p1 Flashcards

(115 cards)

1
Q

The higher a DNA’s GC content, the lower its melting temperature. T or F

A

false

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2
Q

Which of the following used silica-based products in binding DNA
materials under high salt conditions?

Organic Isolation Method
Inorganic Isolation Method
Solid-phase Isolation
Liquid-phase Isolation

A

Solid-phase Isolation

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3
Q

Which of the following is a strong denaturant of RNAses and can be used
instead of high salt buffers?

Guanidine thiocyanate
1% sodum dodecyl sulfate
0.2M NaOH in the presence of Tris base
Glucose

A

Guanidine thiocyanate

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a component of a typical PCR reaction

EDTA
MgCl2
heat stable DNA polymerase
Tris-HCl buffer

A

EDTA

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5
Q

What type of target amplification methods involves target generation and
exponential target generation?

Loop-Mediated Amplification
Digital PCR
Transcription-Based Amplification System
Strand-Displacement Amplification

A

Strand-Displacement Amplification

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a function of bioinformatics?

determines gene and protein functions
establishes evolutionary relationships
predicts the three-dimensional shapes of proteins
used to detect methylated nucleotides

A

used to detect methylated nucleotides

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7
Q

describes how different genes independently separate from one another

law of dominance
law of segregation
law of independent assortment

A

law of independent assortment

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8
Q

describes how one allele can dominate the characteristics of another allele

law of dominance
law of segregation
law of independent assortment

A

law of dominance

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9
Q

occurs when only one allele from the parent could pass to its offspring

law of dominance
law of segregation
law of independent assortment

A

law of segregation

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10
Q

This method happens when the target amplification and detection steps
occur simultaneously in the same tube:

Real-Time PCR
Reverse-Transcriptase PCR
Digital PCR
NASBA

A

Real-Time PCR

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11
Q

These are the products from the binding of primers onto each other
(mispriming) through short homologies at their 3’ end and the copying of
each primer sequence:

Primer dimers
Primers
RT-PCR primer
multiplex PCR

A

Primer dimers

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12
Q

What is the rationale of denaturing RNA molecules before hybridization? *

Stability of the RNA strands
Elimination of secondary RNA structure
Increase stringency
Removal of DNA molecules

A

Elimination of secondary RNA structure

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13
Q

What noncoding RNA regulates gene expression by binding to a specific mRNA sequence?

miRNA
siRNA
piRNA
tRNA

A

miRNA

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14
Q

able to kill the animal host

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria
mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria
wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria
heat-killed strain S bacteria

A

wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria

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15
Q

successfully killed the animal host

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria
mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria
wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria
heat-killed strain S bacteria

A

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria

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16
Q

unable to kill the host

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria
mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria
wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria
heat-killed strain S bacteria

A

mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria

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17
Q

could no longer killed the animal host

mixture of live R strain and heat-killed S strain bacteria
mutant, non-capsulated, avirulent R strain bacteria
wild-type, capsulated, virulent strain S strain bacteria
heat-killed strain S bacteria

A

heat-killed strain S bacteria

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18
Q

If the cut-off cycle threshold for positive samples is less than 40 on CY5 channel (yellow fluorescence), what is the interpretation of the given amplification plot?

Negative
Positive
Invalid
Inconclusive

A

Positive

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19
Q

Which of the following occurs when the change of codons does not affect
the amino acid product?

Conservative Mutation
Silent Mutation
Missense Mutation
Nonsense Mutation

A

Silent Mutation

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20
Q

Which of the following can be used as biomarkers for gene expression
changes in tumors ?

Southern Blot
Northern Blot
Western Blot
Microarray Hybridization

A

Microarray Hybridization

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21
Q

Which of the following provides the highest expected DNA yield among yiel
specimens suitable for genetic analysis without DNA amplification?

plasmids from bacterial culture (100ml overnight culture)
solid tissues
bones and teeth
feces

A

plasmids from bacterial culture (100ml overnight culture)

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22
Q

What noncoding RNA inhibits translation by initiating degradation of the
targeted mRNA?

miRNA
siRNA
piRNA
tRNA

A

siRNA

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23
Q

What noncoding RNA regulates gene expression by binding to a specific
mRNA sequence?

miRNA
siRNA
piRNA
tRNA

A

miRNA

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24
Q

What is the effect if there is too high Mg2+ concentration in the PCR
buffer?

high yield of primer dimers
low yield of primer dimers
low enzyme efficiency
high enzyme efficiency

A

high yield of primer dimers

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25
Which of the following is not a step of PCR cycle? * Denaturation Annealing Extension Blotting
Blotting
26
What is the approximate cycle threshold of the CY5 channel (yellow fluorescence) in the given amplification plot? 26.91 42.10 38.28 23.23
26.91
27
What is the estimated melting temperature for the following oligonucleotides: 5'-AGCTGATCGGTATCGGCT-3' 51°C 61°C 56°C 66°C
51°C
28
What hybridization-based method is used to detect SNPs in DNA? Heteroduplex analysis Inversion probe assay Melt curve analysis Single-Strand Conformation Polymorphism
Inversion probe assay
29
Who introduced the Polymerase Chain Reaction? Arne Tiselius Karl Mullis James Watson Charles Darwin
Karl Mullis
30
Which of the following is not included in the open reading frame? initiation codon coding region noncoding region termination codon
noncoding region
31
Templates with high GC content and secondary structure may cause vey low PCR optimization. True False
True
32
This has a DNA molecule with 15 identical branches, each of which can bind three labeled probes. Branched DNA amplification method Hybrid Capture Assay Ligase Chain Reaction Cleavase/Invader Technology
Branched DNA amplification method
33
Which of the following refers to the process of creating a hybrid molecule between an unlabeled and labeled strands? Hybridization Electrophoresis Restriction Banding
Hybridization
34
Which of the following best describes DNA methylation? * decreases the affinity of transcription factors to a DNA promoter decreases the binding of methylation-specific transcription factors increases the affinity of transcription factors to a DNA promoter affects the activity of chromatin-associated protein and transcription factors that increase or decrease gene expression
decreases the affinity of transcription factors to a DNA promoter
35
Which of the following is a LacZ gene product that hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose? lactose permease thiogalactosidase transacetylase B-galactosidase B-galactose
B-galactosidase
36
Which of the following is the ideal temperature and time for extension stage in the PCR cycle? 90-97°C for 20-60s 50-70°C for 20-90s 65-75°C for 10-60s 55-65°C for 20-60s
65-75°C for 10-60s
37
What is the preferred hybridization temperature of oligonucleotide probes? 5 degree Celcius above the melting temperature of the probes 5 degree Celcius below the melting temperature of the probes 10 degree Celcius below the melting temperature of the probes 10 degree Celcius above the melting temperature of the probes
5 degree Celcius below the melting temperature of the probes
38
Which of the following is the gene nomenclature if rsal gene is inserted into the plasmid ME6032? pME6032::rsal "rsal::pME6032 pME6032:rsal pRsaL
pME6032::rsal
39
The best way to avoid PRC carryover is to separate the pre-PCR areas from the post-PCR analysis areas. True False
true
40
This is a solution hybridization antibody capture assay that uses chemiluminescent detection: Hybrid Capture Assay Ligase Chain Reaction Cleavase/Invader Technology Loop-Mediated Amplification
Hybrid Capture Assay
41
What is the type of restriction enzymes used to cleave at specific recognition sites? Type IV Type III Type II Type I
Type II
42
Which of the following needs to initiate the transcription process? * Binding of the RNA polymerase to the terminator Binding of the RNA polymerase and transciription factors to the promoter Binding of the RNA polymerase to the first few RNA nucleotides All of the above
All of the above
43
Which of the following is the best function of plasmids? may confer antibacterial resistance non-conjugative carries genetic information can be transferred from cell to cell by conjugation
may confer antibacterial resistance
44
Which of the following brings about coordinate expression of proteins required at the same time among microorganisms with small genomes? Cis factors Trans factors Operon B-galactosidase
Operon
45
This is also known as methylation-specific sequencing: * Bisulfite DNA sequencing Pyrosequencing Sanger sequencing Chemical sequencing
Bisulfite DNA sequencing
46
This is a method designed to determine a DNA sequence without having to make a sequencing ladder: Pyrosequencing Dideoxy Sequencing DNA sequencing Nonisotopic RNase Cleavage Assay
Pyrosequencing
47
Which of the following can be performed to prevent mispriming? * -application of hot-start PCR -choose primers that are very specific only to the target -avoid primers that have sequence complementary to internal sequences of the intended product -make sure the primer anneal to opposite DNA strands of your targets with their 3' ends directed toward each other.
-application of hot-start PCR
48
Which of the following occurs when the change of codons does not affect the amino acid product? Conservative Mutation Silent Mutation Missense Mutation Nonsense Mutation
Silent Mutation
49
Which of the following codes for proteins and used as a template for protein translation? tRNA rRNA mRNA siRNA
mRNA
50
Which of the following is a final product of LAMP reactions? DNA molecules with a cauliflower-like structure of multiple loops Branches of DNA Sigmoidal curve gene expression
DNA molecules with a cauliflower-like structure of multiple loops
51
What type of target amplification methods involves the reverse transcription of the RNA target to complementary DNA by a reverse transcriptase, and then the resulting cDNA is amplified by PCR? Multiplex PCR Reverse Transcriptase- Polymerase Chain Reaction Nested PCR Real-Time PCR
Reverse Transcriptase- Polymerase Chain Reaction
52
What is the best anticoagulant used in blood sample for genetic analysis? EDTA heparin SPS sodium citrate
EDTA
53
What is the cheapest and simplest option for easy-to-lyse cells, especially human cells and gram-negative bacteria? Chemical lysis Enzymatic lysis Mechanical lysis Physical lysis
Chemical lysis
54
Which of the following happens when two parallel strands stick together and somehow produce another daughter helix with two complementary new strands? Dispersive replication Conservative replication Semiconservative replication Nonconservative replication
Conservative replication
55
Plasmids replicate dependently of the chomosomes. * True False
false
56
Which of the following is also known as chain terminator method and needs a single-stranded DNAs to start the sequencing? Chemical Sequencing Sanger Sequencing Pyrosequencing Bisulfite DNA sequencing
Sanger Sequencing
57
Which of the following best describes Griffith's bacterial transformation experiment? -The gene obtained from avirulent cells causes virulence during the transformation. -The proteins obtained from virulent cells causes pathogenecity to the mice. -The genes harbored from wild-type, virulent S. pneumoniae causes virulence to the mice. -The proteins gained from mutant, virulent S. pneumonia causes death of the laboratory animals
-The genes harbored from wild-type, virulent S. pneumoniae causes virulence to the mice.
58
What type of buffer solution is used for RBC lysis and WBC preparation? * hypertonic buffer hypotonic buffer isotonic buffer neutral buffer
hypotonic buffer
59
Which of the following is the nomenclature of the protein of rsaL gene? * pro.rsaL RsaL pRsaL pro::rsaL
pro::rsaL
60
Which of the following the template strand of 5'-GTATGCGTCTTT-3' * 5'-CATACGCTGAAA-3' 3'-CATACGCTGAAA-5' 3'-CATACCTGAAA-5' 5'-CATACCCTGAAA-3'
3'-CATACGCTGAAA-5'
61
Which of the following proteins bind to the cis sequences and direct the assembly of transcription complexes at the proper gene? Trans factors Cis factors Proximal regulatory elements Distal regulatory elements
Trans factors
62
What is the rationale of denaturing RNA molecules before hybridization? Stability of the RNA strands Elimination of secondary RNA structure Increase stringency Removal of DNA molecules
Removal of DNA molecules
63
This utilizes the sequence- and stacking-directed denaturation characteristics of dsDNA: Melt Curve Analysis Inversion Probe Assay Heteroduplex Analysis Allele-Specific Oligomer Hybridization
Melt Curve Analysis
64
This is the most definitive molecular method to identify genetic lesions: * DNA sequencing Bioinformatics Invader assay Base Excision Sequence Scanning
DNA sequencing
65
Which of the following best describes sticky ends on a DNA fragment? Short-stranded tails or overhangs at each end of the DNA fragment Do not have any overhangs on both ends of a digested DNA fragment Can be religated with less efficiency Almost the same with blunt ends
Short-stranded tails or overhangs at each end of the DNA fragment
66
Which of the following genes is not useful for PCR detection of L. pneumophila? mip gene 16S RNA gene 5S RNA gene P1 adhesion gene
P1 adhesion gene
67
True to mtDNA, except: no paternal contribution follows maternal clonal inheritance patterns mitochondria are maternally inherited follows Mendelian inheritance
follows Mendelian inheritance
68
Why do gram-positive bacteria and mycobacteria should be vigorously lysed? thinner cell wall thicker cell wall no cell membrane according to standard operating procedure
thicker cell wall
69
Which of the following has triplet repeat CGG expansion ? * Fragile X syndrome Huntington's disease Neuropathy Ataxia
Fragile X syndrome
70
This is a frequency of expression of disease phenotype in individuals with a gene lesion. Penetrance Complete Penetrance Variable expressivity Full expressivity
Penetrance
71
Which of the following detects RLFP? * PCR Southern Blot Western Blot Sequencin
Southern Blot
72
Which of the following has 100% specificity for S. pneumoniae? mip gene lytA gene tuf gene polA gene
lytA gene
73
Which of the following is the frequency of disease phenotype in individuals with a gene lesion? Partial penetrance Variable expressivity Complete penetrance Penetrance
Penetrance
74
Which of the following has a recurrence risk of 25% if siblings are affected? autosomal-dominant autosomal-recessive X-linked recessive maternal
autosomal-recessive
75
The recurrence risk is 25% if siblings are affected, indicating the presence of the recessive mutation in at least one of the parents. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon? Autosomal-dominant Autosomal-recessive X-linked Sex-linked
Autosomal-recessive
76
Which of the following is over expressed in solid tumors? EGFR Her2/neu K-ras BRCA1
EGFR
77
Which of the following is also known as minisatellites? * SNP STR VNTR RFLP
VNTR
78
Which of the following is useful for targeted assessment of relatively large genomic abnormalities? Cytogenetics FISH SBH PCR
FISH
79
Application of mtDNA analysis, except: useful for extremely small quantities of sample DNA useful for lineage studies and forensic examination track for population migrations based on the nuclear material
based on the nuclear material
80
Which of the segments of mtDNA should be analyzed for human identification? control region stop codon nuclear DNA neutral segment
control region
81
Which of the following is the detection method of RFLP? Southern Blot PCR Sequencing Western Blot
Southern Blot
82
Which of the following methods has good typing capacity, good discriminatory power, high ease of use and ease of interpretation? PFGE Sequencing Ribotyping Plasmid analysis
Plasmid analysis
83
Which of the following refers to the expression of the disease phenotype in every individual with the mutated gene? Partial penetrance Variable expressivity Complete penetrance Full expressivity
Complete penetrance
84
Which of the following refers to the ability to detect only the analyte and not nonspecific targets? Analytic sensitivity Analytic specificity Clinical sensitivity Clinical specificity
Analytic specificity
85
Which of the following internal controls ensures that extraction and amplification procedures are acceptable? Homologous extrinsic control Heterologous extrinsic control Amplification controls Reagent controls
Heterologous extrinsic control
86
Men carrying a mutation in BRCA2 have a 100-fold increased risk of breast cancer compared with men without a mutation True False
True
87
The more loci analyzed, the higher the probability that the locus genotype positively identifies an individual. True False
False
88
Which of the following is a phenotypic method applied in molecular epidemiology? ribotyping melt curve analysis plasmid analysis bacteriophage typing
bacteriophage typing
89
Males are homozygous for the amelogenin locus. * True False
False
90
Which of the following is an advantage application of Southern blot technique in lymphoid clonality analysis? requires minimal DNA very sensitive can detect presence of oligoclonal gene rearrangement patterns can combine different PCR locus strategies
can detect presence of oligoclonal gene rearrangement patterns
91
Which of the following participates in repairing DNA damage and promote apoptosis? Oncogene Cancer genes Tumor suppressor genes Solid tumors
Tumor suppressor genes
92
Which of the following is not preferred for the detection and identification of ras mutation? SSCP screening direct sequencing pyrosequencing PCR
PCR
93
Which of the following detects numerical and structural chromosome aberrations? FISH Cytogenetics SBH PCR
Cytogenetics
94
Analytical error is the consequence of erroneous or misleading results caused by events that occur prior to sample analysis. True False
False
95
Which of the following is a disadvantage application of PCR in lymphoid clonality analysis? possible use of radionucleotide labeled probes requirement of high MW DNA limited analytic sensitivity may miss oligoclonal populations
may miss oligoclonal populations
96
Aberrant activation of receptor for hematopoietic stem cell factor refers to: NPM1 mutations KIT mutations FLT3 mutations JAK2 V617F mutations
KIT mutations
97
Which of the following is not an application for mitochondrial DNA analysis? lineage studies genetic characterization of forensic specimens population migrations none of the above
None of the above
98
How often does proficiency testing perform in a molecular laboratory? once in every 3 months once in every 2 years at least twice a year once a month
at least twice a year
99
Which of the following is not a clinical utility of PCR testing of HIV? Viral quantitation Disease prognosis Treatment monitoring Used for community surveillance
Used for community surveillance
100
Which of the following is used as internal controls in methods quantifying infectious agents or detecting tumor cells? Amplification control Housekeeping genes Negative control Template control
Housekeeping genes
101
This is performed to assess the skills of laboratory personnel performing molecular assays as well as the performance of the assay itself: Chemical safety Proficiency testing Documentation Quality Assurance
Proficiency testing
102
Mitochondrial inheritance is characterised by exclusive paternal transmission. True False
False
103
Which of the following has good typing capacity, moderate discriminatory power, high ease of use and high ease of interpretation? Sequencing Ribotyping PCR-RFLP PFGE
PCR-RFLP
104
Most analyte-specific reagents used in the molecular laboratory are class I. True False
True
105
How many loci should be required for parentage testing using RFLP? * 3 5 7 9
9
106
Which of the following is recommended for most nucleic acid assays? Trisodium EDTA Acid citrate dextrose Both None of the above
Both
107
mtDNA follows paternal clonal inheritance patterns as well. True False
False
108
How often do laminar flow hoods and BSC monitor for proper air flow? * once a year every 2 months as when needed semi-annually
once a year
109
Which of the following mutation responsible for hemochromatosis? * C282Y prothrombin variant F2 tRNA point mutation FMR-1
C282Y
110
The following genes can be detected by sequencing, except: KIT proto-oncogene Folliculin Fumurate hydratase microsatellite instability
microsatellite instability
111
Which of the following is useful for ancestry determination? RFLP Y-STR VNTR SNP
Y-STR
112
Which of the following determines the functionality of the assay system? Positive Control Reagent Blank Negative Control Amplification Contro
Positive control
113
Which of the following refers to tumors showing MSI in one or a minority of loci tested? MSI-L MSS MSI-H K-ras
MSI-L
114
Which of the following is not a reason for using a molecular techniques in determining antimicrobial resistance? useful in epidemiological investigations longer turn around time highly specific in detecting gene mutations none of the above
longer turn around time
115
Gene mutation always predict the disease severity. True False
False