs in humans
d) Yersinia enterocolica typically causes intestinal signs in humans
b) Yersinia enterocolica is a psychrophilic bacterium
d) Yersinia enterocolica typically causes intestinal signs in humans
choose the correct statements:
a) verotoxin producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemia syndrome in humans
b )listeria monocytogenes may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
c) Verotoxin producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
d) verotoxin producing E. coli may cause colitis in piglets
a) verotoxin producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemia syndrome in humans
c) Verotoxin producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
choose the correct statements:
a) Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
b )salmonellae are thermophilic organisms
c) campylobacters are thermophilic organisms
d) campylobacters are mesophilic organisms
a) Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
c) campylobacters are thermophilic organisms
choose the correct statements:
a) the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans
b )the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most food borne salmonellosis in humans
d) Salmonella gallinarium is the serotype that causes the most food borne salmonellosis in humans
b )the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most food borne salmonellosis in humans
choose the correct statements:
a) the toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that produces a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b) the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c )the toxin produced by S. aureus isn the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
c )the botulinum toxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
b) the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c )the toxin produced by S. aureus isn the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
choose the correct statements:
a) the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains
b )the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is lower than other E. coli strains
c )the “hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin producing E. coli
d) the “hamburger disease” is caused by listeria monocytogenes
a) the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains
c )the “hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin producing E. coli
choose the correct statement:
a) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
b )Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
c) heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d) heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat
b )Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d) heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat
choose the correct statements:
a) ciguatera toxins accumulate in shellfish
b) ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
c) Scombrotoxin is histamine
d) Scombrotoxin is a shellfish poison
b) ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
c) Scombrotoxin is histamine
choose the correct statements:
a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors
b )Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c) pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
d) pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids
b )Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c) pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
choose the correct statements:
a) scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
b )scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin
c) Patulin is a mycotoxin
d) solanine is a mycotoxin
a) scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
c) Patulin is a mycotoxin
choose the correct statement:
a) human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone beef
b )human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of under done pork
c )human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone pork
d )human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone poultry
b )human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of under done pork
d )human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone poultry
choose the correct statements:
a) nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
b )nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
c) PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
d) Nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
a) nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
c) PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
choose the correct statements:
a) Aflatoxin is genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
b) Aflatoxin is genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the kidney
c) ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney
a) Aflatoxin is genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney
choose the correct statements:
a) carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
b )carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for the production of animal feedstuffs
c )Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animals feedstuffs
d) Carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilised for production of animals feedstuffs
a) carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
c )Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animals feedstuffs
choose the correct statements:
a) plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
b )plants take up lead from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
c) methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
d) methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the terrestrial food chain and may reach high concentration in predators
a) plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
c) methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
choose the correct statements:
a) the dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of PH
b )the dissolution of lead from soils is facilitated by the decrease of PH
c) Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed through washing
d) cadmium mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by washing
a) the dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of PH
c) Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed through washing
choose the correct statement:
a) the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
b) the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing
c) meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
d) meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled
a) the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
d) meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled
choose the correct statements:
a) moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds are dominant
b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria
c )yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations moulds become more dominant
d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria
b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria
d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria
choose the correct statements:
a) the typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
b )the typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglonbin
c) for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be used
d) for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used
a) the typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
d) for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used
choose the correct statements:
a) redox potential if foods is characterised by the aw value
b )redox potential of foods is characterised by the Eh value
c) moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic PH than bacteria
d) moulds and yeasts prefer more alkaline PH than bacteria
b )redox potential of foods is characterised by the Eh value
c) moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic PH than bacteria
choose the correct statements:
a) nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
b) nitrates can enter into a reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
c )cold smoking is more effective against moulds than bacteria
d) cold smoking is less effective against moulds than bacteria
a) nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
d) cold smoking is less effective against moulds than bacteria
choose the correct statements:
a) heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
b )heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
c) based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes
d) based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 0.21 minutes
b )heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
c) based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes
choose the correct statements:
a) heat treatments is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
b )freezing is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
c )spoilage bacteria can grow even down to -18˚C
d) spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18˚C
a) heat treatments is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
d) spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18˚C
choose the correct statements:
a) after UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
b )after heat treatment at very high temperature (ESL) the milk is packed aseptically
c )UHT treated milk needs cold storage
d) milk treated with very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage
a) after UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
d) milk treated with very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage
choose the correct statements:
a) the maximum allowed somatic cell count allowed in raw cow’s milk is 100 000/ml
b )the maximum allowed somatic cell count allowed in raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ ml
c )the total plate count at 30˚C in raw cows milk is maximum 100 000/ml
d) the total plate count at 30˚C in raw cows milk is a maximum 400 000/ ml
b )the maximum allowed somatic cell count allowed in raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ ml
c )the total plate count at 30˚C in raw cows milk is maximum 100 000/ml
choose the correct statements:
a) L. monocytogenes is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
d )S. aureus is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
choose the correct statements:
a) cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
b) cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
c) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
d) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms
a) cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
c) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
choose the correct statements:
a) skimming increases the density of milk
b) skimming decreases the density of milk
c) mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
d) mastitis usually reduces the electrical conductivity of milk
a) skimming increases the density of milk
c) mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
choose the correct statement:
a) the fermentation of yogurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
b )the fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c )for manufacturing of yogurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperatures for 2-3 minutes
d )for the manufacturing of yogurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperatures without holding
a) the fermentation of yogurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c )for manufacturing of yogurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperatures for 2-3 minutes
choose the correct statements:
a) for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at low temperature without holding
b )for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding
c )for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to technical aspects
d) for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects
b )for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding
d) for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects
choose the correct statements:
a) as part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
b )as part of the ante-mortem health inspections at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of bovine animals
c) As a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single bovine animals must be identified
d) as a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified
a) as part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
c) As a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single bovine animals must be identified
choose the correct statements:
a) rigor motris develops because of the reduction of PH
b )rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c )the lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate
d) the inadequate reduction of PH makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate
b )rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c )the lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate
choose the correct statements:
a) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
b) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
c) in cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
d) in cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
a) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
c) in cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
choose the correct statements:
a) PSE-meat ageing is a consequence of less than average PH drop
b) DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less than average PH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
d) PSE meat is more prone to spoilage
b) DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less than average PH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
choose the correct statements:
a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
b) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
d) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding shall be adopted by individual member states
a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
choose the correct statements:
a) identification mark shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
b )identification marking shall be applied directly onto the poultry carcass
c )Every poultry carcass shall be tested for the surface salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse
d) once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination
a) identification mark shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
d) once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination
choose the correct statements:
a) broilers are usually scalded at higher temperatures than waterfowl
b )waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperatures than broilers
c) Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
d) immersion chilling is superior to air chilling in terms or hygiene
b )waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperatures than broilers
c) Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
choose the correct statements:
a) the head of the cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
b )the head of the pigs is removed during the slaughtering process
c) in pigs, the bleeding is performed by the two knife method
d) in cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two knife method
a) the head of the cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
d) in cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two knife method
choose the correct statement:
a) the routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (< 8 months) shall be performed visually
b )the routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed with visual inspection, palpation, and incision
c) as part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle (<8months), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
d) in young cattle (< 8 months old), the retrophayngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only
b )the routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed with visual inspection, palpation, and incision
d) in young cattle (< 8 months old), the retrophayngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only
choose the correct statements:
a) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
b )the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
c )as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis
d) in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only
b )the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
d) in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only
choose the correct statements:
a) food chain information must be prepared by the veterinarian performing the antemortem inspection
b )food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c )if the food chain information is missing at the time of the decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hrs
d)If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter shall be banned
b )food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c )if the food chain information is missing at the time of the decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hrs
choose the correct statements:
a) in cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
b )in cattle over 12 months, the skull including the head meat is considered SRM
c )in cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
d) in sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM
a) in cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
d) in sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM
choose the correct statements:
a) salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according Ito the microbial regulation of the EU
b) salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
c) carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
d) carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process of hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse are not to be put on the market
a) salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according Ito the microbial regulation of the EU
c) carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
choose the correct statements:
a) as part to the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months of age, the liver shall be inspected by incision
b )As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the liver shall be examined visually
c )As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthways
d) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
b )As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the liver shall be examined visually
d) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
choose the correct statements:
a) small capacity slaughterhouses need not be approved only registered by the authority
b )small capacity slaughterhouses need also to be approved by the authority
c )at the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in the suspension position
d) in a small capacity slaughterhouse, pigs can also be bled in a horizontal position
b )small capacity slaughterhouses need also to be approved by the authority
c )at the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in the suspension position
choose the correct answers:
a) after slaughter the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4˚C
b )after slaughter the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤7 ˚C
c) after slaughter the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 7˚C
d) after slaughter the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4˚C
b )after slaughter the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤7 ˚C
d) after slaughter the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4˚C
choose the correct statement:
a) animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separatly
b) animals showing signs of systemic disease must be slaughtered separately
c) Emaciated animals shall be slaughtered separately
d) Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered
a) animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separatly
d) Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered
choose the correct statements:
a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available
b) pigs must not be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d )poultry meat placed on the Market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
b) the hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
c) in the game collection centre, the post-mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on non skinned animals
d) In the game collection centre, the post-mortem meat inspection of large game shall be performed by official veterinarians on skinned animals only
a) hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
c) in the game collection centre, the post-mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on non skinned animals
choose the correct statements:
a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
b )S. aureus may survive in chocolates, but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c )Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
d )due to low water activity and low PH of honey, even bacterial spores are unable to germinate in it
a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
d )due to low water activity and low PH of honey, even bacterial spores are unable to germinate in it
choose the correct statement:
a) the official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c) Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
d )Scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine bio toxins in the flesh
b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c) Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
choose the correct statement:
a) live bivalve molluscs must not contain bio toxins exceeding the limits described in the regulation 853/ 2004 EC
b )live bivalve molluscs must not contain mycotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulation 853/ 2004 EC
c )Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
d) live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via dispatch centre shall be marked with a health mark on the packaging
a) live bivalve molluscs must not contain bio toxins exceeding the limits described in the regulation 853/ 2004 EC
c )Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
choose the correct statements:
a) having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person of veterinarian for inspection
b) the post-mortem meat inspection of hunted game is performed by the hunter himself
c )the post mortem meat inspection of hunted small game is performed by the hunter himself
d )the hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection
a) having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person of veterinarian for inspection
d )the hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection
choose the correct statements:
a) live bivalve molluscs collected from “class A” areas are suitable for human consumption after treatment only
b )live bivalve molluscs collected from “class A” areas can be collected for direct human consumption
c )the production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
d) the production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination
b )live bivalve molluscs collected from “class A” areas can be collected for direct human consumption
c )the production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
choose the correct statements:
a) in the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by the trained person
b )in the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
c) in the game processing establishment, the post-mortem inspection of large game shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
d) in the game processing establishment, the post-mortem inspection of large game shall be performed buy the official veterinarian on unskilled animals
b )in the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
c) in the game processing establishment, the post-mortem inspection of large game shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
choose the correct statement:
a) “class A” eggs shall be cooled at a temperature < 5˚C in the egg packing centre in order to prevent bacterial contamination
b) “class A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all
d) broken eggs can be used for the manufacture of heat-treated egg products
b) “class A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all
choose the correct statements:
a) animals suspected of campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
b )animals suspected of being infected with campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
c )If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) if any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, only the infected organs shall be declared unfit for human consumption
a) animals suspected of campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
c )If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statements:
a) in the case of localised, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
b) in the case of localised, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption without treatment
c) classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animals health significance
d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever
a) in the case of localised, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever
choose the correct statements:
a )if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
b) if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the decision depends on the causative agent
c) if we detect trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
d) if we detect trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
a )if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
c) if we detect trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the othe
choose the correct statements:
a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
b) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect the surface contamination of the carcass at the slaughterhouse
c )if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animal can only be used for human consumption after heat treatment
d )if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animals is unfit for human consumption
a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
d )if the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animals is unfit for human consumption
choose the correct statement:
a) in sheep, the most characteristic sign of FMD is lameness
b )in goats, the most characteristic sign of FMD is lameness
c) in cattle, the most characteristic sign of FMD is lameness
d) in pigs, characteristic signs of FMD is mild due to painful foot lesions
a) in sheep, the most characteristic sign of FMD is lameness
d) in pigs, characteristic signs of FMD is mild due to painful foot lesions
choose the correct statements:
a) in sheep, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
b) In goats, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c )in cattle, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
d) in pigs, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
b) In goats, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c )in cattle, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
choose the correct statements:
a) in the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an identification mark
b )in the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c) restaurants belong to the retail establishments
d) restaurants belong to the wholesale establishments
b )in the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c) restaurants belong to the retail establishments
choose the correct statements:
a) establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC shall be approved
b )all food establishments shall be approved buy the competent authority
c )approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
d ) registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
a) establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC shall be approved
c )approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
choose the correct statements:
a) retail supermarkets are subject to approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
b )retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
c )mass caterers are subject to approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
d )mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
b )retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
d )mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/ 2004/ EC
choose the correct statement:
a) any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
b )Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through heat treatment at temperatures exceeding 100˚C
c )offal from pigs shall be stored at a catering establishment at ≤ 7˚C
d) offal from pigs shall be stored at a catering establishment at ≤ 4˚C
a) any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
d) offal from pigs shall be stored at a catering establishment at ≤ 4˚C
choose the correct statement:
a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
b )according the the corresponding EU legeslation, food processing establishments shall be controlled at least annually
c )conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
d )conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit
a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d )conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit
choose the correct statement:
a) HACCP is a food quality risk analysis and management system
b )HACCP is a food safety risk analysis and management system
c )The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice
d )the good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept
b )HACCP is a food safety risk analysis and management system
c )The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice
choose the correct statement:
a) the rules of small scale production of foods of animals origin are regulated on an EU level
b )the rules of small scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c )mass catering belongs to retail operations
d )mass catering belongs to wholesale operations
b )the rules of small scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c )mass catering belongs to retail operations
choose the right solutions (practical 1):
a) the “c” value means the sample number
b )the ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
c )if the coagulase-positive staphylococcus count on the meat product is higher then 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin
d) if the coagulase positive staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/ g, then the product must also be tested for the presence for staphylococcus enterotoxin
b )the ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
d) if the coagulase positive staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/ g, then the product must also be tested for the presence for staphylococcus enterotoxin
mark the correct answers (practical 1):
a) in the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with rhodococcus equi
b) in the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with staphylococcus
c )salmonella decarboxylates lysine
d) salmonella digests urea
b) in the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with staphylococcus
c )salmonella decarboxylates lysine
what is the sample size:
a) 0.1 ml for pour plate
b )1 ml for pour plate
c) 1 ml for spreading
d) 0.1ml for spreading
b )1 ml for pour plate
d) 0.1ml for spreading
mark the correct answers (practical 1):
a) E. coli is indole positive
b) E. coli used citrate only as a carbon source
c) E. coli performs mixed acid fermentation
d) E. coli performs butanediol fermentation
a) E. coli is indole positive
c) E. coli performs mixed acid fermentation
at what stage of food analytical procedure may a veterinarian be responsible?
a) sampling
b) sample preparation
c) determinig the analytical strategy, carrying out the analysis
d) interpretation of results
b) sampling
d) interpretation of results
which food can be contaminated during the primary production?
a) egg
b) sausage
c) vegetable
d) minced meat
a) egg
c) vegetable
choose the right solutions:
a) the whipped cream must be matured
b )the churning is a phase reversion process
c )butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
d) rancing is caused by microbial activity
a) the whipped cream must be matured
b )the churning is a phase reversion process
what is true for appropriately manufactured set-type yogurt?
a) it is runny
b )it is spoonable
c) it has a final PH of between 4.6-4.3
d) it has a final PH between 5.0-5.3
b )it is spoonable
c) it has a final PH of between 4.6-4.3
what are the advantages of natural casings?
a) preparation time is fast as they are easy to handle
b )they are permeable for smoke and water vapour
c )microbiological contamination is negligible
d) they are digestible
b )they are permeable for smoke and water vapour
d) they are digestible
what are the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in the technology lab?
a) inoculation of meat with starter culture
b )stuffing
c )smoking
d) Heat treatment (cooking)
a) inoculation of meat with starter culture
b )stuffing
what curing methods were demonstrated in the technology lab?
a) dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/ pickling salt
b )wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
c )dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
d) tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing
b )wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
c )dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
which of the following statements is true?
a) the official veterinarian must be present when the animals are loaded onto the vehicle before the transportation to the slaughterhouse
b )after separate killing, the carcass can be used in food processing
c) the official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d) vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorised
c) the official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d) vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorised
choose the correct statements:
a) the F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal depth time equivalent at 121.1˚C for the applied heat treatment procedure
b )the F0 value is a microbiological characteristic which expresses the thermal death time at 121.1˚C
c) According to the 12D principle, the food microbiology safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes
D) according to the 12D principle the food microbiological safety requirement is F 0.21 minutes
a) the F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal depth time equivalent at 121.1˚C for the applied heat treatment procedure
c) According to the 12D principle, the food microbiology safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes
choose the correct statement:
a) when applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 16˚C
b) when applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C
c) chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
d) Evisceration is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
b) when applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C
c) chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
choose the correct statements:
a) any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as illegal distribution
b) any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution
c )the health mark (meat stamp) shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment, but not included in the identification marking
d) both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
a) any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as illegal distribution
d) both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
what product groups safety are published in the RASFF system?
a) nutritional supplements
b) human foods
c) animal feeds
d) medical feeds and foods
b) human foods
c) animal feeds
choose the correct statements:
a) active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
b )good example for active packaging is a thermometer visible on the food label
c )intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the the given food
d) good example for intelligent packaging is silicona gel bag
a) active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
c )intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the the given food
choose the correct statements:
a) pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychotropic bacteria
b) Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are mesophilic bacteria
c) the minimum water activity of pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is low
d) the minimum water activity of pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high
a) pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychotropic bacteria
d) the minimum water activity of pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high
choose the correct statements:
a) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
b )in cattle > 8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in the case of suspect only
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the masters shall be inspected by incision
d) as part of the routine inspection of pigs, the masters shall be inspected by incision
a) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the masters shall be inspected by incision
choose the correct statements:
a) the minimum water activity of salmonella is lower than that of campylobacters
b )the minimum water activity of salmonellae is higher than that of campylobacters
c )the minimum water activity of salmonellae is lower than that of Listeria monocytogenes
d) the minimum water activity of salmonellae is higher than that of listeria
a) the minimum water activity of salmonella is lower than that of campylobacters
d) the minimum water activity of salmonellae is higher than that of listeria
