Other Questions Flashcards
(76 cards)
1
Q
MEA
obstacle clearance in mountainous and non mountinous terrain
A
- Minimum enroute Altitude: lowest altitude that ensures obstacle clearance and navigation signal.
2,000’ above the highest obstacle with 4nm from the course to be flown in mountainous terrain or 1,000’ above the highest obstacle with 4nm from the course to be flown in NON-Mountainous terrain
2
Q
MOCA
A
- Minimum obstacle clearance with navigational coverage within 22nm
3
Q
MRA
A
- Minimum Reception Altitude
4
Q
MAA
A
- Maximum Authorized Altitude
5
Q
MORA
Does not guarantee
A
- Minimum off route Altitude. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle in mountainous terrain or 1,000’in NON-Mountainous terrain.
- Does NOT guarantee navigational coverage, radar, or communication
6
Q
OROCA
Does not guarntee
A
- Off route obstruction clearance altitude. 2,000’ above the highest obstacle in mountainous terrain or 1,000’ above the highest obstacle in NON-Mountainous terrain
. - Does NOT guarantee navigational coverage, radar, or communication
7
Q
MTA
A
- Minimum turning altitude
8
Q
MCA
A
- Minimum crossing altitude
9
Q
MIA
A
- Minimum IFR altitude for standard instrument approach procedures
10
Q
MVA
A
- Minimum vectoring altitude - 2,000’ above the highest obstacle wi in mountainous terrain or 1,000’ above the highest obstacle NON-Mountainous terrain.
11
Q
MSA
A
- Minimum Sector Altitude assure a minimum of 1,000’ clearance within 25nm
12
Q
Types of Departure procedures
A
- Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
o Provide obstacle clearance via the most expeditious route from the terminal area to the enroute area
o May be flown WITHOUT an ATC clearance unless DP is assigned by ATC - Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
o Provide obstacle clearance from the terminal area to the enroute area
o Reduce pilot controller workload
o Must receive ATC clearance
13
Q
What is CRM
A
- A tool used to increase safety by which the crew manages all available resources inside and outside of the FD
14
Q
What is TEM
Threats are ____
Errors are _____
Unmanaged errors lead to ____
How can we reduce Threats and errors
A
- Threat Error Management is a tool used to increase safety by the crew by recognizing and managing threats and errors.
- Threats are outside the cockpit
- Errors are inside the cockpit
- Unmanaged or mismanaged errors lead to undesired states or reduction in safety, i.e. un-stabilized approach
o Reduce Threats and errors with briefings(wx, app) SOPs, checklist
15
Q
When looking at a Dispatch/release/flight plan/flight paperwork what are you looking for
A
- FAR 121.687/.689
- Company Name, Flight number, Date
- Crew names and positions
o Designated PIC - Aircraft Make, Model and Tail number
- Type of Operations
o E.g. IFR, VFR - Airports: Departure, Intermediate, Destination and Alternate: Takeoff, ETOPS, Escape Route
- Route
o E.g. Oceanic, ETOPS, Escape routes - Minimum fuel supply
o Domestic, Flag, Supplemental, ETOPs - ETD, ETOPs and Escape Route Timings
- Current and Forecast weather for all airports listed
o Additional relevant weather reports and forecast
• Sig Prog, Winds Aloft, Radar, Satellite - Signed by the PIC and Dispatcher (Domestic/Flag)
16
Q
What is the maximum flight time under FAR 117 with Pax
2 pilot crew
3 pilot crew
4 pilot crew
flight time be exceeded if due to _______
A report must be ________
A
- Max Flight time with min. pilot flight crew is 8-9 hours based on reporting time
- Max Flight time is 13 hours for a 3 pilot flight crew
- Max Flight time is 17 hours for a 4 pilot flight crew
o Flight time can be exceeded to land at destination or alternate due to unforeseen operational circumstances
• A report must be filed
17
Q
What is the maximum duty period under Part 117 with pax
FAR 117
2 pilots
3 pilots
4 pilots
Augmented not more than _____ landings
Acclimated means in theater for ______
In theater means _____
If not acclimated duty is _________
Duty is based on _______
During Augmented crew IN-FLIGHT rest:
At all times at least _______________
PF during landing requires ____________
PM during landing requires ________
A
- Max Duty Period up to 14 hours is based on acclimated reporting time and number of landings
- Augmented: NOT more than 3 flight segments(landings), Max duty up to 17 hours for 3 pilots, 19 hours for 4 pilots and is based on acclimated reporting time and Class of rest facility
o Acclimated: in theater for 72 hours or has 36 hours of rest
o Theater: Departure and Arrival is within 60 deg. longitude
o If not acclimated
• Max duty is reduced by 30 min
• Duty is based on local time at the theater in which pilot is acclimated
o Augmented Crew inflight rest requirements
• At all times at least 1 pilot with an unrestricted ATP and type rating must be at the controls
• PF during landing requires 2 consecutive hours during the last half of the Duty Period
• PM during landing requires 90 consecutive minutes
18
Q
Explain duty period extensions for under part 117 with Pax
FAR 117
Prior to departure PIC and Company can extend duty up to ____________ due to ___________
only ____ extension of more than _____ is allowed before _________
Extension __________ cumulative FDP
A ______ must be filed
After Departure duty period __________ due to _____________
Only 1 extension of __________
Extension can exceed ________
A ______ must be filed
A
- Duty Period extension PIROR to takeoff augmented/unaugmented
o PIC and Company can extend up to 2 hours due to unforeseen operational circumstances
o Only 1 extension of more than 30 min is allowed before starting rest
o Extension can NOT exceed cumulative flight duty period limits
o A report must be filed for an extension of more than 30 min - Duty Period extension AFTER takeoff augmented/unaugmented
o Duty period can be exceeded to land at destination or alternate due to unforeseen operational circumstances
o Only 1 extension of more than 30 min is allowed before starting rest
o Extension can exceed cumulative flight duty period limits
o A report must be filed for an extension of more than 30 min
19
Q
Explain the Rest Requirements for passenger flights part 117
No assignment of _____ or ____ during rest
____ hours of rest, _____ uninterrupted hours of sleep________
Pilot shall notify company if ___________
At least one ______ consecutive hours of rest within ____ days
At least _____ hours if the pilot tavles more than ________ and is away from base for more than ___ days
A
FAR 117
- No assignment of reserve or duty during rest period
- 10 hours of rest, 8 uninterrupted hours for sleep, before beginning next duty
o pilot shall notify company if the 10 hours will not provide 8 hours of uninterrupted hours of sleep
- At least one 30 consecutive hours of rest within the last 7 days
- At least 56 hours if the pilot travels more than 60 deg longitude AND is away from base for more than 7 days
20
Q
Explain the types of Reserve under part 117 with pax
FAR 117
Airport duty starts _______
Short Call max is _____ hours
Unaugmented can extend duty ____ hours up to ____
Augmented can extend duty up to ____ hours
Once reserve is finished crew must be given
Long Call is ____ hour notice
A
- Airport
o Duty period starts at time of check in - Short Call
o Max 14 hours
• Assigned an u-naugmented flight
• Extend duty period 4 hours up to 16 hours
• Assigned an augmented flight
• Extend duty period 4 hours
o Once reserve is finished, crew must be given rest - Long Call
o 12 hour notice
21
Q
Max number of consecutive night flights under part 117 with Pax
__________ local time: window of circadian low
Split duty during circadian low counts towards ________
_____ nights
______ nights if at least ___ hours of rest are given ant ______ between _______ local time
A
FAR 117
- 0200 – 0559: window of circadian low
o split duty during circadian low counts towards maximum allowed night duties
- 3 nights
- 5 nights, if at least 2 hours of rest are given at a suitable accommodation between 2200-0500
22
Q
Cumulative flight and duty Limitations under part 117 with Pax
____ flight hours in _____ days
______ flight hours in ____ days
_____ Duty hours in ____ days
_____ Duty hours in ____ days
A
- 100 flight hours in 28 days
- 1,000 flight hours in 365 days
- 60 duty hours in 7 days
- 190 duty hours in 28 days
23
Q
Emergency extension of flight and duty time under part 117 with Pax
PIC shall determine _________ to safely fly to the _________ where they can be __________
Can not Exceed: \_\_\_\_\_ flight hours in \_\_\_\_\_ days \_\_\_\_\_ flight hours in \_\_\_\_\_ days \_\_\_\_\_ duty hours in \_\_\_\_ days \_\_\_\_\_ duty hours in \_\_\_\_\_ days
Rest period will be equal to which ever is less ________
A ______ must be filed for an ext. more than _______
A
- PIC shall determine the max Flight, Duty, and reserve time to safely fly to closest destination that they can be relived by another crew
- Can not exceed
o 100 flight hours in 28 days
o 1,000 flight hours in 365 days
o 60 duty hours in 7 days
o 190 duty hours in 28 days - Rest period will be equal to whichever is less: 24 hours or duty period
o A report must be filed for an extension of more than 30 min
24
Q
Daily Flight Time Limitations Domestic Cargo
Time spent in transportation to/from the airport is _____________
Legal to start ___________ if circumstances are ________
1 _____ hour rest during _____ consecutive days
____ hours of rest for ___ hours of scheduled flight
Reduced rest to ____ hours if given ____hours within ____ hours
____ hours of rest for ___ hours of scheduled flight
Reduced rest to ____ hours if given ____hours within ____ hours
____ hours of rest for ___ hours of scheduled flight
Reduced rest to ____ hours if given ____hours within ____ hours
A
- 121.471
o Time spent in transportation to/from the airport is not considered rest
o Legal to start, legal to finish if circumstances are beyond the control of the company
o 1 – 24 hour rest during any 7 consecutive days - 9 hours of rest for less than 8 hour scheduled flight
o Reduced rest to 8 hours, if given 10 hours w/in 24 hours - 10 hours of rest for 8 to 9 hours of scheduled flight
o Reduced rest to 8 hours, if given 11 hours w/in 24 hours - 11 hours of rest for 9 or more hours of scheduled flight
o Reduced rest to 9 hours, if given 12 hours w/in 24 hours
25
Max total Flight time limitations Domestic Cargo
______ hours in a calendar year
_____ hours in a calendar month
______ hours in ____ days
_____ hours between rest periods
- 1,000 hours in a calendar year
- 100 hours in a calendar month
- 30 hours in 7 consecutive days
- 8 hours between required rest periods
26
Daily flight Time limitations Flag operations: 1 or 2 pilots
1 _____ hour rest during any ___ consecutive days
Scheduled ___ hours in ____ hours
Scheduled MORE than ______ in _____
Rest must be _____ the hours flown not less than ______
Must be given _____ hours before next duty
- 121.481
- 1- 24 hour rest during any 7 consecutive days
- Scheduled 8 hours in 24 hours
- Scheduled more than 8 hours in 24 hours
o Rest must be 2x the hours flown, not less than 8 hours
o Must be given 18 hours before next duty
27
Max total Flight time limitations Flag operations: 1 or 2 pilots
_____ hours in ______ month calendar month
______ hours in a calendar month
____ hours in ____ days
- 121.481
- 1,000 hours in a 12 calendar month period
- 100 hours in a calendar month
- 32 hours in 7 days
28
Daily flight Time limitations Flag operations: 2 pilots + 1 additional crewmember
1 ____ hour rest during ____ consecutive days
_______ is not considered rest
scheduled ____ hours in ___ hours
if the pilot has flown _____ or more hours in ______ hours or _____ hours in ____ hours
Must be given ____ hours of rest before the next duty
- 121.483
- 1- 24 hour rest during any 7 consecutive days
- Deadhead is not considered rest
- Scheduled 12 hours in 24 hours
- If pilot has flown 20 or more hours in 48 or 24 or more hours in 72
o Must be given 18 hours before the next duty
29
Max Total flight Time limitations Flag operations: 2 pilots + 1 additional crewmember
_______ hours in a ____ calendar month
______ hours in ____ days
______ in ______ days
121. 483
- 1,000 hours in a 12 calendar month period
- 120 hours in 30 days
- 300 hours in 90 days
30
If flights are mixed under 121.483(2 pilots + 1 additional crewmember) and 121.485(3 or more pilots and an additional crewmember)
May not fly _____ hours in ____ days
Decrease of monthly and quarterly maximum flight time limitations are made for scheduled duty aloft for more than ______ hours or for more than ____ interruption in that calendar month
- 121.487: Flight limitations for pilots not regular assigned
- Pilots not scheduled for an entire month under 121.483 or 121.485 may not fly more than 100 hours in 30 days
- Decrease of monthly and quarterly maximum flight time limitation are made for scheduled duty aloft for more than 20 hours or for more than one interruption in that calendar month
31
Daily Flight Time limitations Supplemental Operations
1 _____ hour rest during any ____ consecutive days
2 Pilot - Scheduled _____ hours in ____ hours
2 Pilot - if scheduled for more than _____ in _____ hours than rest must be ____ the hours flown and not less than ____ hours
2 pilot Max duty is ______ hours
2 Pilot + 1 ____ Hours in ____ hours
if aloft for ___ or more hours in ___ hours or ____ hours in ____ hours
Must be given _____ hours of rest
- 121.503
- 1- 24 hour rest during any 7 consecutive days
- 2 Pilot - Scheduled 8 hours in 24
- 2 Pilot If flown more than 8 hours in 24, must be given a min of 16 hours of rest
o Rest must be 2x the hours flown, not less than 8 hours
o 2 Pilot Max duty 16 hours
- 2 Pilot crew + 1 additional airman: 12hours in 24 hours
o If aloft for 20 or more hours in 48 or 24 hours in 72
• Must be given 18 hours before the next duty
32
Max Total flight Time limitations Supplemental operations:
____ hours in a calendar year
2 Pilots _____ hours in ___ days
2+1 _____ hours in ____ days
2+1_____ hours in ____ days
- 121.503/121.521
- Time spent during deadhead is not considered rest
- 100 hours in 30 days
o 120 hours in 30 days (2 pilots + 1 additional airman)
o 300 hours in 90 days (2 pilots + 1 additional airman)
- 1,000 hours in a calendar year
33
Supplemental Flight Time limitations: Pilots serving in more than one of kind of flight crew
Decrease of monthly and quarterly maximum flight time limitations are made for scheduled duty aloft for more than ______ hours or for more than ____ interruption in that calendar month
- 121.525
- Decrease to monthly and quarterly maximum flight time limitation are made for scheduled duty aloft for more than 20 hours or for more than one interruption in that calendar month
34
LAHSO can be found_______
Calculate ________ based on _______ during preflight
Air carrier determines _______or ________ for LAHSO
- Can be found in 10-9, AFD or ask tower
- Calculate Landing distance based on Estimated LW during preflight
Air carrier determines distance or maximum weight for LAHSO
35
Can you conduct LAHSO?
- A027
- Receive training and LAHSO procedures are readily available
o ie in QRH
36
What is needed to conduct LAHSO procedures
_____ has the final authority
Should be familiar with _______ at their destination
Know the _________
Calculate the ________
Once LAHSO is _________ must be _____
unless _________
Day: _______ or _______
Night must have ________
With PAPI or VASI: _____ and _____
NO PAPI or VASI: _____ and _____
ALD is ______
Tailwind less than ____
N/A if _______ is reported
Runway __________ markings, _____ and _______ are _________
- A027
- PIC has the final authority to accept
o Should be familiar with all available LAHSO operations at their destination
• Available Landing Distance (ALD)
• Calculated aircraft landing distance based on Runway Conditions, Slope
- Once Accepted LAHSO must be carried out
o Unless a GA is required
- Day: Electronic or Visual glide slope
- NIGHT: Must HAVE Visual glide slope
- With PAPI or VASI
o 1,000’ and 3sm
- Without PAPI or VASI
o 1,500’ and 5sm
- ALD is dry
- Tailwind less than 3 knots
- N/A if WSHR is reported
- Runway hold short markings, lights and signs are on
37
What does a Hold short line look like
o https://www.aopa.org/training-and-safety/active-
Are on when _____
pilots/safety-and-technique/operations/land-and-hold-short-operations-lahso
- A 3 part system:
o An elevated red sign with white lettering on the side of the runway
o A pair of yellow solid and broken hold short lines on the runway
o A row of pulsating white lights
• Are ON anytime LAHSO is in effect
- AIM 4-3-11
38
What would your radio call sound like after handed off from tower to departure?
- Departure
- Callsign, Giant 1
- SID
- Passing Alt
- Cleared Alt
39
What is the critical engine on the 747?
why
- Upwind outboard engine in a crosswind.
| o The rudder is already being used for x-wind, thus less rudder to control the yaw
40
What do you do for a compressor stall?
- Reduce AOA
- Reduce Thrust
- QRH
41
Your chief pilot and captain are talking and you're not getting all the checklist done and the tower clears you for take off... what do you do?
- Advise Tower to Standby we have to finish our checklist
| - Advise Captain that the checklist are available upon his command
42
What would you do if you were holding short and realized you didn't have enough fuel to complete the mission?
- Advise Dispatch
- Verify we are short
- Mitigate: RADAR
o Is our weight Less than planned
o Route, Altitude, Alternates
- If we are short, return for fuel
43
What are lost comm procedures?
- If VFR – stay VFR land ASAP
- If IFR
o Route
• R-AVE.F – Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
o Altitude
• Highest – MEA, Expected, Assigned
- Leave Clearance limit
o FAF – at EFC or flight plan ETA
o If not FAF – at EFC, or proceed to IAF, at ETA descend for approach
44
Where can you find lost comm procedure on the arrival plate?
- look at the plan view for the notes
45
On Ground Steady Green Light Gun signal
Cleared for Takeoff
46
On Ground Flashing Green Light Gun signal
Cleared for Taxi
47
On Ground Steady Red Light Gun signal
Stop
48
On Ground Flashing Red Light Gun signal
Taxi clear of runway
49
On Ground Flashing white Light Gun signal
Return to starting point
50
On Ground Alt. Red and Green Light Gun signal
Exercise extreme caution
51
In Flight Steady Green Light Gun signal
Cleared to land
52
In Flight Flashing Green Light Gun signal
Return for landing
53
In Flight Steady Red Light Gun signal
Yield to other traffic, continue circling
54
In Flight Flashing Red Light Gun signal
Airport unsafe, do not land
55
In Flight Flashing white Light Gun signal
NA
56
In Flight Alt. Red and Green Light Gun signal
Exercise extreme caution
57
What information is given when instructed to Hold
Holding instructions unless ______-:
- Holding instructions unless charted:
o Direction
o Holding Fix
o Radial, Course, bearing, airway
o Time or distance
o Direction of turn, if to the left (nonstandard)
o EFC and best estimate of any additional enroute/terminal delay
58
What bank Angle should be used for holding
- The least of the following:
o 3 deg per sec (Std rate turn) or
o 30 deg bank or
o 25 deg ban if FD is used
59
How do compensate for wind during a hold
- Triple inbound wind correction when flying outbound
EG:
o 10 deg on inbound
o 30 deg on outbound
60
When should you slow down before holding?
- At least 3 minutes to cross at or below maximum holding speed
61
What Information should the Pilot give to ATC when entering the hold
- Time and Alt/FL reaching clearance limit and report leaving clearance limit
62
What are FAA holding airspeed restrictions?
In Radar advise ATC if _________
Non Radar advise ATC _________
- 6,000 and blw - 200 - 1 min Inbound leg
- 6,001 to 14,000 - 230 - 1 min Inbound leg
- 14,001 and abv - 265 - 1.5 min Inbound leg
o In Radar, advise ATC if unable to hold at or below the maximum speeds
o Non-Radar, advise ATC unable to accept the hold
63
FAA non standard holding direction and speeds?
____ Turns
6001 - 14000 ________
Hold USAF_______
Hold US NAVY______
_____ max in climbing hold unless _____
Do not exceed ____ below ______
- Left turns
- 6,001 to 14,000 – 210 if depicted by the icon
- Holding speed as depicted by the icon
- USAF airfield – 310 max, unless otherwise depicted
- US NAVY – 230 max, unless otherwise depicted
- Climbing in hold – 310 Max unless otherwise depicted
o Do NOT exceed 250 below 10,000’
64
What are the ICAO holding speeds
- 14,000 and blw – 230 – 1 min
- 14,000 to 20,000 – 240 – 1.5 min
- 20,000 – FL340 – 265
- Abv FL340 – M0.83
65
Asked to hold what are you thinking about?
```
o Request to slow down early to max endurance speed
- least 3 min before
- Is the speed less than the Max Holding speed
- Set and X-check Hold
- EFC time vs How long we can hold
- Whats the reason for the hold
o Bingo/Diversion Fuel
o FR
```
```
- FORDEC
o Options: Airports
o Risk/Benefits: Fuel/Time/Weather/Notams/Approach/Performance
- Advise ATC of intentions
o How long we can hold, our Alternate
```
66
How do you Calculate Holding Fuel
With Alt
No ALT
- 30kg/min or 70lbs a min
- IF you Have an Alt
o FR + arrival+ App and Landing at Dest + Alt + some room for error
- No Alt
o FR + AP and Landing at Dest + some room for error
67
When would you Declare min fuel – what does it mean
| - Informs ATC of:
o The airport of intended landing
o The aircraft has enough fuel to follow the cleared routing, execute an arrival and approach procedure and land with the required fuel reserves.
o Any change to the clearance or delay could lead to landing with less than Final Reserve fuel
• This is NOT an Emergency
68
When would you declare Mayday Fuel?
Will you receive priority?
- When landing with less than FR at the nearest airport
| o An emergency is declared and priority will be given
69
Advise ATC when Speed changes by
- 5% or 10kts
70
Maintain speed adjustment assignments by
- 10kts or M0.02
71
Speed assignments by ATC to aircraft operating between FL 280 and 10,000 feet
- A speed not less than 250 knots or the equivalent Mach number.
72
Speed assignments by ATC to arriving turbojet aircraft operating below 10,000 feet:
within 20nm of airport of intended landing, speed not less than ____
- A speed not less than 210 knots, except
| - Within 20 flying miles of the airport of intended landing, a speed not less than 170 knots.
73
What is Class 1 navigation/airspace
- Ground based navigation
| o VOR, DME, NDB
74
What is Class 2 navigation/airspace
- LRNS(GPS,IRS)
75
Stabilized approach criteria
Must be ______ throughout the approach
_____ if unstable
- Stabilsed at 1,000’ AFE in IMC and 500’ AFE in VMC, 300’ AFE circling
o Must be maintained throughout the approach
o GA if unable to maintain a stabilized approach
- All briefings and Checklist are complete
- On the Correct flight patch and only small changes in heading and pitch are needed
- In Landing configuration
- Vref – Vref +20
o Vapp deviations -5/+10 if trending toward Vapp
- Not more than 1,000 fpm
o If higher, with special brief
- Power is above idle and appropriate for the configuration
- CAT 1: within 1 dot
- CAT 2/3: within expanded view
76
Supplemental Oxygen FAR 121.333
Above ______ 1 pilot must _______
supply for entire time above ______ with a min of _______
Quick donning mask, must be donned within_______ or ___________
10,000 - 12,000 cabin pressure mask must be worn after _______
Above 12,000 cabin pressure mask must be _________
Pax:
Above 15,000 ________
14,000 - 15,0000 ______
10,000 - 14,000 _____ after _____
- When operating a pressurized turbine aircraft above FL250
o Flight Deck
• Above FL350 1 pilot must wear oxygen while the other pilot is NOT at the controls
• Supply for the entire time above 10,000 with a minimum of 2 hours
• Quick donning mask, mask can be donned within 5 sec or mask have to be worn
* 10,000 – 12,000 cabin pressure
* Mask must be worn after 30 min
* Above 12,000 cabin pressure
* Mask must be worn for the entire time
```
o Passengers
• Above 15,000
• All pax
• 14,001 – 15,000
• 30% of pax
• 10,000- 14,000
• 10% of pax after 30 min
```
