Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Audiology for SLPs > Otoscopy and Middle Ear Test Battery > Flashcards

Otoscopy and Middle Ear Test Battery Flashcards

1
Q

visual inspection of the pinna

A

check for abnormalities and/or drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

abnormalities of the pinna

A
  • occur when we were in development
  • indicator of another syndrome or anomaly
  • pre-auricular pit- indicator of hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

otoscope information

A
  • rechargeable
  • specula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

specula

A
  • tips at the end
  • disposable/non-disposable
  • smaller opening designed for children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

only pick the smaller specula if you’re working with…

A

a younger child or someone with a smaller ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

otoscopy procedure

A
  • first thing to look for is the cone of light
  • pulling back the pinna will help straighten the ear canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

otoscopy: ear infection

A

redness or dull cone of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

otoscopy: ear tubs in kids

A
  • different types of ear tubes
  • some work there way out
  • airplane tubes are very temporary
  • permanent ear tubes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

otoscopy: perforation in the eardrum

A

can be from tubes or quetips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

otoscopy: common abnormal findings

A
  • dark ear wax
  • ear canal occlusion
  • middle ear pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dark ear wax

A

the darker the ear wax, the harder it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ear canal occlusion

A

cerumen, foreign object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

middle ear pathology

A

if drainage is present, you are done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tympanometer

A
  • an objective, physiological measure of acoustic admittance of the middle ear by use of air pressure
  • screening and diagnostic
  • varying pressure from positive to negative and comparing it to the atmospheric pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the tympanometer test for?

A

test of the middle ear function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tympanogram

A

graph representing middle ear functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

vertical line of a tympanogram

A

static compliance (ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

horizontal line of a tympanogram

A

pressure (daPa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tympanometry is also known as…

A

acoustic impedance, acoustic immittance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tympanometry: probe stimulus

A
  • 220-226 Hz
  • varying levels of pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

varying pressure above and below atmospheric pressure causes…

A

tympanic membrane and ossicular chain to stiffen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

characteristics of a tympanogram

A
  • ear canal volume
  • mobility
  • pressure
  • shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ear canal volume (ECV)

A
  • not a part of the mountain, just a part of the test
  • measuring the length of the auditory canal from the opening of the ear canal to the end point which is typically the TM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ECV tells us…

A
  • obstruction
  • perforation
  • clinician error
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ECV normative data: adults

A
  • 0.61-1.5 cc (up to 2.0)
  • males tend to be larger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ECV normative data: children

A

0.4-1.0 cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

if ECV is abnormally large (greater than 2.0)…

A
  • opening of the ear canal to the middle ear space
  • perforation
28
Q

if ECV is abnormally small (less than 0.3)…

A
  • obstruction or clinician error
  • opening of the ear canal to the obstruction (cerumen, foreign object, ear canal wall)
29
Q

static compliance (mobility)

A

the movement of the tympanic membrane back and forth due to pressure

30
Q

static compliance is the most efficient operate point in terms of…

A

ear canal pressure is observed as a peak in the tympanogram

31
Q

static admittance

A
  • peak height or amount of acoustic energy that flows into the middle ear system at its greatest
  • recorded as “peak height”
32
Q

normative values of static compliance: children

A

0.3-0.9

33
Q

normative values of static compliance: adults

A

0.3-1.6

34
Q

if static compliance is 0.2 or below…

A

low mobility (stiff)

35
Q

if static compliance is 1.6 or higher…

A

high mobility (flaccid) hyper-mobile

36
Q

what may cause a tympanic membrane to move stiffly?

A
  • tumor
  • tympanosclerosis
37
Q

tympanosclerosis

A

scar tissue

38
Q

what may cause a tympanic membrane to be hyper-mobile?

A
  • ossicular discontinuity
  • can also just have a hyper-mobile eardrum (normal hearing)
39
Q

ossicular discontinuity

A

break in the ossicle chain

40
Q

peak pressure

A
  • +200 - -200 daPa varying pressure delivered to ear canal
  • peak should occur at or near atmospheric pressure ‘0’
41
Q

normative values of peak pressure: children and adults

A

+/- 100 mm

42
Q

if a peak is occurring beyond -100…

A
  • negative pressure
  • eustachian tube blocked
  • ear infection
43
Q

if a peak is occurring beyond +100…

A
  • positive pressure
  • not very common
44
Q

if there is no peak…

A
  • tympanic membrane is not moving at all
  • fluid
  • tumor
45
Q

shape of a tympanogram

A

a way to reference the results of a tympanogram

46
Q

type A tympanogram

A
  • normal
  • static compliance = WNL
  • pressure = WNL
  • ECV = WNL
47
Q

type B tympanogram

A
  • flat
  • static compliance = none
  • pressure = none
  • ECV = WNL
48
Q

cause of type B

A

fluid/otitis media

49
Q

type B: ECV is abnormally low, then…

A

obstruction (cerumen/clinician error)

50
Q

type B: ECV is abnormally high, then…

A

perforation/ear tube

51
Q

type C tympanogram

A
  • negative pressure (behind eardrum)
  • static compliance = WNL
  • pressure = negative
  • ECV = WNL
52
Q

cause of type C

A

blocked eustachian tube/ME infection/allergies

53
Q

type A (d) tympanogram

A
  • hyper-mobile
  • static compliance = high
  • pressure = WNL
  • ECV = WNL
54
Q

cause of type A (d)

A

ossicular discontinuity/flaccid TM

55
Q

type A (s) tympanogram

A
  • shallow or stiff
  • static compliance = low
  • pressure = WNL
  • ECV = WNL
56
Q

cause of type A (s)

A

tympanosclerosis/tumor

57
Q

acoustic reflex

A

tensor tympani and stapedius muscles in your middle ear retract in response to an intense sound

58
Q

acoustic reflex is not a test of hearing but a…

A

physiologic test of middle ear function

59
Q

reflex to an intense sound is…

A

bilateral

60
Q

bilateral reflex to an intense sound: ipsilateral

A

reflex occurs in the same ear that the stimulus is presented

61
Q

bilateral reflex to an intense sound: contralateral

A

reflex occurs in the ear opposite to where stimulus is presented

62
Q

purpose of acoustic reflex testing

A
  • to cross check behavioral testing
  • help with site of lesion
63
Q

methodology of acoustic reflex testing

A
  • probe tip is inserted into both ear canals and a very intense, but brief tone is presented (up to 120 dB)
  • the audiologist looks for a response on the equipment
  • the patient does nothing to participate
64
Q

acoustic reflex testing: frequencies tested

A

500, 1000, 2000, 4000 Hz

65
Q

acoustic reflex decay

A
  • when stapedius muscle cannot sustain the contraction
  • presentation tone is 10 dB above AR threshold
  • presentation time is 10 seconds
66
Q

acoustic reflex decay confirms or rules out…

A

retrocochlear pathology such as acoustic neuromas

67
Q

eustachian tube function (ET)

A
  • equalizes the pressure of the middle ear space with the atmospheric pressure
  • it is a derivative of the tympanometry test
  • probe tip used for tympanometry is in place and patient is asked to swallow a drink of water after positive pressure is presented, then again after negative pressure is presented
  • there should be a notable change in pressure after each swallow due to the ET opening

Audiology for SLPs (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions