P1 Flashcards by Gwynne Marie Salvacion

Pick the INCORRECT Fire Safety Classification:
A) Class A Fire = plastic & wood
B) Class B Fire = petroleum products.
C) Class C Fire = oxygen & fuel
D) Class D Fire = Sodium & Potassium

C) Class C Fire = oxygen & fuel

INCORRECT is the question

Class A = Combustible
Class B = Fire, Burning liquid or gas
Class D = Metallic or Chemicals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This type of glassware can be heated to 600°C without softening:

A) Borosilicate glass
B) Soda-lime glass
C) Aluminosilicate glass
D) Standard flint glass

C) Aluminosilicate glass

Note on “without softening”. ANSWER in L is Borosilicate

Borosilicate Glass: Withstands up to 515°C, starts softening at around 815°C. (CC Lab Book: they have a high degree of thermal resistance and have low alkali content)
Soda-lime Glass: Melting point between 1,400°C and 1,600°C, does not soften at 600°C.
Aluminosilicate Glass: High melting point (approximately 1,600°C to 1,800°C), suitable for 600°C. (CC Lab Book: strengthened chemically rather than thermally.)
Standard Flint Glass: Lower melting point, not suitable for high temperatures.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Maximum allowable bacterial population in a Type I Water:
A) 10 CFU/ml
B) 103 CFU/mI
C) 1.0 CFU/ml
D) 1,030 CFU/ml

A. 10 CFU/ml

Type 1 water is the most Pure, used for special tests, immunoassays

Type 2 - 1000 CFU/ml
Type 3 - NS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Diluting an acid solution involves the following step:
A) sample is added first
B) diluents is added first
C) the diluents is added next to solution
D) acid solution is added first

B) diluents is added first

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Labware Quality Control includes the following EXCEPT:
A) Immersion in 5% sodium hypochlorite
B) washing with 1molar HCL
C) rinsing with grade II water
D) cleaning with chromic acid solution

D) cleaning with chromic acid solution

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Method recommended by NCCLS for calibrating pipets:

A) gravimetric
B) spectrophotometric
C) both, together
D) washing with acid

A) gravimetric

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To deliver (TD) or “blowout” pipets are characterized by:
A) An etched ring or double ring markings toward the top
B) The end-calibration line for measuring the full volume of the pipet is before the tip
C) Liquid is allowed to drain into the tip as it holds vertically
D) The measured volume is contained in the pipet but will not be delivered entirely

A) An etched ring or double ring markings toward the top

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which formulary for conversion to SI unit is WRONG?
A) Cholesterol: mg/dL × 0.02586 = mmol/L
B) Glucose: mg/dL × 0.05151 = mmol/L
C) Protein: g/dL × 10 = g/L
D) Calcium: mg/dL × 0.2495 = mmol/L

C) Protein: g/dL × 10 = g/L

C) Protein: g/dL × 10 = g/L: This formula is incorrect because the correct conversion should be multiplying by 100 (not 10) to convert grams per deciliter (g/dL) to grams per liter (g/L).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The required Resistivity (minimumO-cm’25°C) of a TYPE 1 water:
A) 10
B) 2
C) 0.1
D) 0.05

A) 10

Water Resistivity
Type 1 = 10
Type 2 = 1.0
Type 3 - 0.1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A blood specimen was extracted at 6:00AM today by a Phlebotomist. The Medical Laboratory Scientist in-charge of the Chemistry section today will report to duty at 8:00AM yet. Which of the following statements is INCONSISTENT with the condition?

A) The level of glucose in the specimen can be wade stable by adding Fluoride at 6AM
B) The anti-glycolysis function of any additive is insufficient with the presence of bacteria
C) The level of glucose in the specimen will be 5% lower after the test is done.
D) The level of glucose in the specimen will be lowered, even with the efflux of K+.

The inconsistent statement is C) The level of glucose in the specimen will be 5% lower after the test is done, as it assumes a significant glucose drop without proper intervention like fluoride, which should help stabilize glucose levels.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Preferred sites for venipuncture:
A) Radial & Ulnar veins
B) Basilic & Cephalic veins
C) Cephalic & Median Cubital veins
D) Median Cubital vein & Deep Palmar arch

C) Cephalic & Median Cubital veins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The toxicity of tobacco smoking is due to the fact that this gaseous content of tobacco smoke has 210x affinity for hemoglobin than any other:
A) Nitrogen
B) Carbon Monoxide
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Hydrogen

B) Carbon Monoxide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Lactescence of serum can cause inhibition of the following EXCEPT;
A) cholesterol
B) Creatine Kinase
C) Total protein
D) bilirubin

Lactescence of serum refers to the condition where serum appears milky or cloudy, typically due to the presence of high levels of lipids, particularly triglycerides.

A) Cholesterol

A) Cholesterol levels are generally not significantly affected by lactescence. While lipemia can interfere with certain assays, cholesterol measurement is typically reliable in the presence of lipemic samples.
B) The presence of bacteria can indeed inhibit the anti-glycolytic function of additives, making this statement consistent.
C) Total protein levels can be affected by lipemia, leading to potential inaccuracies, which aligns with known interferences.
D) Bilirubin levels can also be influenced by lipemia, causing interference in assays.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Its equivalent is the quantity of its substance that contain one replaceable hydrogen?
A) Acid compound
B) Salts
C) Base compound
D) Neutral compound

A) Acid compound

An acid is defined as a substance that can donate a proton (H⁺) or release a replaceable hydrogen ion in a reaction. The quantity of an acid that contains one replaceable hydrogen is often referred to in terms of its “equivalent weight,” which is the amount of acid that can donate one mole of hydrogen ions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dubowski (Duboscg) colorimeter is anexample of:
A) Visual colorimetry
B) Filter Photometry
C) Spectrophotometry
D) Photoelectric colorimetry

A) Visual colorimetry

Visual colorimetry - color intensity of solution is matched against a standard solution. Example: Dubowski

Photoelectric colorimetry - independent of wavelength. Example: Filter Photometry and Spectophotometry

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Beer Lambert’s Law may only be applied in accurate quantitative analysis by light absorption, if the following requisites are met EXCEPT:

A) Incident radiation on the substance of interest is monochromatic
B) Solvent absorption is insignificant compared to solute absorption
C) Solute concentration is within “linear limits”
D) A chemical reaction occurs between the molecule of interest and another solute

D) A chemical reaction occurs between the molecule of interest and another solute

It should be: A chemical reaction DOES NOT occur between the molecule of interest and another solute

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is used to correct non-specific absorbance of other substances in the sample:
A) Sample Blank
B) Standard Solution
C) Reagent Blank
D) Control Solution

A) Sample Blank

B) Standard Solution: This is used to calibrate the instrument or create a calibration curve for the analyte of interest, not for correcting non-specific absorbance.
C) Reagent Blank: This is used to account for absorbance caused by the reagents used in the analysis, but not specifically for the sample matrix or other substances.
D) Control Solution: This typically refers to a solution with a known concentration used to check the accuracy and precision of the method, not to correct for non-specific absorbance.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Icteric serum means that the serum bilirubin level is equal or more than:
A) 430umol B) 25mg/L C) 215mg/L D) A & B only

D) A & B only

430 µmol/L is equivalent to 25 mg/dL of bilirubin, which is the threshold commonly used to indicate icteric serum.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Receptacle for Non-infectious Non-biodegradable wastes:
A) Black bin
B) Yellow bin
C) Green bin
D) Red bin

A) Black bin

used for general non-infectious and non-hazardous waste

Yellow Bin: Generally reserved for infectious waste, often marked with a biohazard symbol.
Green Bin: Usually designated for organic waste or compostable materials.
Red Bin: Typically used for biohazardous materials, such as those contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious substances

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Its mechanism is based on fragmentation & ionization:
A) Mass Spectrometry
B) Capillary Electrophoresis
C) Affinitychromatography
D) Biosensor

Ionization (convert molecules into ions)
Fragmentation (breaking down these ions into smaller pieces)

A) Mass Spectrometry

Capillary Electrophoresis: Separates ions based on mobility, not fragmentation.
Affinity Chromatography: Involves specific molecular interactions, not fragmentation.
Biosensor: Detects biological substances without using fragmentation and ionization.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This transducer is based on the changes in electrochemical properties of a substance:
A) Amperometric
B) Calorimetric
C) Piezoelectric
D) Luminescent

A) Amperometric

Amperometric transducers are specifically designed to monitor changes in electrochemical properties.
Calorimetric: Relates to measuring heat changes, not electrochemical properties.
Piezoelectric: Based on mechanical stress and its conversion to electrical signals, not electrochemical changes.
Luminescent: Involves light emission rather than electrochemical properties.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It measures flashes of light that occur when gamma rays or charged particles interact with matter.
A) Mass Spectrometer
B) Liquid chromatography
C) Capillary electrophoresis
D) Scintillation counter

D) Scintillation counter

Mass Spectrometer: Analyzes ions based on their mass-to-charge ratio
Liquid Chromatography: Separates mixtures based on their interactions with a stationary phase and a mobile phase
Capillary Electrophoresis: Separates ions based on their size and charge

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In an electrolytic cell, the half-cell where reduction takes place is known as the
A) Cathode
B) Indicating electrode
C) Reference
D) Standard electrode

A) Cathode

Cathode = negative energy that attracts cations

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When the pH-sensitive glass electrode is not actively in use, it should be kept in:
A) Distilled or deionized water
B) Physiologic saline solution
C) The medium recommended by the manufacturer
D) pH near the pH of the internal solution in the electrode

C) The medium recommended by the manufacturer

It is crucial to store pH electrodes in a solution that maintains their calibration and prevents the glass membrane from drying out. This is often a specific storage solution recommended by the manufacturer, such as a potassium chloride (KCl) solution.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

**Colligative properties** of the solution include all the following **EXCEPT**: A) Boiling Point B) Freezing Point C) Ph D) Osmotic Pressure | Colligative properties relate to OSMOMETRY (osmolality of an aqueous solution). Colligative properties are the physical changes that result from adding solute to a solvent.

C) Ph 4 COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES 1. Osmotic Pressure 2. Boiling Point 3. Freezing Point 4. Vapor Pressure | OBFV (one big fight vamos hahah!!)

The **main advantages of fluorometric** over spectroscopic methods of analysis are: A) Decreased specificity and decreased sensitivity B) Increased specificity and increased sensitivity C) Decreased specificty and increased sensitivity D) Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity

B) Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

Centrifugal analyzers utilize centrifugal force for the purpose of: A) Aspirating sample B) Aspirating reagents C) Mixing sample and reagents D) Separating proteins and high molecular weight substances

D) Separating proteins and high molecular weight substances

**Nephelometry** is a method of assay based on the measurement of the light that is: A) Absorbed by particles in suspension C) Produced by fluorescence B) Scattered by particles in suspension D) Produced by excitation of ground state atoms

B) Scattered by particles in suspension | Nephelometry measurement of light scattered by a particle solution ## Footnote A) Absorbed by particles in suspension: This refers more to turbidimetry, which measures the decrease in transmitted light due to absorption and scattering. C) Produced by fluorescence: This involves a different mechanism where light is emitted after excitation D) Produced by excitation of ground state atoms: This describes processes like fluorescence or phosphorescence

When measuring k′ with an anion-selective electrode using a liquid ion-exchange membrane, the antibiotic that will be incorporated into the membrane is: A) Nonactin B) Penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Valinomycin | Ion-Selective Electrode in Electrochemistry

D) Valinomycin | well-known potassium ionophore for selective transport of potassium ions ## Footnote A) Nonactin: While it is also an ionophore, it does not have the same specificity for potassium as valinomycin. B) Penicillin: This is an antibiotic but does not function as an ionophore. C) Streptomycin: Another antibiotic that does not have the properties needed for incorporation into ion-selective membranes.

When performing *spectrophotometer quality control* checks, the **holmium oxide glass** filter is used to assess: A) Linearity B) Straylight C) Absorbance accuracy D) Wavelength accuracy

D) Wavelength accuracy ## Footnote *Holmium oxide glass filter* is specifically designed for **wavelength calibration **in spectrophotometers. It contains well-defined peaks that are utilized to verify the accuracy of the wavelength scale across a range from 200 nm to 700 nm, covering both the ultraviolet (UV) and visible (VIS) spectrum

Which type of **elution technique** may be used in *high-performance liquid chromatography*? A) isoelectric B) gradient C) ion exchange D) gel permeation

B) gradient | usedtechnique in HPLC for optimizing the separation of various compounds ## Footnote A) Isoelectric: This is not applicable to HPLC as it relates to electrophoresis. C) Ion Exchange: While this is a type of chromatography, it refers to the stationary phase's interaction with charged particles rather than a specific elution technique. D) Gel Permeation: This is another form of chromatography focused on separating molecules based on size but does not refer specifically to an elution technique used in HPLC.

Which may be associated with **Bioluminescence?** A) Light emission produced with return of electron to ground state B) Less sensitive than direct fluorescent assays C) Less sensitive than radioimmunoassay D) Electron excitation caused by radiant energy

A) Light emission produced with return of electron to ground state

Most **atomic absorption spectrophotometers** incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these component is to avoid errors caused by: A) Deterioration of hollow cathode lamp B) Measurement of light absrobed by the analyte C) Measurement of light of specific wavelength emitted by analyte D) Stray light from the hollow cathode lamp

C) Measurement of light of specific wavelength emitted by analyte | atomic absorption spectrophotometers

**Fluorometers** are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. The purpose of this design is to: A) Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector B) Prevent loss of the excitation light C) Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector D) Prevent emitted fluorescent light from reaching the detector

D) Prevent emitted fluorescent light from reaching the detector | Spectrophotofluorometer

Which type of fire extinguisher should be used on an **electrical equipment **fire? A) TypeA B)TypeB C)TypeC D)TypeE

C) Type C

In the Hazards Identification System, four color-coded, diamond- shaped symbols are arranged to form a larger diamond shape. What type of hazard does the **Red diamond** positioned to the top identify: A) Flammability B) Health Hazard C) Reactivity D) Universal

A) Flammability ## Footnote Blue - Health Hazard Yellow - Instability Hazard White - Specific Hazard

An **aluminum-silicate glass** that is at least six times stronger than borosilicate and is resistant to alkaline, etching and scratching is? A) Kimax B) Vycor C) Pyrex D) Corex

D) Corex

Which of the following may be safely pipetted by mouth? A. Serum B. CSF C. Saline solution D. None of the above

D. None of the above

In a laboratory, a technologist has *spilled a corrosive material*, which has landed on his/her hand and the floor. He/she has diluted the material by putting his/her hand under running cold water. The next step would be: A. Consult the MSD (Material Safety Data) Sheet B. Wipe up the spill with paper towel C. Dilute the spill with water and remove it in a biohazard bag D. Go to the emergency room

C. Dilute the spill with water and remove it in a biohazard bag

A substance that resist changes in the pH of a system is termed a (an) A. Acid B.Salt C.Filter D.Buffer

D.Buffer

Handling strong acids and caustic materials includes the following **EXCEPT**: A) Do not use in wooden bench tops B) Use fume hood C) Store on polypropylene containers D) Dilute and neutralize NaH and phenolphthalein prior to disposal

C) Store on polypropylene containers

Wastes such as used syringes, gloves, gauze, and test kits should be thrown into this bin; A) Black B) Yellow C) Red D) Green

B) Yellow

A MLS would like to transfer a** viscous whole blood** to another tube. What pipette is best to use? A) Serological Pipet B) Volumetric Pipet C) Mohr Pipet D) Ostwald-Folin Pipet

D) Ostwald-Folin Pipet | To Blow-out; for VISCOUS fluids ## Footnote A) Serological - with graduation until tip; to blow-out B) Volumetric - NON-VISCOUS; self- draining C) Mohr - without graduations at tip

Analytical requirements of purified water includes the following steps **EXCEPT**: A) Chloride not more than 0.1 mg/L B) Heavy metals not more than 0.01mg/L C) Ammonia not more than 0.1 mg/L D) Consumption of KMn0

D) Consumption of KMn0

Oxalate anticoagulant may inhibit the enzymatic reactions in tests of the following **EXCEPT**: A) Lactate Dehydrogenase B) Alkaline phosphatase C) Amylase D) Acid phosphatase | Correct anticoagulants for ChemAnalysis

B) Alkaline phosphatase | Oxalates should not be used for enzyme analysis and enzymatic procedures ## Footnote Because oxalate INHIBITS 1. Amylase 2. Acid Phosphataes 3. LDH

A newly born infant was found to be anemic 5 days after being confined in the hospital. He had 3 blood examinations done on 3 different days. No sign of bleeding disease was noted. The depletion of blood could be due to: A) infant's reaction to alcohol wipes B) Infections caused by extraction C) infant's reaction to betadine disinfectant D) Larger volume needed in repeated extraction

D) Larger volume needed in repeated extraction | Anemia - due to blood loss

The anticoagulated glass syringe for **arterial blood extraction** contains this amount of Heparin: A) 1000 U/ml B) 2000 U/ml C) 3000 U/ml D) 4000 U/ml

A) 1000 U/mL ## Footnote This results in a final heparin concentration (FHC) of about 50 IU/ml in a fully filled syringe, which is sufficient for accurate blood gas analysis without causing significant dilutional errors in the test results

What is the relationship of wavelength to frequency & energy? A) the shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency & energy B) the longer the wavelength, the higher the frequency & energy C) the shorter the wavelength, the lower the frequency & energy D) no relationship exists between the wavelength, & the frequency & energy

A) the shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency & energy | Frequency is # of waves passes an observation point in a unit of time ## Footnote Wavelength is inversely related to the frequency and energy

The 'b' in the formula for **Beer Lambert's Law** stands for: A) basic solution B) wavelength of solution C) light path of the solution D) absorbance

C) Light of the solution | A = abc = log (100/%T) C=A/ab ## Footnote A = absorbance; a = absorptivity of compound under standard condition; b = light path of the solution; c = concentration of the compound; %T = percent transmittance

The** Allen Correction or Dual Wavelength Method** A) Acor = A peak absorbance - 2 / (A. Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & hinher.) B) Acor = (A Analvie-free serum absorbance; lower & higher.) / 2 - Apeak absorbance C) Apeak absorbance== Acorr - (A Analyle-freeserum absorbanss: lower A higher.) D) Acorr=Apeak absorbance - (A Analyte-free serum absorbance: lower & higher)/2

D) Acorr=Apeak absorbance - (A Analyte-free serum absorbance: lower & higher)/2

As described by the **Mie Theory**, if the wavelength of light is much larger than the diameter (d) of the particle, where d > 10 w, the light: A) scatters forward B) scatters backward C) is all absorbed D) scatters upward

A) scactters forward | Mie Theory of Nephelometry ## Footnote If a wavelength (A) of light is much larger than the diameter (d) of the particle, where d > 10 A, the light scatters forward owing to the destructive out-of-phase back-scatter.

This level of *C-peptide* also suggests **hyperinsulinism** which is characterized by *severe hypoglycemia*: A) >1.9 ng/mL B) >9.1 ng/mL C) >1.5 ng/mL D) > 5.1 ng/mL

A) >1.9 ng/mL | The ratio of C-peptide to insulin is 5:1. ## Footnote A high level of C-pepide (>1.9 ng/L) suggests hyperinsulinism which is characterized by severe hypoglycemia.

An important consequence of this condition is the accumulation of the by-product galactitol which contributes to cataract formation: A) fructosemia B) galactosemia C) glucosemia D) glycogenemia

B) galactosemia ## Footnote Galactosemia is a genetic disorder that affects how the body processes galactose, a sugar found in milk and dairy products. In this condition, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing galactose is deficient or absent, leading to the accumulation of galactose and its by-product, galactitol.

Effects of insulin **EXCEPT**: A) inhibits gluconeogenesis B) increased glycogenesis C) promote glycogenolysis D) increases lipoprotein lipase activity

C) Promote glyogenolysis | insulin inhibits glycogenolysis; the breakdown of glycogen into glucose ## Footnote Inhibits Gluconeogenesis (A): Insulin decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver, promoting lower blood glucose levels. Increased Glycogenesis (B): Insulin promotes glycogenesis, which is the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage in the liver and muscle. Increases Lipoprotein Lipase Activity (D): Insulin enhances lipoprotein lipase activity, facilitating the uptake of fatty acids into adipose tissue and promoting fat storage.

Which **gravimetric method** is *recommended by NCCLS* to calibrate pipets: A) measured weight of water in grams/1(gram/ml) x temperature correction -volume of pipet in ml B) measured volume of water in grams/1(gram/ml) / temperature correction volume of pipet in ml C) measured weight of water in lb/1(gram/ml)× temperature correction volume of pipet in ml D) measured weight of water in grams/1(gram/dI)× temperature correction volume of pipet in dl

A) measured weight of water in grams/1(gram/ml) x temperature correction -volume of pipet in ml | based on determining weight of water dispensed by the pipet

This method is considered the **most specific non-enzymatic** method for glucose. A) Condensation with aromatic amines. B) Neocuproine C) Condensation with phenols D) Somogyi-nelson

A) Condensation with aromatic amines. | gives specific colorimetric response, highly specific method for glucose ## Footnote Neocuproine (B): While this method can be used for glucose detection, it is not as specific as the condensation with aromatic amines. Condensation with Phenols (C): Similar to neocuproine, this method is less specific compared to condensation with aromatic amines. Somogyi-Nelson (D): This is a classic method for measuring reducing sugars, including glucose, but it is enzymatic and not classified as non-enzymatic.

A patient's whole blood and cerebrospinal fluid were submitted. His blood gives the following result for *Fasting Blood Sugar*: 90mg/dl. How much glucose level do you expect from his cerebrospinal fluid? A) between 60-75mg/dl B) between 66 -82.5mp/dl C) between 54-67.5mg/dI D) between 30 -37.5mg/dI

C) between 54-67.5mg/dI | Normal CSF glucose is 60-70% of the blood glucose concentration. ## Footnote Blood Glucose = 90mg/dL Expected CSF Glucose: CSF Glu = Blood Glucose x 0.6 to 0.7 CSF Glu = 90 x 0.6 = 54mg/dL CSF Glu = 90 x 0.7 = 63 mg/dL This suggests that the expected CSF glucose level would be approximately between 54 mg/dL and 63 mg/dL.

A fasting adult patient suspected to have* glycogen storage disease* was challenged with a 1mg of Glucagon injection. Her result showed *no increase in glucose although there was a sharp increase in her lactate after an hour*. Her disease could be? A) von Gierke B) Pompeil C) Cori-Forbes.lL. D) Mc Ardle

A) von Gierke | von Gierke disease (Glycogen Storage Disease Type I) ## Footnote Glycogen Storage Disease Type I (von Gierke disease) is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase, which leads to an inability to convert glucose-6-phosphate into free glucose. This results in fasting hypoglycemia and an accumulation of glucose-6-phosphate, which is then metabolized to lactate, causing lactic acidosis.

An out patient was extracted at 6AM. Unfortunately, the Med Tech in charge has to answer an emergency call in the Emergency Room, and has to leave the first patient's blood in the refrigerator with its temperature at 4°c. If the patient's fasting blood sugar yesterday was around 90mg/al, how much do you expect it to be, if the Med Tech was able to come back & perform the test at 9AM? A) 80mg/dI B) 76mg/dl C) 84mg/dI D) 69mg/dl

C) 84mg/dL | Slight decrease but within range, based on glucose stability in ref. ## Footnote If we assume a conservative decrease of 1-2% over 3 hours: 1% of 90 mg/dL = 0.9 mg/dL 2% of 90 mg/dL = 1.8 mg/dL So, after 3 hours: Minimum expected glucose: 90−1.8=88.2mg dL Maximum expected glucose: 90−0.9=89.1 mg dL Given the stability of glucose at refrigeration temperatures and the expected minor decrease, it is reasonable to conclude that the glucose level would likely remain close to the original value of 90 mg/dL.

How much NaF should the Med Tech add to the 5ml blood if he wanted to preserve the serum glucose of the previous patient? A) 10mg B) 5mg C) 15 mg D) 20mg | sodium fluoride (NaF)

A) 10mg | Amount of NaF = 2 mg mL x 5 mL = 10 mg ## Footnote To preserve serum glucose in a blood sample, the typical recommendation for sodium fluoride (NaF) is about 2 mg/mL of blood. Given that the patient’s blood volume is 5 mL, the calculation for the amount of NaF needed would be: Amount of NaF = 2 mg mL x 5 mL = 10 mg

This method has been *adapted to dipstick for urine glucose*: A) glucose oxidase (GOD) coupled reaction B) Polarographic Glucose Oxidase Method C) Hexokinase method D) Condensation with phenols

A) glucose oxidase (GOD) coupled reaction | This method is specific for glucose ## Footnote The glucose dipstick test employs a two-step enzymatic reaction where glucose oxidase (GOD) first oxidizes glucose to gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide. The hydrogen peroxide then reacts with a chromogen in the presence of peroxidase, resulting in a color change that indicates the concentration of glucose in the urine

These FBS levels taken on two occasions are suggestive of **diabetes mellitus**. A) >126 mg/dL B) 100mg/dL 28-4-2 C) 7.0 mmol/L D) A & C

D) A & C >126 mg/dL & 7.0 mmol/L ## Footnote A) >126 mg/dL: According to the American Diabetes Association, a fasting blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus. C) 7.0 mmol/L: This is equivalent to 126 mg/dL, as 1 mmol/L is approximately 18 mg/dL. Therefore, a fasting plasma glucose of 7.0 mmol/L also indicates diabetes.

The **highest rise** in **blood glucose level** *after a meal* is only A) 15-30mg/dL B) 20-50mg/dl C)10-15 mg/dL D) none of the above

C)10-15 mg/dL

**Oral glucose tolerance (OGTT)** is indicated in cases of the following *EXCEPT*: A) unequivocal fasting or random blood glucose concentrations B) unexplained glycosuria particularly in pregnancy C) galactose intolerance D) in the diagnosis of acromegaly

C) galactose intolerance

A patient was subjected to an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, and has the following blood results: **Fasting plasma glucose **is **135mg/dL**,** 1-hour level of 270mg/dI**, and a **2-hr glucose value of 110 mg/dL** What is your diagnosis? A) diabetes mellitus B) normal C) gestational diabetes D) NOTA ## Footnote Note the Normal Ranges: Fasting <100mg/dL; 1-Hr <200 mg/dL; 2-Hr <140mg/dL

A) diabetes mellitus | Abnormal fasting and 1-hour levels suggest diabetes mellitus diagnosis ## Footnote Since the patient did not meet the criteria for diabetes based solely on the 2-hour result but did have a very high 1-hour result, it indicates a significant impairment in glucose tolerance, which aligns with diabetes diagnosis.

A patients **HbA1C **was 8%. Conclusion: A) patient's Diabetes is well-controlled by his diet B) the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet C) Patient is having gestational diabetes D) his diet has nothing to do with test

B) the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet | HbA1C should be <7% ## Footnote An HbA1C level of 8% indicates that the patient's average blood glucose levels have been higher than the recommended target for most individuals with diabetes, which is typically less than 7%. This suggests poor glycemic control.

A 6 months pregnant patient has the following result for the 3 hour OGTT: fasting 100mg/dl; 1 hour 220mg/dI, 2 hours 200mg/dl, 3 hours 135mg/dl. Diagnosis for patient: A) positive for NIDDM B) positive for juvenile Diabetes Mellitus C) negative for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus D) positive for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus ## Footnote Normal Glucose Levels for OGTT: Fasting: <92 mg/dL (5.1 mmol/L) 1 Hour: <180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L) 2 Hours: <153 mg/dL (8.5 mmol/L) 3 Hours: <140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)

D) Positive for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus | PX: Fasting - ↑; 1Hr = ↑; 2Hr = ↑; 3Hr = Normal. ## Footnote Normal Glucose Levels for OGTT: Fasting: <92 mg/dL (5.1 mmol/L) 1 Hour: <180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L) 2 Hours: <153 mg/dL (8.5 mmol/L) 3 Hours: <140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)

The following are the volume (ml) required to make 1liter or 1N solution of these acid or alkali **EXCEPT**: A) concentrated HCI=83 B) Saturated NaOH at 20°C = 37-47 C) Glacial HAC≥57 D) Saturated KOH at 20 °C= 70

B) Saturated NaOH at 20°C = 37-47

This analyte **cannot be stored at room temperature**: A) BUN B) uric acid C) Enzymes D) creatinine

C) Enzymes

All these analytes are variably *high in the morning* than in the afternoon **EXCEPT**: A) Neutrophils B) Prolactin C) iron D) corticosteroids

A) Neutrophils | due to diurnal variations ## Footnote Neutrophils highest at PM

A patient was challenged with a 75g glucose concentrate. His initial FBS was 100mg/dL. Which is the most expected result for his Random Blood Sugar (RBS)? A) 115mg/dI B) 145mg/dl C) 200 mg/dl D) 195 mg/dl

A) 115mg/dI ## Footnote Normal Ranges: For a 1-hour post-glucose level, values should ideally be below 180 mg/dL. For a 2-hour post-glucose level, values should be below 140 mg/dL to be considered normal. An RBS of 115 mg/dL after the glucose challenge indicates that the patient's body is effectively managing the glucose load, suggesting that they are likely not exhibiting impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes.

# GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE _ 1. Portal Cirrhosis, death in infancy _ 2. Pain and stiffness after excretion; myoglobinuria _ 3. Hepatomegaly only _ 4. Hepatomegaly, lactic acidosis, Hyperlipidemia, severe fasting, Hypoglycemia ## Footnote Choices: Type I - von Gierke Type II - Pompe Type III - CoriForbes Type IV - Andersen Type V - Mc Ardle Type VI - Hers Type VII - Tarui Type VIII Type IX Type X

Portal Cirrhosis, death in infancy - **Andersen, Type IV** Pain and stiffness after excretion; myoglobinuria -**MC Ardle, Type V** Hepatomegaly only - **X-10** Hepatomegaly, lactic acidosis, Hyperlipidemia, severe fasting, Hypoglycemia - **von Gierke, Type 1**

This specimen bottle of **Cerebrospinal Fluid** goes to *Chemistry* section of the laboratory: A) 1st B) 2nd C) 3rd D) 4th

C) 3rd ## Footnote If 1 CSF Tube = MHC; Micro Hema Chem If 3 Tube = CMH; Chem Micro Hema

*Urine porphyrins* for chemistry analysis are *made stable* through the following **EXCEPT**: A) maintaining alkalinity by adding sodium hydroxide B) retarding oxidation by adding petroleum ether C) formation of protective layer by adding petroleum ether D) preserve urine in brown bottle

A) maintaining alkalinity by adding sodium hydroxide

What is the expected product/ color of **Folin-Wu method**? A) phosphomolybdenum blue complex B) yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless ferrocyanide C) arsenomolybdenum blue D) green colored N-glycosylamaine

A) phosphomolybdenum blue complex | (mne) Folin Copper’s Hot Date: Alkaline Molly turns Blue! ## Footnote Folin-Wu method: Copper's = Cupric oxide Hot Date = Reaction in hot alkaline solution Molly = Phosphomolybdate reagent Turns Blue = Formation of phosphomolybdenum blue complex

What is the expected product/ color of **Somoygi-nelson method**? A) phosphomolybdenum blue complex B) yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless ferrocyanide C) arsenomolybdenum blue D) green colored N-glycosylamaine

C) arsenomolybdenum blue | Some Copper Arsenic Loves Turning Blue ## Footnote Somogyi-Nelson method: Some = SOMogyi-Nelson Copper = Cupric oxide Arsenic = Arsenomolybdate reagent Loves Turning Blue = Formation of arsenomolybdenum blue

What is the expected product/ color of **Hagedorn-Jensen method**? A) phosphomolybdenum blue complex B) yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless ferrocyanide C) arsenomolybdenum blue D) green colored N-glycosylamaine

B) yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless ferrocyanide | Harry’s Yellow Ferry Disappears ## Footnote Harry = Hagedorn-Jensen Yellow Ferry = Yellow ferricyanide Disappears = Reduced to colorless ferrocyanide

What is the expected product/ color of **Condensation with aromatic amines method**? A) phosphomolybdenum blue complex B) yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless ferrocyanide C) arsenomolybdenum blue D) green colored N-glycosylamaine

D) green colored N-glycosylamaine

According to *Osmometry* any substance dissolved in a solvent will exhibit the following **EXCEPT**: A) Depress the freezing point B) Elevate the boiling point C) increase the vapor pressure D) Increase the osmotic pressure

C) increase the vapor pressure

If the amount of radioactivity decreases by a factor of 2 or by half for every half-life period, then an isotope that has a half-life of 8 hours and an activity of 16 mCi (millicuries), will drop its activity to _____ mCi in 16 hours. A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) still 16

A) 4

*Seliwanoff's test* for fructose includes the following **EXCEPT** : A) HNO3 B) resorcinol C) application of heat D) red product

A) HNO3

The normal BUN: creatinine ration is approximately 10:1 interpret the BUN:Creatinine ration of a patient whose BUN is 36mg/dl and with a creatinine of 1.2mg/dl? A) Normal B) Increase C) decrease D) data is lacking

B) Increase

As to Kidney excretion of NPNs, this is NOT normal & may lead to complications in the patient: A) 100x blood concentration of creatinine B) 50x-blood concentration of urea C) 20x blood concentration of uric acid

C) 20x blood concentration of uric acid

Conversion factor for BUN to Urea? A) BUN x 21.4 = urea B) BUN × 0.214 = urea C) BUN× 2.14 = urea D) BUN x 214 = urea

C) BUN× 2.14 = urea

Regarding the clinical uses for **blood ammonia Testing**, the following statement is TRUE: A) in hepatic coma = hyperammonaemia, without hyperbilirubinemia B) in Reye's syndrome = hyperammonaemia, with hyperbilirubinemia C) in hepatic coma = decreased ammonia, & hyperbilirubinemia D) in Reye's syndrome = hyperammonaemia, without hyperbilirubinemia

D) in Reye's syndrome = hyperammonaemia, without hyperbilirubinemia

The following are the Chemical features of proteins as to solubility EXCEPT : A) albumins soluble in water B) globulins soluble in dilute basic solutions C) histones soluble in dilute acids

C) histones soluble in dilute acids

**Kjeldahl nitrogen** reference method for *protein*: A) nitrogen x 0.654 = protein B) nitrogen × 65.4 = protein C) nitrogen x 6.54 = protein D) nitrogen x 654.0 = protein

C) nitrogen x 6.54 = protein

In ultracentrifugation a material sedimenting at a rate 6of 1S unit means that it sediments at the rate of: A) 1x 10-3 mm per dyne per minute per gram of weight B) 1x 10-3 cm per dyne per minute per milligram of weight C) 1x 10-3 um per dyne per second per gram of weight D) 1x 10-3 cm per dyne per second per gram of weight

D) 1x 10-3 cm per dyne per second per gram of weight

This statement **DOES NOT** refer to *Bence Jones protein*: A) detection of Bence Jones protein in blood more significant than in urine B) soluble when the solution is heated to 100C C) precipitates when the solution cools to 60-65C D) found in 60-65% of patients with multiple myeloma

A) detection of Bence Jones protein in blood more significant than in urine

*Turbidimetric estimation* of **protein** involves the following **EXCEPT**: A) it is useful for solutions of low protein concentration B) test for protein in blood C) also applicable to urine and CSF D) agent of choice is tricholoroacetic acid

A) it is useful for solutions of low protein concentration

This statement is **NOT** related to the *Biuret reaction*: A) depends on the presence of two or more peptide linkages B) “biuret" is the product of decomposition of urea heated to 180C either C)"biuret" or protein + Co" in alkaline solution gives a violet color D) icteric and lipemic sera give false elevation

B) “biuret" is the product of decomposition of urea heated to 180C either

Where does **high density lipoprotein** migrate on protein electrophoresis? A. origin B. Pre- beta C. Alpha D. Beta

C. Alpha

This lipoprotein is also called the "**floating b**" lipoprotein: A.IDL B. Lp (A) C. Lpx Lipoprotein D. B- VLDL

D. B- VLDL

Which lipoprotein causes "**milky**" plasma in *blood samples*? A. VLDL B. IDL C. Chylomicrons D.HDL

C. Chylomicrons

Which lipoprotein has a very **high lipid/protein ratio**? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. B-VLDL

A. Chylomicrons

**Deficiency in LCAT** results in A. Increased Levels of HDL2 B. Large Cm and VLDL C. Decreased HDL D. Elevated LDL

C. Decreased HDL

The following apolipoproteins are found in the **depleted chylomicron remnant particle**. A. Apo B-18 And Apo E B. Apo D And Apo C. Apo B-100 And Apo B-48 D. Apo A-1 And Apo A-11

A. Apo B-18 And Apo E

The **dietary triglycerides** are otherwise known as: A. Endogenous Triglycerides B. Ketone Bodies C. Exogenous Triglycerides D. Sphingolipids

C. Exogenous Triglycerides

Which term refers to **hardening due to accumulation of lipids** in the *arterial intima*? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis C. Plaque D. Calcification

B. Atherosclerosis

This *apolipoprotein* **regulates rate of clearance of tag-rich lipoprotein remnants** and **inhibits lipoprotein lipase**. A. Apo C-I orientation B. Apo C-ii C. Apo C-iii D. Apo B-48

C. Apo C-iii

Medical disorders that *lead to secondary dyslipoproteinemia* include: A. Thyroid Disease B. Hepatic Disease C. Kidney Disease D. All of the Above

D. All of the Above

The *quantitation of total fecal lipids* may be performed by *gravimetric or titrimetric analysis*. Both of these methods require that the fecal lipids be hydrolyzed to: A) Triglycerides B) Fatty acids and sterols C) Phospholipids D) Cholestery esters

B) Fatty acids and sterols

The enzymatic methods for the determination of triglycerides in serum tend to yield results that are 10-20 mg/dL. higher than colorimetic methods. This discrepancy in triglyceride results is caused by A. The increased sensitivity and specificity of the enzymatic reaction systems, which allow for more selective quantitation of the triglycerides present in the specimen B. The fact that the colorimetric methods determine triglycerides indirectly through the measurement of glycerol. whereas the enzymatic methods measure triglycerides directly C. The loss of some triglyceride from the specimen during the zeolite extraction step that is necessary in some colorimetric procedures D. The elimination of free glycerol by its adsorption onto zeolite in colorimetric methods versus the quantitation of both free glycerol and glycerol formed from triglyceride hydrolysis in the enzymatic methods

C. The loss of some triglyceride from the specimen during the zeolite extraction step that is necessary in some colorimetric procedures

Several colorimetric methods exist for the quantitation of total cholesterol in serum. One method employed is the **Lieberman burchard reaction**, in which the reagent system consist of? A) p-T oluenesulfonic acid B) Glacial acetic acid, acetic anhydride, and sulfuric acid C) Ferric chloride and sulfuric acid D) Ethyl acetate, sulfuric acid, and ferric perchlorate

B) Glacial acetic acid, acetic anhydride, and sulfuric acid

The term "**lipid storage diseases**" is used to denote a group of lipid disorders, the majority of which are inherited as autosomal recessive mutations. The *clinical manifestations* of these diseases are due to: A. Excessive dietary fat ingestion B. Excessive synthesis of the sphingolipids C. An inability to synthesize the sphingolipida D. specific enzyme deficiency or nonfunctional enzyme form

D. specific enzyme deficiency or nonfunctional enzyme form

Which of the following results would be the most consistent with high risk for **coronary heart disease**? A. 20 mg/dL HDL, cholesterol and 250 mg/dL, total cholesterol B. 35 mg/dL. HDL cholesterol and 200 mg /dL. total cholesterol C. 50 mg/dL. HDL cholesterol and 190 mg /dL. total cholesterol D. 60 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 170 mg/dL total cholesterol

A. 20 mg/dL HDL, cholesterol and 250 mg/dL, total cholesterol

In the **Berthelot reaction**, a* blue-indophenol compound* is formed that is proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. **Falsely elevated** urea values will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture is *contaminated* by? A. Glucose B) Protein C) Ammonia D) Bacteria

C) Ammonia

After the blood sample is drawn, the enzymatic process of deamination of amides continues at room temperature. Therefore, when a blood ammonia determination is performed, the blood specimen must be treated in a manner that will ensure that À. The deamination process continues in vitro B. Glutamine formation in vitro is avoided C. The transamination process continues in vitro D. Ammonia formation in vitro is avoided

D. Ammonia formation in vitro is avoided

To *quantitate the creatine concentration* in a **urine** specimen, it is Necessary to treat the urine in what manner? A. Adjusting it to an acid pH and heating at 100°C B. Adjusting it to an alkaline pH and heating at 37°C C) Adjusting it to an acid pH and heating at 37°C D) Adjusting it to an acid pH and heating at 56°C

D) Adjusting it to an acid pH and heating at 56"C

The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular filtration rate. Given the following information for an average size adult, calculate a creatinine clearance. Urine creatine-120 mg/dL Plasma creatinine-1.2 mg/dL Urine volume for 24 hours-1520 mL A. 10.6 mL/min B) 63.3 ml/min C) 94.7 mL/min D) 105.6 ml/min

D) 105.6 ml/min

An *exogenous* substance used to *assess the glomerular filtration rate* that affords the **most accurate of renal clearance** is A. Urea B. Insulin C. Glucose D. Creatinine

B. Insulin

Which of the following disorders is best characterized by laboratory findings that include *increased serum levels of inorganic phosphorus, magnesium, potassium, uric acid, urea, and creatinine and decreased serum calcium and erythropoietin levels*? A) Urinary tract infection B) Renal tubular disease C) Chronic renal failure D) Acute glomerulonephritis

C) Chronic renal failure ## Footnote increased serum levels of inorganic phosphorus, magnesium, potassium, uric acid, urea, and creatinine and decreased serum calcium and erythropoietin levels

Patient's test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 250md/dl. Later in the afternoon, you remembered you didn't remove the free glycerol. How much should his result be if only you did its removal? A) 182.5-195 mg/dl B) 82.5-95 mg/dl C) 105-110.5 mg/dl D) 215-110 mg/dI

D) 215-110 mg/dI

Which *enzymatic reactions* has **4-P-benzoquinonamonoiminophenazone** as its end-product? A) Baculo-David B) Nagele-trinder C) Winartasaputra D) Megraw

B) Nagele-trinder | 4-P-benzoquinonamonoiminophenazone

This colorimetric development for **cholesterol assay produces red to reddish violet cholestadienyl disulfonic acid**. A) Leibermann-burchardt (LB) reaction B) Baculo-David (NADH consumption method) C) Nagele-trinder reaction D) Salkowski of zak reaction

D) Salkowski of zak reaction ## Footnote Sulfuric Ferry Rides Red-Violet Waves! Sulfuric = Sulfuric acid Ferry = Ferric ions Rides Red-Violet Waves = Produces stable red to reddish-violet cholestadienyl disulfonic acid

This is the **standard & reference**, **non-enzymatic method** used by Centers for Disease Control for **Cholesterol** measurement: A)Abell-kendall method B) Carp-Drekter method C) Schoenheimer-Sperry D) Zlatkis-Zak-Boyle

A)Abell-kendall method

The lipoproteins are Measured in Terms of **total lipoprotein mass** using the following which *detects the concentration dependent changes in the refractive indices* of the lipoproteins: A) Schlteren optics B) Schlteren optics C) Standard international Units D) Fiber optics

B) Schlteren optics

In *Determining the Lipid profile*, which procedure/ computation is **NOT acceptable**: A) Determine first TAG, and total cholesterol HDL-cholesterol by chemical means B) Total-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - TAG C) VLDL-cholesterol = total cholesterol - infranatant-cholesterol D) LDL-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - HDL-cholesterol

B) Total-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - TAG

**Eruptive xanthomas** are common in this disorder: A) Hyperchylomicronemia C) Familial hypertriglyceridemia B) Familial hypercholesterolemia D) Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

D) Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia | Eruptive xanthomas

An admitted patient undergoing dialysis has a Blood Urea Nitrogen of 90mg/dL. How would you express this in SI units? A) 28.56mmol/L B) 2.8 - 7.1 mmol/L C) 32.13mmol/L D) 71.4mmol/L

C) 32.13mmol/L

A person has a plasma creatinine concentration of 0-05 my/ml and in 1 hour produces 60ml of urine with a creatinin concentration of 1.50 mg/mL. What is his creatinine clearance? A) 125mL/min B) 300mL/min C) 30mL/min D) 12.5mL/min

C) 30mL/min

A patient's blood has been standing for 2 hours, since the previous Med T ech on duty has left it beside the centrifuge by negligence. The next technologist performed the ammonia test which gives a result of 13.036 ug/mL. How much was its initial content and its actual interpretation? A) 11.036 ug/mL, increased B) 13.0 ug/mL, increased min/l C) 13.0 ug/mL, normal D) 13.036 ug/mL, increased

B) 13.0 ug/mL, increased min/l

The following statements are true regarding *Uric acid determination* **EXCEPT**; A) It may be oxidized by alkaline phosphotungstate B) It is readily oxidized to allantoin C) Ethanol ingestion frequently increases the plasma concentration D) Using the enzyme catalase remains the most specific method

D) Using the enzyme catalase remains the most specific method

**Lesch-Nyhan syndrome** is an X-linked disorder due to the complete deficiency of: A) hypoxanthine phosphoribosyItransferase B) Uricase C) xanthine oxidase D) catalase

C) xanthine oxidase | Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

The anticoagulant in this tube **exerts large osmotic effects**: A) EDTA B) sodium citrate C) no additive D) fluoride and oxalate

B) sodium citrate | tube exerts large osmotic effect

The *anticoagulant* in this tube forms **insoluble potassium phosphotungstate**, resulting in *turbidity*. A) EDTA B) sodium citrate C) no additive D) fluoride and oxalate

D) fluoride and oxalate | insoluble potassium phosphotungstate, turbidity

It is the **preferred test tube** for *plasma lipid and lipoprotein concentration* determination. A) EDTA B) sodium citrate C) no additive D) fluoride and oxalate

A) EDTA

A **curie (Ci**) is the quantity of **radioactive material** that exhibits: A. 3.7 × 104 dis/sec B. 3.7 × 107 dis/sec C. 3.7x 1010 dis/sec D. 3.7 × 1010 dis/min

C. 3.7x 1010 dis/sec

The following refers to the* major end products of the nitrogen metabolism* **EXCEPT**: A) ureaa (56%) B) Creatinine(4.5%) C) ammonium(2.8%) D) uric acid(1.7%)

B) Creatinine(4.5%)

These *amino acids* are **glucogenic**? A) leucine and lysine B) valine & threonine C) tryptophan & isoleucine D) methionine & histidine

A) leucine and lysine | GLUCOGENIC Amino acid

These enzymes *cleave proteins* in their internal sites **EXCEPT** : A) carboxypeptidase B) trypsin C) chymotrypsin D) elastase

A) carboxypeptidase

*Amino acids* that have a **double charge- positive and negative** - are called? A) zwitterion B) amphoteric C) ampholyte D) isoelectric

A) zwitterion | amino acid that has double charge- positive and negative

**Salting-out process** of globulin means: A) precipitation with 22-26% sodium sulfate B) oxidation with copper sulfate C) floatation method by ultracentrifugation D) precipitation in Rochelle salt environment

A) precipitation with 22-26% sodium sulfate

The* Biuret reagent *contains the following **EXCEPT**: A) copper sulfate for the biuret formation B) sodium hydroxide to provide alkalinity C) potassium hydroxide to keep the copper ions in the cupric state D) Rochelle salt environment

C) potassium hydroxide to keep the copper ions in the cupric state

For a* refractometer* to obtain **accurate levels of protein**, its concentrations in the sample should be: A) not more than 2.5 g/dL B) between 2-2.5 g/dL C) greater than 2:5 g/dL D) greater than 2.5 g/dL

C) greater than 2:5 g/dL | accurate levels of protein in refractometer

Proteins absorb UV light due to the presence of the following **EXCEPT** : A) tryptophan B) threonine C)phenylalanine D) tyrosine

B) threonine

What plasma protein has the **highest molecular weight**: A) Albumin B) Orosomucoid C) Gc-globulin D) Fibrin

A) Albumin

**Dyes** used to *measure albumin* include: A. Phenolphthalein B) HABA C) phenol red D) Biuret

B) HABA | dye used to measure albumin

A patient’s A/G ratio is 0.8, and his total protein in 9.0 g/dl, what can you say about the patient’s albumin globulin? A) Albumin decreased and globulin increased B) Albumin increased decreased and globulin C) Albumin increased and globulin increased D) Albumin decreased and globulin decreased

A) Albumin decreased and globulin increased

The relative mobilities found on **electrophoresis at pH 8.6 of hemoglobin** show: A. HbS migrates faster than HbC but more slowly than HbA B) HbS migrates faster than HbA C) HbA migrates more slowly than HbC or HbS D) HbC migrates faster than HbA

C) HbA migrates more slowly than HbC or HbS

**Haptoglobin** is: A) Elevated in normal pregnancies B) Found in levels proportional to total iron binding capacity C) Decreased in hemolysis as it clears free hemoglobin D) Elevated in iron deficiency anemia

C) Decreased in hemolysis as it clears free hemoglobin | Haptoglobin

**Protein-losing enteropathy** is usually seen in *malabsorption syndrome* and is evidenced by a *serum electrophoretogram* of: A) Low albumin only C) Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-1 and 2 globulins B) Low albumin and gamma globulin D) Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-2 globulin

A) Low albumin only | protein losing enteropathy, serum electrophoretogram

Urine of patients with **phenylketonuria(PKU)** has *increased*: A)Phenylalanine B) Cysteine C) Homocystine D) Phosphoethanolamine

A) Phenylalanine | Phenylketonuria (PKU)

**Alkaptonuria** is characterized by urinary excretion of: A) Homogentisic acid B) Homocystine C) Hydroxyproline D) Homovanillic acid

A) Homogentisic acid | Alkaptonuria

**Maple syrup urine disease** is diagnosed by: A. Excess hydroxyproline in urine B. Excess organic acid in urine C. Excess urea in urine D. Excess branched-chain amino acids in urine

D. Excess branched-chain amino acids in urine | Maple syrup urine

To c*orrect for interfering nucleic acids*, the **protein concentration** may be calculated using this formula: A) Protein(mg/mL) = (15.5 x A280) - (0. 67 x A260) B) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A280) - (0.76 x A260) C) Protein(mg/mL) = (0.76 x A280) - (1.55 x A260) D) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A260) - (0.76 x A280)

B) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A280) - (0.76 x A260)

A _ level of free haptoglobin suggests hemoglobinuria or hemolysis: A) decrease in serum B) increase in serum C) decrease in urine D) increase in urine

A) decrease in serum | suggest hemoglobinuria or hemolysis

In **anion-exchange chromatography**, the *order of elution* is usually: A) a1-globulins a2-globulins, B-globulins, and albumin. B) a2-globulins, albumin, B-globulins, and a1-globulins. C) B-globulins, a2-globulins, a1-globulins, and albumin. D) albumin, a1-globulins, a2-globulins, and B-globulins.

B-globulins, a2-globulins, a1-globulins, and albumin. | Order of elution in Anion-exchange chromatography

Quantitation of serum is a **marker for nutritional status**: A) a1-acid glycoprotein B) prealbumin C) Ceruloplasmin D) a1-acid glycoprotein

B) prealbumin

When the **transferrin level is high**, it refers to the following **EXCEPT** : A) increased iron binding capacity B) iron saturation is high C) decrease in iron levels D) there is iron deficiency

B) iron saturation is high

Deficiency of this protein is called **Wilson's disease (Hepatolenticular Degeneration)** A) Gc-globulin B) prealbumin C) Ceruloplasmin D) a1-acid glycoprotein

C) Ceruloplasmin | Wilson's disease (Hepatolenticular Degeneration)

Which of the following is the **proper order of blood drawing**: A) SPS, light blue top, red top, lavender top, dark green top, pale yellow top B) lavender top, SPS, red top, light blue top, dark green top, pale yellow top C) SPS, light blue top, pale yellow top, lavender top, dark green top, red top D) light blue top, red top, lavender top, dark green top, pale yellow top, SPS

SPS, light blue top, red top, lavender top, dark green top, pale yellow top

Disease dissociation: A) C-reactive protein B) 22-Macroglobulin C) C3 It is **decreased **in *autoimmune diseases* ?

C) C3 | decreases in autoimmune disease

Disease dissociation: A) C-reactive protein B) 22-Macroglobulin C) C3 It r**ises tenfold or more** in *nephritic syndrome*

B) 22-macroglobulin | rises in Nephiritic syndrome

Disease dissociation: A) C-reactive protein B) 22-Macroglobulin C) C3 It is seen in **tissue necrosis**

A) C-reactive protein | tissue necrosis

A solution of NaOH is standardized by titration with 0.100 N HCI. A total of 10.0 mL of NaOH requires 11.25 mL of HCI. What is the normality of the NaOH solution? A. 0.100 B. 0.112 C. 0.113 D.1.125

D.1.125

A colorimetric method calls for the use of 0.1 mL of serum, 5 mL of reagents, and 4.9 mL of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the final solution? A.1 to 5 B. 1 to 10 C.1 to 50 D.1 to 100

D.1 to 100

In a spectrophometric procedure that follows **Beer's law**, the absorbance of a standard solution of concentration 15 mg/dL is 0.50 in a 1-cm cell. The absorbance of the sample solution is 0.62. What is the concentration? A. 0.62 mg/mL B. 6.2 mol/L C. 12.1 mg/dL D)18.6mg/dL

D)18.6mg/dL

How many grams of anhydrous sodium sulfate (mol wt = 142) are required to prepare 750 mL of a 23% w/v solution? A. 2.3 B. 106.5 C. 172.5 D. 230

B. 106.5

A *new standard (calibrator) *has been **prepared in error at a lower concentration than that required** for the test. How would such an error appear on a quality control chart? A. Upward trend B. Downward trend C. Upward shift D. Downward shift

B. Downward trend

A group of physicians consistently complains that they are not receiving stat patient results quickly enough. The supervisor is likely to refer to which quality assessment variable? A, specimen separation and aliquoting C. analytical methodology B. test utilization D. turnaround time

D. turnaround time

When comparing a potential new test with a comparative method in order to bring a new method into the laboratory, one **observes error that is consistently affecting results in one direction**. What is this type of error known as? A. systematic error C. constant systematic error B. random error D. proportional systematic error

D. proportional systematic error

A laboratorian spills a bottle of concentrated sulfuric acid and slips in the fluid, exposing the lower length of her body to the burning fluid. What would be the most advisable action for a coworker to take? A. call security B. take the injured person to the nearest hospital emergency department C. put person under the safety shower D. pour concentrated base on person to neutralize the acid

B. take the injured person to the nearest hospital emergency department

The **major job-related disease hazard** in clinical laboratories is, A. Tularemia B. Salmonella C. Tuberculosis D. Hepatitis

D. Hepatitis

Chlorine is most often used in the form of sodium hypochlorite (NaOCI), found in household bleach, for a disinfectant. What dilution of household bleach is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to clean up blood spills? A. 1:1 B. 1:10 C. 1:20 D. 1:100

B. 1:10

When performing *spectrophotometer quality assurance checks*, what is the **holmium oxide glass filter used* to assess? A. Linearity B. Stray light C. Absorbance accuracy D. Wavelength accuracy

D. Wavelength accuracy

The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is 10 nm. If an instrument is set at 540 hm. The wavelengths that are permitted to impinge on the sample will be within what wavelength range? A. 530-540 nm B. 530-580 nm C. 535-545 nm D. 540-550 nm

C. 535-545 nm

Which of the following represents a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis? A. increased specificity and increased sensitivity B. purity of reagents used not as critical C. increased specificity and decreased sensitivity D. ease of performing assays

A. increased specificity and increased sensitivity

Most *atomic absorption spectrophotometers* incorporate a **beam chopper and a tuned amplifier**. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by? A. variations in flame temperature B. stray light from the hollow-cathode lamp C. deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp D. measurement of light emitted by the analyte

D. measurement of light emitted by the analyte

Given the following information on a particular compound that has been visualized by means of thin layer chromatography, calculate the Rf of the compound. Distance from the origin spot Center= 48 mm Distance from spot center to solvent Front= 93 mm Distance from origin to solvent Front= 141 mm A. 29 B. 0.34 C. 0.52 D. 0.66.

B. 0.34

Of the following blood glucose levels, which would you expect in the urine? A. 60 mg/dl B. 120 mg/dL C. 150 mg/dL D.225 mg/dL

A. 60 mg/dl

The physician determined that the patient needed an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to assist in diagnosis. The patient had blood drawn for the OGTT , and the following serum glucose results were obtained. These results are indicative of what state? (Fasting serum glucose 124 mg/dL) (2- hour postload serum glucose 225 mg/dL) A: Normal B. diabetes mellitus C. adddison disease D. hyperinsulinism

B. diabetes mellitus ## Footnote According to diagnostic criteria, a fasting blood glucose level of 100 to 125 mg/dL indicates prediabetes, while a level of 126 mg/dL or higher is diagnostic for diabetes. A two-hour glucose level of 200 mg/dL or higher after a glucose load confirms the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus

A 30-year-old pregnant Woman has a gestational diabetes mellitus screening test performed at 26 week: of gestation. Her physician chooses to order a 50-g oral glucose load, Her serum glucose level is 150 mg/dL at 1-hour. What should occur next? A. this confirms diabetes mellitus; give insulin. B. this confirms diabetes mellitus; dietary intake of carbohydrates should be lessened. C. this is suspicious of diabetes mellitus; an oral glucose tolerance test should be formed. D. this is an expected glucose level in a pregnant woman

D. this is an expected glucose level in a pregnant woman

A sample of blood is collected for glucose in a sodium fluoride tube before the patient has had breakfast. The physician calls 2 hours later and requests that determination of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) be performed on the same sample rather obtaining another specimen. The automated analyzer in your laboratory utilizes the urease method to quantify BUN. What should you tell the physician?

cannot perform the procedure

A *cerebrospinal fluid *specimen is sent to the lab at 9:00 P.M., for the *glucose analysis*. The specimen is **cloudy and appears to contain red blood cells**. Which of the following statements is true?

specimen should be centrifuged and glucose assayed immediately

**Enzymatic methods for the d**etermination of total cholesterol in serum utilize a cholesterol oxidase peroxidase method**. In this method, *cholesterol oxidase reacts specifically with what*?

Free cholesterol only

The term "**lipid storage diseases**" is used to denote a group of lipid disorders, the **majority of which are inherited as autosomal recessive mutations**. What is the cause of these diseases?

A specific enzyme deficiency or nonfunctional enzyme form

The s**urfactant/albumin ratio by fluorescence polarization** is performed to assess what physiological state?

Fetal lung maturity

A patient's total cholesterol is 300 mg/dL his HDL cholesterol is 50 mg/dL, and his triglyceride is 200 mg/dl. What is this patient's calculated LDL cholesterol?

210

A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought into the emergency department unconscious. In what way would you expect his plasma lipid values to be affected?

Increased total cholesterol, triglyceride, LDL, & VLDL

What **endogenous** substance may cause a **positive interference in the urease/glutamate dehydrogenase assay**?

Ammonia

When blood **ammonia** determination is performed, the blood specimen must be treated in a manner that will ensure that

ammonia formation in vitro is avoided

In the ultraviolet procedure for quantifying uric acid, what does the **reaction between uric acid and uricase cause**?

Can increase in absorbance | reaction between uric acid and uricase cause

The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular filtration rate. Given the following information for an average-size adult, calculate the creatinine clearance: Urine creatinine- 120 mg/dL Plasma creatinine-1.2 mg/dL Urine volume for 24 hours-1520 mL

106 ml / min

Express 30 mg/ dL of urea nitrogen as urea.

64 mg/dL

When electrophoresis is performed, holes appear in the staining pattern, giving the stained protein band a doughnut-like appearance. What is the probable cause of this problem?

Protein concentration was too high

What is the basis for the **Kjeldahl technique** for the determination of *serum total protein*? A. Quantification of peptide bonds B. Ultraviolet light absorption by aromatic rings at 280mm C. Determination of the refractive index of proteins D. Quantification of the nitrogen content of protein

D. Quantification of the nitrogen content of protein | Kjeldahl technique, serum total protein

When *quantifying serum total proteins*, upon what is the **intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction dependent**? A. molecular weight of the protein B. acidity of the medium C. number of peptide bands D. nitrogen content of the protein

C. number of peptide bands | intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction dependent

Which of the following reagents can be used to **measure protein in cerebrospinal fluid**? A. biuret B. coomassie brilliant blue C. bonceau S D. bromcresol green

B. coomassie brilliant blue | measure protein in cerebrospinal fluid

Which disorder is **NOT associated** with an *elevated protein level in cerebrospinal fluid*? A. bacterial meningitis B. multiple sclerosis C. cerebral infraction D. hyperthyroidism

D. hyperthyroidism

In what condition would an **increased level of serum albumin** be expected? A. malnutrition B. acute inflammation C. dehydration D. renal disease

C. dehydration | increased level of serum albumin ## Footnote This condition causes a relative increase in serum albumin concentration due to a decrease in the volume of plasma, leading to a higher measurement of albumin per unit volume of blood. It occurs when there is a significant loss of intravascular fluid, which can be due to conditions such as severe diarrhea or inadequate fluid intake. As the fluid volume decreases, the concentration of albumin in the blood rises, resulting in hyperalbuminemia.

Identification of which of the following is useful in **early stages of glomerular dysfunction**? A. microalbuminuria B. ketonuria C.hematuria D. urinary light chains

A. microalbuminuria | early stages of glomerular dysfunction

Which total protein method requires **copper sulfate, potassium iodide in sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodium tartrate** in its reagent system? A. Kjeldahl B. Biuret C. Folin-Ciocalteu D. Ultraviolet absorption

B. Biuret | copper sulfate, potassium iodide in sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodi

Which immunoglobulin class, characterized by it's possession of a secretory component, is found in **saliva, tears, and body secretions**? A. IgA B. IgD C. lgG D. IgM

A. IgA

**Bence Jones proteinuria **is a condition characterized by the urinary excretion of what type of** light chain**? A. kappa chains B. both kappa and lambda light chains C. lambda light chains D. either kappa or lambda light chains

B. both kappa and lambda light chains | Bence jones proteinuria

This is **NOT TRUE** regarding patient's *blood sugar levels*: A) Renal threshold varies from individual to individual B) May have very high FBS without urine glucose C) Positive urine glucose always occur in diabetic individuals D) Post Prandial test is an early indicator of impairment of carbohydrate tolerance

A) Renal threshold varies from individual to individual

Diabetics who **return very slowly from high value, but not to any established value** are called: A) " stable" diabetics B) "brittle" diabetics C) "gestational" diabetics D) "resistant" diabetics

resistant diabetics | return very slowly from high value, but not to any established value

The following are the serum values for **protein fractions** of Juan using *cellulose acetate*: *Total protein* 11.0 g/dl ^ *Albumin* 5.0g/dl ^ *Alpha2* 1.5 g/dI ^ *Globulin,total* 6.5g/dl ^ *Beta* 1.1 g/dl ^ *Alpha1* 0.4 g/dl ^ *Gamma* 3.5 g/dl Q1) Compute for the **A/G ratio**: A) 0.77:1 B)1.69:1 C) 1.3:1 D) 2.2:1 Q2) Which **protein fraction** of #138 is abnormal? A) Albumin B) Alpha2 C) Beta D) Gamma

Answer 1) 0.77:1 Answer 2) Albumin

A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for *Lipid Profile*, with the following results: TAG = 200mg/dL Total cholesterol = 220mg/dL HDL cholesterol = 35mg/dL Infranatant = 140mg/dL If the process includes ultracentrifugation, compute for the patient's **LDL, & VIDL**. A) 80mg/dL LDL, 15mg/dL VLDL B) 40mg/dL LDL, 185mg/dL VLDL C) 105mg/di LDL, 80mg/dL VLDL D) 175mg/dL LDL, 215mg/dL VLDL

C) 105mg/di LDL, 80mg/dL VLDL

A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for *Lipid Profile*, with the following results: TAG = 200mg/dL Total cholesterol = 220mg/dL HDL cholesterol = 35mg/dL Infranatant = 140mg/dL In the absence of ultracentrifugation, compute for the patient's *LDL & VLDL*, using **Friedewald Equation**: A) 145.0mg/dL. LDL, 40.0mg/dL VLDL B) 145 mg/dL LDL, 30.5mg/dL VLDL C) 40mg/dL LDL, 185mg/L VLDL D) 154.23mg/dL LDL, 30.77mg/dL VLDL

A) 145.0mg/dL. LDL, 40.0mg/dL VLDL

A patient's blood has the following results: Total protein= 3.3g/dL; Albumin=1.1g/dL Q1) Compute for his A;G ratio: A) 1.3 B) 3.1 C)1.2 D) 2:1 Q2) Evaluate the result of q1: A) normal B) Increased C) Decreased

Answer 1 : 1.2 Answer 2 : Decreased

**Low A:G ratio** may be seen in the following conditions *EXCEPT*: A) liver diseases B) infectious diseases C) multiple myeloma D) lactose intolerance

D) lactose intolerance

P1 Flashcards

(202 cards)