P1 Final Flashcards
(433 cards)
1
Q
Repeating the key parts of a patient’s responses to your questions demonstrates: Select one:
A. sympathy.
B. active listening.
C. an exchange of information.
D. passive communication.
A
active listening.
2
Q
Additions or notations added to a completed patient care report by someone other than the original author: Select one:
A. are generally acceptable, provided the additions are made by a paramedic.
B. may raise questions about the confidentiality practices of the EMS agency.
C. are not legal and may result in criminal action against the original author.
D. must be initialed by the original author or the patient care report will be deemed null and void.
A
may raise questions about the confidentiality practices of the EMS agency.
3
Q
Components of a thorough patient refusal document include: Select one:
A. assurance by the paramedic that the patient’s ability to pay is of no concern.
B. notification of the patient’s physician to apprise him or her of the situation.
C. willingness of EMS to return to the scene if the patient changes his or her mind.
D. documentation of a complete assessment, even if the patient refused assessment.
A
willingness of EMS to return to the scene if the patient changes his or her mind.
4
Q
If your barrier devices fail or do not offer enough protection after being exposed to body fluids or other potentially toxic or infectious agents, you should complete a(n): Select one:
A. OSHA report.
B. police report.
C. occupational exposure report.
D. patient care report.
A
occupational exposure report.
5
Q
What should you include in your PCR to avoid allegations of abandonment? Select one:
A. Objective observations of the scene
B. Changes in the patient’s condition during transport
C. Who you handed the patient off to
D. Description of the treatments provided
A
Who you handed the patient off to
6
Q
When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, the paramedic must: Select one:
A. obtain a signed refusal from the patient as well as a witness signature.
B. ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.
C. contact medical control and request permission to obtain the refusal.
D. perform a detailed physical exam before allowing the patient to refuse.
A
ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.
7
Q
Which of the following is a significant benefit of electronic documentation? Select one:
A. The use of drop-down boxes, which minimizes the possibility for errors
B. The ease with which it can be applied during mass-casualty incidents
C. The elimination of the need to complete a narrative section
D. The ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities
A
The ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities
8
Q
Which of the following is a subjective finding? Select one:
A. Pale, cool, clammy skin
B. A complaint of chest pressure
C. Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg
D. Obvious respiratory distress
A
A complaint of chest pressure
9
Q
Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? Select one:
A. “The possible smell of ETOH was noted on the patient.”
B. “The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting.”
C. “The patient rates his pain as an 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.”
D. “The rapid head-to-toe exam revealed abrasions to the chest.”
A
“The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting.”
10
Q
A patient sitting in the Fowler position would be in which position? Select one:
A. Sitting with their head elevated
B. Lying flat on their back
C. Lying down with their legs elevated
D. Sitting with their chin to their chest
A
Sitting with their head elevated
11
Q
How should you position an unresponsive patient to help maintain a clear airway? Select one:
A. Sitting up with their head elevated
B. Lying on their left side with their head resting on their bottom arm
C. Lying flat on their back
D. Lying on their right side with their knees bent
A
Lying on their left side with their head resting on their bottom arm
12
Q
Medical control requests you to administer 50 micrograms of a drug. You should recognize that this is equivalent to: Select one:
A. 0.5 mg.
B. 500 mg.
C. 0.05 mg.
D. 0.005 mg.
A
0.05 mg.
13
Q
The combining form arthr/o is associated with which of the following specific body structures? Select one:
A. Joint
B. Ear
C. Abdomen
D. Adrenal glands
A
Joint
14
Q
The prefix home/o refers to something that is: Select one:
A. large.
B. different.
C. the same.
D. small.
A
the same.
15
Q
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midline is: Select one:
A. lateral.
B. midaxillary.
C. medial.
D. midclavicular.
A
medial.
16
Q
When reviewing your partners patient care report, they use the abbreviation stat. You understand that this abbreviation means: Select one:
A. immediately.
B. oxygen saturation.
C. maximum.
D. small-volume nebulizer.
A
immediately.
17
Q
Which directional term would you use to describe something that is closest to the point of attachment? Select one:
A. Medial
B. Distal
C. Proximal
D. Lateral
A
Proximal
18
Q
Which of the following could happen if you used medical terminology incorrectly? Select one:
A. You will appear more competent to the rest of the medical community.
B. The patient may be given an ineffective or harmful treatment.
C. The patient will better understand what you are communicating to them.
D. You certification or license will be revoked by the issuing organization.
A
The patient may be given an ineffective or harmful treatment.
19
Q
Which of the following is an example of a bilateral structure? Select one:
A. Spleen
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Gallbladder
A
Lungs
20
Q
Which plane describes slicing the body vertically, from ear to ear, dividing it into front and back portions? Select one:
A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Midsagittal
D. Coronal
A
Coronal
21
Q
Which word root represents the color blue? Select one:
A. Erythr
B. Albin
C. Cyan
D. Chlor
A
Cyan
22
Q
In urban settings, radio dead spots often occur in areas with: Select one:
A. a lot of trees.
B. tall buildings.
C. high cell phone use.
D. bodies of water.
A
tall buildings.
23
Q
Notification of EMS usually occurs when: Select one:
A. EMTs contact an emergency medical dispatcher.
B. a bystander notifies the dispatcher via telephone.
C. a sick or injured patient presents to your EMS station.
D. law enforcement requests assistance via two-way radio.
A
a bystander notifies the dispatcher via telephone.
24
Q
The purpose of a closed-ended question is to: Select one:
A. elicit a specific response from the patient.
B. allow the patient to describe what he or she is feeling.
C. obtain reliable information about a patient’s complaint. D. enable the paramedic to gauge the patients mentation.
A
elicit a specific response from the patient.
25
The use of ten-codes over the radio: Select one:
A. increases the likelihood of miscommunication during the radio transmission.
B. should be carried out whenever possible to ensure effective communication.
C. is prohibited by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) and should be avoided.
D. is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS).
is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS).
26
Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question? Select one:
A. "Can you describe the pain you are feeling?"
B. "How did you feel when you awoke today?"
C. "Can you tell me how this all started?"
D. "Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?"
"Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?"
27
A poorly written patient care report: Select one:
A. is unavoidable during a mass-casualty incident and is generally acceptable.
B. may raise questions by others as to the paramedic's quality of patient care.
C. generally results in a lawsuit, even if the patient outcome was favorable.
D. often indicates that the paramedic was too busy providing patient care.
may raise questions by others as to the paramedic's quality of patient care.
28
An accurate and legible patient care report: Select one:
A. provides immunity to the paramedic if the patient decides to pursue legal action against the paramedic.
B. should be complete to the point where anyone who reads it understands exactly what transpired on the call.
C. is not possible on every call, especially if there is more than one patient or the patient is critically ill or injured.
D. is a relatively reliable predictor of the quality of care that the paramedic provided to the patient during the call.
should be complete to the point where anyone who reads it understands exactly what transpired on the call.
29
HIPAA requires that: Select one:
A. a patient's personal information must be shared with the patient's immediate family members.
B. patient information shall not be shared with entities or persons not involved in the care of the patient.
C. patient information can only be shared with the receiving physician in the emergency department.
D. a penalty will be imposed for any release of any portion of a patient's personal information to any entity.
patient information shall not be shared with entities or persons not involved in the care of the patient.
30
When documenting a statement made by the patient or others at the scene, you should: Select one:
A. place the exact statement in quotation marks in the narrative.
B. translate the statement into appropriate medical terminology.
C. include the statement in an addendum to your run report.
D. document the exact time that the statement was made.
place the exact statement in quotation marks in the narrative.
31
A patient with blepharospasm has spasm of the: Select one:
A. hand.
B. urinary bladder.
C. eyelid.
D. neck muscles.
eyelid.
32
An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, creating top and bottom portions, is called the: Select one:
A. sagittal plane.
B. transverse plane.
C. midsagittal plane.
D. coronal plane.
transverse plane.
33
Cardiomegaly is a term used to describe: Select one:
A. surgical repair of the heart.
B. a weakened heart.
C. malposition of the heart.
D. an enlarged heart.
an enlarged heart.
34
Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: Select one:
A. exterior.
B. posterior.
C. anterior.
D. inferior.
posterior.
35
Movement of the distal point of an extremity toward the trunk is called: Select one:
A. pronation.
B. supination.
C. extension.
D. flexion.
flexion.
36
Relative to the wrist, the elbow is: Select one:
A. anterior.
B. distal.
C. posterior.
D. proximal.
proximal.
37
The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: Select one:
A. apex.
B. dorsum.
C. base.
D. volar.
apex.
38
What position is generally a position of comfort for patients who do not require spinal immobilization? Select one:
A. Lateral recumbent
B. Prone
C. Semi-Fowler
D. Supine
Semi-Fowler
39
Eupnea is a medical term that means: Select one:
A. slow breathing
B. normal breathing.
C. shallow breathing.
D. fast breathing.
normal breathing.
40
The term supraventricular refers to: Select one:
A. outside of the ventricles.
B. below the ventricles.
C. within the ventricles
D. above the ventricles.
above the ventricles.
41
Topographically, the term distal means: Select one:
A. farther from the trunk.
B. near the trunk.
C. toward the body's midline.
D. near a point of reference.
farther from the trunk.
42
Which of the following directional terms describes the front surface of the body? Select one:
A. Ventral
B. Superior
C. Dorsal
D. Inferior
Ventral
43
Which of the following terms describes a clinical finding on the same side of the body as an injury? Select one:
A. Ipsilateral
B. Bilateral
C. Contralateral
D. Unilateral
Ipsilateral
44
Under the instructions of an EMD, a layperson should be able to: Select one:
A. assess a patient's pupils.
B. obtain a blood pressure.
C. immobilize a person's spine.
D. perform chest compressions.
perform chest compressions.
45
What is the role of the sender in the communication loop? Select one:
A. Formulate the message.
B. Obtain information.
C. Decode the message.
D. Confirm receipt of the message.
Formulate the message.
46
When communicating medical information via radio, you should be: Select one:
A. as expeditious as possible.
B. thorough yet rapid.
C. comprehensive but brief.
D. simple, brief, and direct.
simple, brief, and direct.
47
When communicating with a patient whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, the paramedic should: Select one:
A. use his or her own culture as the sole reference.
B. know the specifics about the patient's culture.
C. agree with the patient's cultural differences.
D. treat the patient with the utmost respect at all times.
treat the patient with the utmost respect at all times.
48
When transmitting information via radio, you should: Select one:
A. break long messages into 60-second segments.
B. use a normal conversational tone of voice.
C. keep your mouth 1 inch from the microphone.
D. speak with your voice slightly elevated.
use a normal conversational tone of voice.
49
Which of the following receives a weak signal and retransmits it at a higher power on another frequency? Select one:
A. Repeater
B. Multiplex system
C. Base station
D. Duplex system
Repeater
50
Which type of communication system is the most powerful radio in the communications system? Select one:
A. Portable transceivers
B. Duplex
C. Simplex
D. Base station
Base station
51
A patient diagnosed with coagulopathy would be at risk for: Select one:
A. high blood glucose.
B. hypotension.
C. atrial fibrillation.
D. heavy or prolonged bleeding.
Heavy or prolonged bleeding
52
During an allergic reaction, mast cells release histamines and heparin. What respective roles do these chemicals play? Select one:
A. Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting
B. Reduce inflammation and facilitate blood clotting
C. Reduce tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting
D. Reduce inflammation and inhibit blood clotting
Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting.
53
How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures? Select one:
A. Constriction, which pulls blood to the skin's surface
B. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin
C. Dilation, which pulls blood to the skin's surface
D. Dilation, which diverts blood away from the skin
Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin.
54
If too much water enters a cell during osmosis, it will burst. This process is called: Select one:
A. crenation.
B. viscosity.
C. lysis.
D. diffusion
lysis.
55
Muscle relaxation is caused by decomposition of acetylcholine via the enzyme: Select one:
A. actin.
B. myoglobin.
C. myosin.
D. acetylcholinesterase.
acetylcholinesterase.
56
The first portion of the small intestine that receives food from the stomach is the: Select one:
A. jejunum.
B. ilium.
C. ileum.
D. duodenum.
duodenum.
57
The respiratory center of the brain is located in the: Select one:
A. medulla.
B. cerebellum.
C. hypothalamus.
D. cerebrum.
Medulla
58
When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of: Select one:
A. aerobic metabolism.
B. anaerobic metabolism.
C. anaerobic anabolism.
D. aerobic catabolism
Anaerobic metabolism
59
Which of the following statements regarding the thyroid cartilage is correct? Select one:
A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
B. It is the anterior part of the larynx.
C. It is not easily seen in most people.
D. It lies directly lateral to the larynx.
It is the anterior part of the larynx.
60
A medication that possesses a positive chronotropic effect is one that: Select one:
A. increases the conduction of electricity.
B. decreases cardiac contractility.
C. increases heart rate.
D. decreases heart rate.
increase heart rate.
61
What is the primary ion responsible for the negative charge of the resting membrane potential in most cells?
a. Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Chloride
d. Sodium
Potassium
62
The resting membrane potential of most cells is primarily maintained by which of the following mechanisms?
a. The opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
b. Passive diffusion of chloride ions
C. Active transport of sodium ions out and potassium ions in via the sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K* ATPase)
d. The influx of calcium ions
Active transport of sodium ions out and potassium ions in via the sodium-potassium pump
63
What effect does depolarization have on the membrane potential of a cell?
a. The membrane potential becomes zero
b. The membrane potential becomes more negative
c. The membrane potential becomes more positive
d. The membrane potential remains unchanged
The membrane potential becomes more positive
64
Which part of the nephron is responsible for the filtration of blood?
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Glomerulus
c. Loop of Henle
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
Glomerulus
65
Which structure of the nephron is primarily involved in the reabsorption of water, sodium, and nutrients?
a. Loop of Henle
b. Glomerulus
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
66
What is the primary function of the distal convoluted tubule in the nephron?
a. To produce urine
b. To reabsorb water and glucose
c. To filter blood
d. To secrete excess ions like potassium and hydrogen
To secrete excess ions like potassium and hydrogen
67
A person with type A positive blood could receive which of the following blood types? Select one:
A. A negative
B. B negative
C. A positive
D. AB negative
A positive
68
A pH of 7.30 indicates: Select one:
A. a neutral pH.
B. acidosis.
C. a basic pH.
D. alkalosis.
Acidosis
69
A protein of the immune system that recognizes foreign substances is called a(n): Select one:
A. allergen.
B. pathogen.
C. antibody.
D. antigen.
Antibody
70
A(n) ______ is a substance's that can absorber donate hydrogen ions. Select one:
A. buffer
B. base
C. ion
D. acid
A. Buffer
71
Afterload is defined as the: Select one:
A. amount of blood pumped from the heart per contraction.
B. volume of blood ejected from the heart per minute.
C. degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps.
D. volume of blood returned to the left and right atrium.
degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps.
72
Beginning with the outermost layer, the three meningeal layers of the central nervous system are the: Select one:
A. dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.
B. arachnoid, pia mater, and dura mater.
C. dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid.
D. pia mater, dura mater, and arachnoid.
dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.
73
Blood enters the right atrium of the heart from the: Select one:
A. vena cava and coronary sinus.
B. vena cava and aorta.
C. aorta and coronary sinus.
D. pulmonary vein and aorta.
vena cavae and coronary sinus.
74
Cardiac output is equal to: Select one:
A. blood pressure multiplied by heart rate.
B. systole minus diastole.
C. stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
D. heart rate minus systolic blood pressure.
stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
75
Insulin and glucagon are produced in specialized groups of cells in the pancreas known as the: Select one:
A. islets of Langerhans.
B. medullary cortex.
C. adrenal islets.
D. adrenal medulla.
islets of Langerhans.
76
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose following severe head trauma suggests: Select one:
A. damage to the nasal sinuses.
B. fracture of the cribriform plate.
C. fracture of the basilar skull.
D. damage to the auditory canal.
Fracture of the cribriform plate
77
The average total body water content of a healthy adult is approximately % of his or her body weight. Select one:
A. 50%
B. 80%
C. 60%
D. 70%
60%
78
The body's ability to spontaneously cease bleeding is called: Select one:
A. fibrinolysis.
B. thrombolysis.
C. hemostasis.
D. homeostasis.
hemostasis.
79
The epiglottis can be described as: Select one:
A. cartilage that closes the esophagus during breathing.
B. a flap that covers the trachea during swallowing.
C. cartilage that is inferior to the glottis and keeps the esophagus open.
D. a ligament that attaches the vocal cords to the glottic opening.
A flap that covers the trachea during swallowing
80
The hypoxic drive is stimulated when: Select one:
A. arterial PaCO2 levels decrease.
B. arterial Pa02 levels decrease.
C. arterial Pa02 levels increase.
D. arterial PaCO2 levels increase.
Arterial PaO2 levels decrease
81
The majority of the body's total body water is contained within the: Select one:
A. intracellular space.
B. intravascular fluid.
C. interstitial fluid.
D. extracellular space.
Intracellular space
82
The substance that contains all the cellular contents between the cell membrane and the nucleus is called the: Select one:
A. endoplasmic reticulum.
B. protoplasm.
C. cytoplasm.
D. Golgi apparatus.
cytoplasm.
83
What body system is composed of various glands located throughout the body? Select one:
A. Nervous system
B. Urinary system
C. Respiratory system
D. Endocrine system
Endocrine system
84
What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60 mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min? Select one:
A. 5.0 L
B. 2.1 L
C. 4.2 L
D. 5.4 L
5.4 L
85
A patient is found to have hyperglycemia. What is a cause of this? Select one:
A. Hyperactivity of the pancreatic beta cells
B. Decreased production of glucagon
C. Deficient insulin levels in the blood
D. Excessive insulin levels in the blood
Deficient insulin levels in the blood
86
A patient who experienced a face injury tells you that they have a salty taste in the mouth. You would suspect that a fracture of the bones that comprise the sinuses has caused which of the following to occur? Select one:
A. Profuse bleeding from the posterior nasal cavity
B. Increased production of saliva in the oral cavity
C. Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the posterior nasopharynx
D. Draining of mucus from the sinuses
Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the posterior nasopharynx
87
Any cell that ingests microorganisms or other cells is called an): Select one:
A. phagocyte.
B. exocyte.
C. endocyte.
D. pinocyte.
Phagocyte
88
Substances that release ions when dissolved in water are called: Select one:
A. exocytes.
B. electrolytes.
C. neutrons.
D. endocytes.
Electrolytes
89
The brain and spinal cord are connected through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one:
A. foramen magnum.
B. vertebral foramen.
C. mastoid process.
D. lamboid suture.
Foramen magnum
90
What type of tissue covers and lines internal organs? Select one:
A. Connective
B. Striated
C. Muscle
D. Epithelial
Epithelial
91
Which organ is susceptible to injury during rapid deceleration or compression and may be punctured if the overlying left lower ribs are fractured? Select one:
A. Spleen
B. Kidney
C. Gallbladder
D. Liver
Spleen
92
Cardiac muscle is: Select one:
A. striated and voluntary.
B. smooth and voluntary.
C. smooth and involuntary.
D. striated and involuntary.
Striated and involuntary
93
During an acidotic state, the kidneys attempt to maintain a normal pH by: Select one:
A. retaining hydrogen ions.
B. secreting hydrogen ions.
C. retaining bicarbonate.
D. excreting bicarbonate.
retaining bicarbonate.
94
Dysfunction of the mitral valve may cause backflow of blood into the: Select one:
A. right ventricle.
B. left atrium.
C. right atrium.
D. left ventricle.
Left atrium
95
Each femoral artery supplies blood to the: Select one:
A. foot.
B. brain.
C. thigh.
D. heart.
Thigh
96
Efferent nerves of the peripheral nervous system are responsible for: Select one:
A. involuntary functions such as breathing and heart rate.
B. carrying impulses from the body to the brain.
C. sensations such as pain, temperature, and pressure.
D. carrying commands from the brain to the muscles.
Carrying commands from the brain to the muscles
97
Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium through the: Select one:
A. inferior vena cava.
B. pulmonary veins.
C. pulmonary arteries.
D. superior vena cava.
Pulmonary veins
98
Glycogenolysis is the physiologic process in which: Select one:
A. the pancreas secretes glycogen.
B. glycogen is converted to glucose.
C. the kidneys produce additional glucose.
D. glucose is converted to glycogen.
glycogen is converted to glucose.
99
If too much water moves out of a cell, the cell shrinks abnormally. This process is called: Select one:
A. endocytosis.
B. pinocytosis.
C. lysis.
D. crenation.
Crenation
100
In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes: Select one:
A. vasoconstriction.
B. increased gastrointestinal function.
C. shunting of blood to the body's periphery.
D. slowing of the heart rate.
Vasoconstriction
101
1mg is equal to how many micrograms? Select one:
A. 1,000
B. 10
C. 100
D. 10,000
1000
102
A common cause of over-hydration is: Select one:
A. Hypertension
B. Kidney failure
C. Prolonged hyperventilation
D. Gastrointestinal drainage
Kidney failure
103
Compared with enterally administered medications, parenterally administered medications:
A) require the presence of a peripheral IV line.
B) must pass through the gastrointestinal tract to be effective.
C) are absorbed into the central circulation at a more predictable rate.
D) achieve their therapeutic effects much more slowly and are less predictable.
are absorbed into the central circulation at a more predictable rate.
104
Edema at the IV catheter site and continued IV flow after occlusion of the vein above the insertion site are signs of:
A) phlebitis.
B) infection.
C) infiltration.
D) thrombophlebitis.
infiltration.
105
If you discover that an IV is not flowing sufficiently, you should:
A) check the height of the IV bag.
B) reapply the constricting band.
C) discontinue the IV infusion.
D) pull back on the IV catheter
check the height of the IV bag.
106
IO infusion is a technique of administering IV fluids and medications into:
A) the IO space of a long bone.
B) the diaphysis of the femur or humerus.
C) the epiphysis of the proximal tibia.
D) a large vein that lies deep within the neck.
the IO space of a long bone.
107
Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution should not be given to patients with liver problems because:
A) LR is a hypertonic solution and cannot be metabolized by the liver.
B) the lactate contained within LR can cause necrosis of the liver tissue.
C) patients with liver disease commonly experience renal insufficiency.
D) the liver cannot metabolize the lactate in the solution.
the liver cannot metabolize the lactate in the solution.
108
To minimize the risk of an inadvertent arterial puncture, always:
A. check for a pulse.
B. evaluate the IV flow.
C. apply pressure to the area.
D. advance the cannula completely into the vein during insertion.
check for a pulse.
109
What is the onset of action for medications administered via a subcutaneous injection in a healthy person with adequate perfusion?
A. 30 to 60 seconds
B. 15 to 30 minutes
C. 10 to 20 minutes
D. 3 to 5 minutes
15 to 30 minutes
110
When administering a drug via the rectal route, approximately how many inches should you insert the suppository into the rectum?
A. 3 to 3.5 inches
B. 1 to 1.5 inches
C. 2 to 2.5 inches
D. 4 to 4.5 inches
1 to 1.5 inches
111
When choosing an IV site, you should locate the vein section that:
A. has the greatest flow rate.
B. crosses over a joint.
C. has track marks.
D. has the straightest appearance.
has the straightest appearance.
112
When discontinuing the IV line, what should you do first?
A. Gently peel the tape back towards the IV site
B. Stabilize the catheter as you loosen the remaining tape C. Remove the IV tubing from the hub of the catheter
D. Shut off the flow from the IV with the roller clamp
Shut off the flow from the IV with the roller clamp
113
When inserting the IV catheter, begin by establishing an insertion angle of about:
A. 35 to 45 degrees
B. 50 to 60 degrees
C. 20 to 30 degrees
D. 10 to 15 degrees
35 to 45 degrees
114
Which of the following fluids or substances is most likely to cause venous spasms?
A. Dopamine
B. An antiemetic
C. Phentolamine
D. Dextrose solution
Dextrose solution
115
Which of the following is a contraindication to IO infusion?
A. Hypertension
B. Renal failure
C. Osteoporosis
D. Heart failure
Osteoporosis
116
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hematoma?
A, Swelling and hardness at the insertion site
B. Increased blood flow
C. Warm and red skin around the site
D. Burning sensation at the infusion site
Swelling and hardness at the insertion site
117
Which of the following statements regarding dehydration is correct?
A) It is often a chronic condition in elderly patients and may take days to manifest.
B) During early dehydration, a profound loss of interstitial fluid occurs in the body.
C) In younger patients, dehydration is typically caused by an acute loss of more than 50 mL of blood.
D) During dehydration, fluid shifts from the extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment.
It is often a chronic condition in elderly patients and may take days to manifest.
118
Which route of medication administration refers to any route in which medication is absorbed through some portions of the gastrointestinal tract?
A. Enteral
B. Gastric tube
C. Oral
D. Rectal
Enteral
119
A healthy person loses approximately 2 to 2.5 liters of fluid daily. Which of the following is not a way fluid is excreted by the body?
A. Drinking water
B. Sweating
C. Urine Output
D. Exhalation
Drinking water
120
A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is:
A) hypotonic until it is introduced into the body.
B) capable of carrying oxygen when it is infused.
C) of minimal value in expanding the vascular space.
D) also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution.
also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution.
121
After observing a flash of blood in the IV catheter's flash chamber, you should:
A) remove the proximal constricting band and then slide the catheter off the needle and into the vein.
B) carefully raise the angle of the catheter to approximately 45deg and thread the catheter off of the needle.
C) apply pressure to the vein just proximal to the end of the indwelling catheter and remove the needle.
D) immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15deg and advance the catheter a few more centimeters.
immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15deg and advance the catheter a few more centimeters.
122
After starting an IV in an arm vein of a patient with chest pain and properly securing the catheter in place, you note that the IV is not flowing. You should:
A) gently manipulate the catheter and reassess the flow.
B) discontinue the IV and reestablish it in the other arm.
C) ensure that the constricting band has been removed.
D) use a pressure infuser device to improve the IV flow
ensure that the constricting band has been removed.
123
Damage to nerves, tendons, or ligaments would MOST likely occur during venipuncture if:
A) the patient has diabetes.
B) the patient moves suddenly.
C) the selected IV site is near a joint.
D) a small vein in the hand is cannulated.
the selected IV site is near a joint.
124
How much isotonic crystalloid solution should you administer to a patient who weighs 65 kg and who has signs and symptoms of internal bleeding?
A) Boluses of up to 1,625 mL each
B) 10 to 20mL/kg every 5 to 10 minutes
C) An amount adequate to maintain perfusion
D) Enough to increase blood pressure to a normal level
An amount adequate to maintain perfusion
125
If a 10-mL vial contains 1 mg of a drug, how many mg/mL are present?
A) 0.1
B) 0.01
C) 0.001
D) 0.0001
0.1
126
Medication routes, from slowest to fastest rates of absorption, are:
A) subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous.
B) intramuscular, sublingual, subcutaneous, intravenous, inhalation.
C) intravenous, inhalation, sublingual, subcutaneous, intramuscular.
D) subcutaneous, sublingual, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous.
subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous.
127
Once the pigtail is removed from the sterile access port of an IV solution, the solution must be used:
A) immediately.
B) within 24 hours.
C) within 36 hours.
D) within 48 hours.
immediately.
128
The IV route is the fastest route of medication administration because:
A) veins do not collapse during hypoperfusion.
B) it bypasses most barriers to drug absorption.
C) medications immediately enter the right atrium.
D) blood pressure expedites absorption of the drug.
it bypasses most barriers to drug absorption.
129
The site on a patient's forearm that has been cleaned with iodine and alcohol before starting an IV is said to be:
A) sterile.
B) autoclaved.
C) medically clean.
D) disinfected.
medically clean.
130
When administering a medication via small-volume nebulizer, how many millimeters of sterile saline should you add to the medication?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 6
D) 3
3
131
When infusing crystalloid solutions through an IO catheter in an unconscious adult, you should:
A) give 200 mL at a time.
B) use a pressure infuser device.
C) deliver the solution via syringe.
D) inject lidocaine prior to the infusion.
use a pressure infuser device.
132
When injecting a medication via the rectal route, you should:
A) instruct the patient not to bear down.
B) use a large uncuffed endotracheal tube.
C) ensure that the patient is fully conscious.
D) recall that the rectal mucosae are relatively avascular.
instruct the patient not to bear down.
133
When using a vial of medication, you must FIRST determine:
A) the needle gauge that you will need and the appropriate size syringe.
B) how much of the drug is needed and how many doses are in the vial.
C) if the medication has completely settled to the base of the container.
D) the appropriate amount of air that you will need to inject into the vial.
how much of the drug is needed and how many doses are in the vial.
134
"Track marks" along the course of a patient's vein are usually a sign of:
A) sclerosis caused by frequent cannulation.
B) numerous one-way valves inside the vein.
C) small vein rupture caused by hypertension.
D) multiple thromboses deep within the vein.
sclerosis caused by frequent cannulation.
135
1cc is equal to how many mL?
A. 1,000
B. 100
C. 10
D. 1
1
136
A microdrip administration set:
A) allows 10 or 15 drops per milliliter.
B) delivers 1 mL for every 60 drops.
C) should be used when patients need fluid replacement. D) does not contain a needlelike orifice in its drip chamber.
delivers 1 mL for every 60 drops.
137
Administering large amounts of an isotonic crystalloid solution to a patient with internal bleeding would MOST likely:
A) expand the vascular space and improve systemic perfusion.
B) cause acute hypotension as fluid is drawn from the vascular space.
C) change the ratio of hemoglobin and red blood cells.
D) increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis.
increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis.
138
After attaching the prepared IV line to the hub of the IV catheter and removing the constricting band, you should:
A) set the IV flow rate to keep the vein open (KVO).
B) open the IV line and observe for swelling or infiltration. C) apply a sterile gauze pad directly over the venipuncture site.
D) secure the catheter and tubing in place with a commercial device.
open the IV line and observe for swelling or infiltration.
139
After inserting an 18-gauge over-the-needle catheter into the hand vein of a 30-year-old woman and securing the IV line in place, you note edema at the catheter site despite continued flow of the IV. The woman complains of pain and tightness around the IV site. You should:
A) apply direct pressure to the venipuncture site and elevate her extremity.
B) reapply the proximal constricting band to reduce edema at the catheter site.
C) recognize that infiltration has occurred and immediately discontinue the IV.
D) discontinue the IV and circumferentially wrap a dressing around the extremity
recognize that infiltration has occurred and immediately discontinue the IV.
140
After inserting the needle during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, but before delivering the medication, you should:
A) ensure that you stretch the skin taut.
B) inquire about any medication allergies.
C) look in the barrel of the syringe for blood.
D) pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood.
pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood.
141
Although medications that are used for maintenance infusions are commonly premixed and prepackaged, you must still:
A) add 100 mL of sterile saline to dilute the premixed medication.
B) draw 20 mL of fluid from the premixed solution to use as a flush.
C) be aware of the concentration of the drug in the premixed solution.
D) use the drug within 36 hours after removing it from its foil covering.
be aware of the concentration of the drug in the premixed solution.
142
Arteriovenous AV fistulas are used for individual with which disorder?
A. Huntingdons Disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Congestive Heart Failure
D. Renal Failure
Renal Failure
143
As you are preparing to start an IV on a young man, he sees the needle becomes acutely diaphoretic, and passes out. After placing him in the appropriate position, you should.
A. Start the IV in case he needs fluids
B. Administer high flow oxygen
C. Access his blood glucose level
D. Obtain a complete set of vitals signs
Administer high flow oxygen
144
Colloid solutions:
A) contain proteins that are too large to pass out of the capillary membranes, so the solutions remain in the vascular compartment.
B) include solutions such as lactated Ringer's and normal saline and rapidly expand the intravascular compartment. C) are safe to use in the prehospital setting because they rapidly and effectively expand the intravascular compartment.
D) do not contain large molecules and are therefore ineffective in expanding the intravascular compartment.
contain proteins that are too large to pass out of the capillary membranes, so the solutions remain in the vascular compartment.
145
Common risks associated with cannulation of the external jugular vein include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) an air embolism.
B) carotid artery damage.
C) a rapidly expanding hematoma.
D) cannulation of the subclavian vein.
cannulation of the subclavian vein.
146
Drug reconstitution involves:
A) shaking a medication vial vigorously so that the drug is appropriately separated from its liquid base.
B) adding 3 mL to 5 mL of sterile saline to an already existing liquid medication to achieve the appropriate concentration.
C) injecting a certain volume of a medication into a 500-mL bag of normal saline to achieve the correct concentration.
D) injecting diluent or sterile water from one vial into the vial that contains the powdered form of the medication.
injecting diluent or sterile water from one vial into the vial that contains the powdered form of the medication.
147
During IV therapy, the presence of shortness of breath, unequal breath sounds, and cyanosis despite administration of high-flow oxygen should make you MOST suspicious for:
A) an air embolus.
B) circulatory overload.
C) acute pulmonary edema.
D) spontaneous pneumothorax.
an air embolus.
148
Failure to pinch the tubing proximal to the injection port when administering a drug via the IV bolus route will:
A) cause the medication to enter the patient's central circulation rapidly.
B) result in too much of the medication entering the patient's circulation.
C) cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient.
D) negate the need to follow the IV bolus with a 20-mL normal saline flush.
cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient.
149
Hypotonic solutions:
A) include normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution.
B) draw fluid from the cells and into the vascular space.
C) hydrate the cells while depleting the vascular compartment.
D) are the preferred solutions to use in patients with head trauma.
hydrate the cells while depleting the vascular compartment.
150
If a manually inserted IO needle is placed properly in an adult, it should:
A. Rest at a 90 degree angle to the bone
B. Be early movable in the bone
C. Not require a pressure infuser
D. Rest at a 45 degree angle to the bone
Rest at a 90 degree angle to the bone
151
1. Performing the functions of a paramedic prior to licensure is:
A. Unlawful
B. Permissible
C. Moral
D. Ethical
Unlawful
152
2. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) would be most appropriate after which of the following situations?
A. Treating a patient with a respiratory illness
B. Arriving at the scene of a minor car crash
C. Death of a 91-year old patient with lung cancer
D. Serious injury of a coworker in the line of duty
Serious injury of a coworker in the line of duty
153
3. Patterns of living that you develop in your youth:
A. Are difficult to modify in later life
B. Usually are caused by genetics
C. Cannot be modified later in life
D. Typically are outgrown later in life
Are difficult to modify in later life
154
4. The kind of stress that motivates an individual to achieve is called:
A. adapted stress
B. eustress
C. distress
D. displaced stress
eustress
155
5. What should you do when exposed to a patients blood or body fluids?
A. Continue caring for the patient
B. Do not report the incident unless the patient has a disease.
C. Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water
D. Get a medical evaluation within 1 month of exposure
Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water
156
6. When coming into contact with a patient who poses a potential risk of infection to you, what should you do when communicating with other health care providers?
A. Warn everyone in the area about the patients condition B. use discretion about what information to share
C. Give out sensitive patient history over the radio.
D. Share patient information with anyone who asks
use discretion about what information to share
157
7. When should the paramedic wear a HEPA respirator or N95 mask?
A. When caring for a patient with TB or another contagious respiratory illness
B. After touching blood or bodily fluids
C. During procedures when contact with blood and bodily fluids is anticipated
D. Before, after, and between patient contacts
When caring for a patient with TB or another contagious respiratory illness
158
8. Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?
A. Eustress is the leading cause of suicide among EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel
B. The human stress reaction is exclusive to physical demands that are placed on the body
C. The way one person reacts to stress may differ significantly from another persons reaction
D. By itself, any kind of stress has a negative effect on the human body and should be avoided
The way one person reacts to stress may differ significantly from another person’s reaction
159
9. A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic:
A. Is more likely to be sued for negligence
B. Can function independently of a physician
C. Carries out advanced pharmacologic skills
D. Is held to a higher professional standard
Carries out advanced pharmacologic skills
160
10. A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should:
A. Demand respect from other who are in the EMS profession
B. Obtain more than the required amount of continuing education
C. Meet societal expectations whether on or off duty
D. Maintain higher standards than other health care professionals
Meet societal expectations whether on or off duty
161
11. Emergency medical dispatchers could provide which of the following instructions to a caller?
A. How to administer prescribed antihypertensives
B. How to control life-threatening bleeding
C. How to obtain a blood pressure by palpation
D. How to properly use a bag-mask device
How to control life-threatening bleeding
162
12. What can an EMS provider do to minimize errors when handling and administering medications?
A. Ask a more experienced EMS provider to handle and administer medications
B. Place medications in packaging that is more easily accessible
C. Keep medications in a specific location and in their original packaging
D. Contact a pharmacy technician to confirm correct use prior to administering medications
Keep medications in a specific location and in their original packaging
163
13. What is the goal of continuous quality improvement (CQI)?
A. Improve the overall quality of delivered patient care
B. Conduct an in-depth review of the issue
C. Enhance protocols based on the current standards of care
D. Identify and remove paramedics who are not competent
Improve the overall quality of delivered patient care
164
14. A specific action intended to improved health and safety outcomes is called:
A. An intervention
B. A financial penalty
C. Education
D. An engineering control
An intervention
165
15. Compared to adults, children have:
A. Thinner skin
B. Larger muscle mass
C. A larger airway
D. A proportionately small head
Thinner skin
166
16. From an injury prevention standpoint, the term intervention is defined as:
A. Participating in a mortality/morbidity review following a series of major motor vehicle crashes
B. Specific prevention measures or activities designed to increase positive health and safety outcomes.
C. On-the-spot education of an injured person regarding how his or her injury could have been prevented
D. Any activity or measure that is performed following an injury and that is designed to decrease mortality
Specific prevention measures or activities designed to increase positive health and safety outcomes.
167
17. Which of the following is an example of a passive intervention?
A. Helping a family install a carbon monoxide monitor
B. Teaching parents how to properly install a car seat
C. Developing child-resistant medication bottles
D. Instructing a child to wear their helmet when riding their bike
Developing child-resistant medication bottles
168
18. Which of the following would you categorize as an unintentional injury?
A. Drowning
B. Drug overdose
C. Gunshot wound
D. Self-harm behavior
Drowning
169
19. You arrive at a home where a child ingested a handful of their parents antidepressant medications. What primary prevention measure might have helped to prevent this situation?
A. Locking the medicine cabinet
B. Taking the child to a psychologist
C. Teaching the child to ask their parents permission before taking medications
D. Providing community education on recognizing signs of a drug overdose
Locking the medicine cabinet
170
20. A patient who was involved in a serious car accident shares with you that they do not want a blood transfusion due to their religious beliefs. What should you say to the patient?
A. I'm sorry that you feel that way, but the blood transfusion is a necessary life saving treatmentâ€
B. Thank you for sharing. We will be sure to honor your requestâ€
C. if you do not allow a blood transfusion you will probably die
D. you will need the blood transfusion since you have lost a lot of blood in the accident
Thank you for sharing. We will be sure to honor your request
171
21. An advance directive is defined as a:
A. Notarized document that is executed by a terminally ill patients family when the patient develops cardiopulmonary arrest.
B. Legal document that describes which life-sustaining procedures are to be performed if the patients condition acutely deteriorates
C. General guideline provided to the paramedic by the medical director that stipulates the level of care provided to terminally ill patients
D. Written document that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to his or her future medical care
Written document that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to his or her future medical care
172
22. Every decision regarding patient care that a paramedic makes should be based on the:
A. possible legal ramifications involved
B. standards of good medical care
C. patients perception of the problem
D. Patients familys personal requests
standards of good medical care
173
23. If a paramedic is on duty and receives a 911 call in his or her jurisdiction:
A. he or she cannot be held liable if a fee is not charged to the patient
B. the good Samaritan law will provide limited immunity
C. he or she is not covered by the good Samaritan law
D. state law requires that he or she respond within 5 minutes.
he or she is not covered by the good Samaritan law
174
24. One of the major differences between laws and ethics is that laws;
A. reflect a persons moral responsibilities
B. have sanctions for violation that are enforceable
C. are usually broken because of an unethical act
D. allow a person to determine right from wrong
have sanctions for violation that are enforceable
175
25. Patients with decision-making capacity:
A. must agree to EMS transport if they give consent for emergency medical treatment
B. cannot refuse EMS treatment and transport after they have given consent for it.
C. have the right to refuse all or part of the emergency medical care offered to them
D. cannot withdraw consent unless their conditions are deemed to be non-life threatening
have the right to refuse all or part of the emergency medical care offered to them
176
26. Upon arriving on the scene of a car accident, you are informed that the individual who allegedly caused the accident fled the scene. Since the accident is a potential crime scene, what should you do with the debris near the accident?
A. put the debris in a pile so its more easily accessible for the law enforcement officials
B. clear the debris so that other motorists can safely pass C. push the debris to the side with a broom, but inform law enforcement of your action
D. leave everything where it is until law enforcement investigates
leave everything where it is until law enforcement investigates
177
27. What is the first step when obtaining informed consent from a patient?
A. describe the treatment you would like to administer
B. describe the suspected injury or illness to the patient
C. discuss alternative types of treatment that are available D. advise the patient regarding the potential consequences of refusing treatment
describe the suspected injury or illness to the patient
178
28. When transporting a patient to health care facility, you consider the patients insurance coverage when choosing the facility. This is known as:
A. due regard
B. due process
C. patient dumping
D. economic triage
economic triage
179
29. When transporting a patient who has had a stroke, the patients wife asks you to take the patient to a specific hospital because it has larger rooms. The hospital she requests is further away and you know that the patient needs care immediately. What should you do?
A. tell the patients wife that you need to take the patient to a closer hospital to ensure the best outcome
B. tell the patients wife that the patient will die if you take them to the requested hospital
C. ask your partner to convince the patients wife that the patient should go to the hospital that is closer
D. take the patient to the requested hospital and contact medical control after the call
tell the patient’s wife that you need to take the patient to a closer hospital to ensure the best outcome
180
30. Which aspect of HIPAA is most pertinent to the paramedic?
A. disclosing patient information to the media
B. ensuring that the patients privacy is protected
C. documenting a thorough patient assessment
D. recovering funds from insurance companies
ensuring that the patient’s privacy is protected
181
31. Which of the following would be a violation of HIPAA?
A. using the patients name when speaking to them
B. discussing patient information with your partner
C. sharing a patient report with the receiving physician
D. leaving patient information in a public area
leaving patient information in a public area
182
32. You arrive at the scene of a major vehicle crash. The 29 year old patient is in cardiac arrest from an apparent severe head injury and has been receiving bystander CPR for approximately 10 minutes. A law enforcement official advises you that the patients drivers license identifies him as an organ donor. You should:
A. recognize that none of the patients vital organs are appropriate for donation and ask the bystanders to stop CPR
B. continue to attempt resuscitation of the patient because his liver, kidneys, and heart are likely viable for harvesting C. begin full resuscitative efforts and transport the patient to a trauma center because certain tissues may be viable for harvesting.
D. continue basic life support only until law enforcement can notify a family member of the patient and obtain consent for organ donation
begin full resuscitative efforts and transport the patient to a trauma center because certain tissues may be viable for harvesting.
183
33. A 17- year old woman presents with acute abdominal pain while at a party with her husband. You arrive at the scene, assess the patient, and advise her of the need for EMS treatment and transport. However, the patient, who is conscious and alert, refuses EMS treatment and transport and states that her husband will transport her in his car. You should:
A. accept her refusal because the fact that she is married makes her emancipated
B. ensure that she has decision-making capacity and then obtain a signed refusal
C. begin treatment using implied consent, because she is under 18 years of age
D. advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport
advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport
184
34. A 39 year old man severe dehydration requires IV fluid therapy to treat his condition. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should:
A. ask him if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy
B. establish the IV based on the law of implied consent, because his condition has impaired his decision-making capacity
C. start the IV to quickly restore his body fluid balance and then explain to the patient why you started the IV line
D. tell the patient that you are going to start an IV on him in order to replenish his body with lost fluid and electrolytes
ask him if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy
185
35. A 40-year old man presents with bizarre behavior. His speech is slurred and he is very belligerent. His blood glucose level is 35 mg/dl. The patient tells you to get out of his house. You should:
A. monitor the patients condition for 15 minutes and then begin emergency treatment if he does not improve
B. utilize law enforcement to help restrain the patient so that you can start an IV line and give him dextrose
C. remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment
D. administer oxygen only until you obtain a court order to start an IV and administer dextrose
remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment
186
36. A 77- year old man with end-stage COPD and renal failure is found unresponsive by his daughter. Your assessment reveals that the patient is apneic and pulseless. The daughter presents you with an out-of-hospital DNR order; however, the document expired 3 months ago. You should:
A. begin CPR only and contact medical control for further guidance.
B. confirm that the order has expired before initiating any patient treatment.
C. begin full resuscitative efforts because the DNR order Is no longer valid.
D. realized that the patient cannot be resuscitated and notify the coroner
begin CPR only and contact medical control for further guidance.
187
37. A DNR order is defined as a:
A. legal document signed by at least four physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients
B. written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate
C. written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive at the end of his or her life
D. oral directive that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity
written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate
188
38. A paramedics actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she:
A. does not consult with online medical control first
B. only provides basic life support to a critical patient
C. willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care D. makes a simple mistake that causes harm to the patient
willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care
189
39. Abandonment occurs when:
A. an emergency nurse takes a verbal report from a paramedic
B. a patient is released and did not require further medical care
C. a patient refuses care and subsequently dies of his condition
D. care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent.
care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent.
190
40. Before asking a patient to sign a refusal form, the paramedic must;
A. ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal
B. tell the patient that he or she will die without treatment C. ask a police officer to determine if the patient is competent
D. Ask an impartial observer to sign the refusal form first
ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal
191
41. During the attempted resuscitation of a 79-year old man in cardiac arrest, a young man arrives at the scene and asks you to cease resuscitative efforts. He further tells you that the patient has entrusted him to make all of his medical decisions. You should.
A. continue full resuscitative efforts and ask the man if the patient has a living will and if he has documentation naming him as the person authorized to make decisions. B. cease all resuscitative efforts, contact medical control, and advise medical control that a surrogate decision maker is present and has requested you to stop
C. limit your resuscitative efforts to basic life support only and cease resuscitation altogether if the man can present a valid advance directive
D. advise the man that, because he does not have a valid documentation that he is authorized to make decisions for the patient, you must continue resuscitation
continue full resuscitative efforts and ask the man if the patient has a living will and if he has documentation naming him as the person authorized to make decisions.
192
42. If a patient has a potentially life-threatening illness or injury and there is any doubt as to his or her decision-making capacity, the paramedic should:
A. obtain consent from a family member to treat the patient
B. treat and transport, even if it is against the patients will C. have the patient arrested and placed in protective custody
D. obtain a court order and then begin emergency treatment
treat and transport, even if it is against the patient’s will
193
43. Implied consent is based on the premise that a patient:
A. would refuse any emergency medical care if he or she were unconscious
B. will die unless emergency medical treatment is provided immediately
C. would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury
D. is of legal age and is able to make rational decisions regarding his or her care
would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury
194
44. Informed consent involves:
A. ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure
B. carefully explaining the potential ramifications of refusing emergency medical treatment
C. explaining the rationale for an invasive procedure to a patient after you have already performed it
D. a patient verbally expressing his or her wishes for you to proceed with emergency medical treatment
ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure
195
45. The first rule of medical practice is to:
A. provide medical care
B. recognize critically ill patients
C. maintain a sympathetic attitude
D. do no harm
do no harm
196
46. When functioning at a crime scene, it is important for the paramedic to:
A. use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily
B. avoid performing patient care until cleared by the police C. collect and safeguard any and all evidence
D. carefully question witnesses as to what they saw
use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily
197
47. Which of the following patients is an emancipated minor?
A. 16-year-old woman who lives with her boyfriend
B. 17-year-old woman who has a child lives on her own, and is financially independent
C. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents
D. 17-year-old man who works more than 20 hours a week
17-year-old woman who has a child lives on her own, and is financially independent
198
48. While caring for an 80-year-old man with possible fractured arm, you discover other injury patterns that are suggestive of abuse. The patient is conscious and alert. You should:
A. treat the patients injury appropriately and then obtain his consent to report your suspicions to the emergency department physician
B. splint the patients arm, transport him to the hospital, and report your suspicions to the emergency department physician
C. splint the patients arm and contact his family to determine if they aware of the fact that he has been physically abused
D. advise the patient that you suspect he has been abused and that you are required by law to report this to the authorities
splint the patients arm, transport him to the hospital, and report your suspicions to the emergency department physician
199
49. You have been attempting resuscitation of a middle-aged woman for approximately 20 minutes; however, she has not responded to any of your treatment. There is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole. You should:
A. perform CPR only and try to contact her family
B. determine if she has an advance directive
C. consider terminating your resuscitative efforts
D. pronounce the patient dead and call the coroner
consider terminating your resuscitative efforts
200
50. The leading cause of death in the United States is:
A. cancer
B. heart disease
C. stroke
D. unintentional injury
heart disease
201
A 29-year-old woman is in active labor. During your visual exam, you see a limb protruding from her vagina. Upon noting this, it is MOST important to:
A) contact online medical control.
B) prepare for immediate transport.
C) position the patient on her side.
D) start an IV line of normal saline.
prepare for immediate transport.
202
A conscious patient's respiratory rate should be measured:
A) by auscultating the lungs.
B) by looking at the abdomen.
C) with his or her prior knowledge.
D) for a minimum of 30 seconds.
for a minimum of 30 seconds.
203
A key part of making your practice of prehospital care successful is for you to:
A) let the patient guide the questions that you ask in order to build a cohesive rapport on which you can build.
B) develop and cultivate your own style of assessment and an overall strategy for evaluating and providing care.
C) approach every patient in the same fashion with the realization that patient assessment in the field is a static process.
D) strictly adhere to your department's standard operating procedures so that they become a rote series of actions.
develop and cultivate your own style of assessment and an overall strategy for evaluating and providing care.
204
A multisystem trauma patient opens his eyes in response to pain, moans when you ask him his name, and withdraws from painful stimuli. From this information, you should:
A) conclude that he has a severe neurologic dysfunction
B) apply painful stimuli only to assess his motor response C) assess his Glasgow Coma Scale score as being 9
D) conclude that he requires immediate intubation
conclude that he has a severe neurologic dysfunction
205
A patient is generally considered to have orthostatic vital signs when:
A) the systolic BP increases and the diastolic BP decreases when going from a lying to a sitting position.
B) the heart rate increases by 20 beats/min or more when going from a supine to a standing position.
C) the respiratory rate becomes fast and the depth becomes shallow when he or she suddenly stands up.
D) he or she experiences chest pain and a rapid, irregular heart rate when going from a seated to a standing position.
the heart rate increases by 20 beats/min or more when going from a supine to a standing position.
206
A patient with a blood pressure of 210/100 mm Hg would be expected to have a pulse that is:
A) irregular. B) bounding. C) thready. D) rapid.
bounding.
207
Abdominal guarding is MOST commonly encountered in patients with:
A) acute renal failure.
B) peritoneal irritation.
C) intra-abdominal bleeding.
D) chronic liver inflammation.
peritoneal irritation.
208
You are about to assess a patient who complains of fever, chills, and coughing up blood. In addition to donning gloves and eye protection, you should:
A) place a tight-fitting mask on the patient.
B) wear a properly fitted HEPA or N-95 mask.
C) immediately notify the health department.
D) ask the patient if he or she is HIV-positive.
wear a properly fitted HEPA or N-95 mask.
209
You are in the BEST position to decide what, if any, care needs to be provided at the scene versus en route to the hospital once you:
A) can qualify that a patient is indeed sick.
B) determine how far away the hospital is.
C) perform a detailed secondary assessment.
D) are able to quantify how sick a patient is.
are able to quantify how sick a patient is.
210
You will MOST likely develop your field impression of a patient based on the:
A) medications the patient is taking.
B) chief complaint and patient history.
C) results of your secondary assessment.
D) patient's perception of his or her problem.
chief complaint and patient history.
211
A negative attitude about any patient or patient care situation:
A) constitutes negligence and carries legal ramifications with it.
B) is usually not sensed by the patient because he or she is frightened.
C) is often observed in paramedics with many years of experience.
D) almost guarantees that the care you provide will be suboptimal.
almost guarantees that the care you provide will be suboptimal.
212
Given the number of possible diagnoses in any situation and the limited physical and technical resources of the field, you will MOST likely:
A) regularly be treating patients who can only be diagnosed at the hospital.
B) have difficulty providing supportive care secondary to medical ambiguity.
C) regularly be able to formulate a definitive diagnosis of the patient's current condition.
D) not be able to stabilize the patient's condition adequately in the field setting.
regularly be treating patients who can only be diagnosed at the hospital.
213
If a patient's clinical presentation is not addressed in a specific algorithm, the paramedic must:
A) focus exclusively on the patient's ABCs.
B) determine what is in the patient's best interest.
C) perform a comprehensive head-to-toe exam.
D) provide supportive care and transport promptly.
determine what is in the patient's best interest.
214
Knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology is MOST important during the ________________ stage of critical thinking.
A) data interpretation
B) concept formation
C) reflection in action
D) application of principle
data interpretation
215
No matter how sure he or she is of the working diagnosis, the thinking paramedic must:
A) confer with online medical control to confirm his or her diagnosis.
B) always keep part of the thought process open to other possibilities.
C) implement a treatment plan based solely on the working diagnosis.
D) remain confident that his or her working diagnosis is an accurate one.
always keep part of the thought process open to other possibilities.
216
Synthesizing information about a patient with multiple medical conditions involves:
A) determining the validity of each of the patient's medical problems.
B) ruling out each condition as the cause of the patient's chief complaint.
C) determining the patient's perception of his or her multiple conditions.
D) assessing each condition's potential for having a life-threatening impact.
assessing each condition's potential for having a life-threatening impact.
217
When a patient advises you of his or her chief complaint, you should:
A) quickly perform a head-to-toe exam to identify immediate life threats.
B) carefully evaluate all of the medications the patient is taking.
C) obtain a 12-lead ECG to rule out a cardiac-related cause of the problem.
D) ascertain whether this is a new problem or worsening of a preexisting condition.
ascertain whether this is a new problem or worsening of a preexisting condition.
218
_________ occurs after a call is over and commonly is associated with the run review or critique.
A) Reflection in action
B) Reflection on action
C) Data interpretation
D) Application of principle
Reflection on action
219
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts reflection in action?
A) Noting a patient's heart rate before you administer any medication
B) Obtaining a room air pulse oximetry reading before applying oxygen
C) Reassessing a patient's blood pressure after administering nitroglycerin
D) Administering aspirin and then immediately applying a cardiac monitor
Reassessing a patient's blood pressure after administering nitroglycerin
220
Which of the following would have the LEAST impact on the care you provide to a patient who fell?
A) The height of the fall
B) How the patient landed
C) Object from which the patient fell
D) On what the patient landed
Object from which the patient fell
221
A medication is called an antagonist if:
A) it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
B) it stimulates a receptor site to cause the response that that receptor normally causes.
C) it attaches to a receptor site and produces an effect or series of effects.
D) the chemical mediator of a receptor has a higher affinity than the medication.
it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
222
A paramedic gives a woman with chronic pain an injection of sterile saline and tells her that it is a narcotic analgesic. The paramedic's action:
A) could result in criminal prosecution.
B) will likely be of therapeutic benefit.
C) is acceptable under the circumstances.
D) demonstrates compassion and empathy.
could result in criminal prosecution.
223
Beta blockers should be used with extreme caution in patients with reactive airway because:
A) beta-1 receptor antagonism will result in profound bronchoconstriction.
B) beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm.
C) there are no beta-blockers that selectively target beta-1 receptors only.
D) they inhibit catecholamine release, potentially causing bronchoconstriction.
beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm.
224
Catecholamines and sympathomimetic medications should be administered with caution because they:
A) can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
B) have an average duration of action of between 24 and 48 hours.
C) are associated with paradoxical bradycardia in younger patients.
D) have a tendency to cause a significant decrease in cardiac output.
can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
225
First-pass metabolism of a medication occurs when:
A) a medication's effects are greatly enhanced by digestive enzymes in the stomach.
B) a medication's bioavailability is immediately reduced when it enters the bloodstream.
C) the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.
D) the liver increases a medication's effects before it reaches the systemic circulation.
the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.
226
In contrast to epinephrine, norepinephrine:
A) specifically targets beta-1 receptors.
B) has minimal effect on blood pressure.
C) primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
D) stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
227
Patients who take alpha-blocking medications at home are frequently prone to:
A) postural hypotension.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) narrow-angle glaucoma.
D) vagal-induced bradycardia.
postural hypotension.
228
Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in:
A) insulin secretion.
B) vasoconstriction.
C) arterial dilation.
D) glucagon secretion.
vasoconstriction.
229
The generic name of a medication:
A) does not require FDA approval.
B) is proposed by the manufacturer.
C) is proprietary and cannot be reproduced.
D) contains a string of letters and numbers.
is proposed by the manufacturer.
230
The paramedic should suspect altered medication metabolism in a patient with:
A) hypertension.
B) acute pancreatitis.
C) chronic alcoholism.
D) chronic renal failure.
chronic alcoholism.
231
The physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a medication in order to maintain a certain level of “normal†function is called:
A) withdrawal.
B) synergism.
C) dependence.
D) habituation.
dependence.
232
The preferred IV fluid for Y-site tubing administration during a blood product transfusion is:
A) normal saline.
B) 5% dextrose in water.
C) lactated Ringer's.
D) 0.45% sodium chloride.
normal saline.
233
The rectal route is preferred over the oral route for certain emergency medications because:
A) rectal medications are altered significantly by first-pass metabolism.
B) bioavailability of rectal medications does not exceed 50 percent.
C) the vasculature of the rectal mucosa allows for slow drug absorption.
D) rectal medications are usually not subject to first-pass metabolism.
rectal medications are usually not subject to first-pass metabolism.
234
The vagus nerve releases _________________, which acts on _________________ receptors.
A) acetylcholine, muscarinic-2
B) norepinephrine, alpha-1
C) epinephrine, beta-2
D) acetylcholinesterase, nicotinic
acetylcholine, muscarinic-2
235
What is the mechanism of action of anticoagulant medications?
A) They dissolve existing clots, thereby restoring distal blood flow.
B) They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots.
C) They inhibit platelet aggregation during acute coronary syndrome.
D) They promote hemostasis in patients with pulmonary emboli.
They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots.
236
What type of medication is used to eliminate certain toxins from the body?
A) Inotrope
B) Diuretic
C) Vasopressor
D) Vasodilator
Diuretic
237
When is aspirin indicated for the treatment of a stroke?
A) Within the first 15 minutes after the onset of symptoms B) Only after an intracranial hemorrhage has been ruled out
C) Only if the patient is prescribed antiplatelet medications D) Immediately upon arrival at the emergency department
Only after an intracranial hemorrhage has been ruled out
238
Which of the following are common sites for emergency IO cannulation?
A) proximal humerus.
B) iliac crest.
C) proximal tibia.
D) manubrium.
proximal humerus.
239
Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to affect a patient's response to a medication?
A) Body temperature
B) Pregnancy
C) Past medical history
D) Age and weight
Past medical history
240
Which of the following is a Toxic effect from beta blockers?
A) hypotension.
B) bradycardia.
C) conduction delays.
D) tachycardia.
bradycardia.
241
Which of the following is an example of a Schedule II substance?
A) Ritalin.
B) fentanyl.
C) cocaine.
D) heroin.
fentanyl.
242
Which of the following medications actually dissolves a clot?
A) Plavix
B) Aggrastat
C) Warfarin
D) Activase
Activase
243
Medications commonly administered via a nebulizer include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) albuterol.
B) lidocaine.
C) Xopenex.
D) Racemic epinephrine.
lidocaine.
244
Which of the following statements regarding pharmacology is correct?
A) The selection and administration of most medications are based largely on anecdotal research.
B) The action of the human body in response to a particular medication is called pharmacology.
C) Evidence-based guidelines, while helpful, are not the primary factor that drives medication administration.
D) Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace.
Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace.
245
Which of the following statements regarding the endotracheal route of medication administration is correct?
A) If a medication must be given via the endotracheal route, five times the standard IV dose should be given.
B) Evidence has shown that medications given via the endotracheal route quickly achieve a peak plasma level.
C) Medications given via the endotracheal route should be flushed with 20 to 30 mL of sterile water.
D) The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration.
The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration.
246
The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as:
A) potency.
B) efficacy.
C) affinity.
D) the threshold level.
efficacy.
247
Unlike Schedule I drugs, Schedule II drugs have:
A) accepted medical uses.
B) a higher abuse potential.
C) limited dependence potential.
D) no accepted medical application.
accepted medical uses.
248
When a medication alters the velocity of the conduction of electricity through the heart, it is said to have a(n) _____________ effect.
A) inotropic
B) dromotropic
C) chronotropic
D) alpha agonistic
dromotropic
249
A medication container is damaged in the field. How should you dispose of partially used or damaged medication containers?
A) Store it in a locked storage cabinet.
B) Put it in the regular trash can.
C) Keep the medication out of the sun to ensure the safety and integrity of the medication.
D) Return the damaged container to the department responsible for dispensing the medication.
Return the damaged container to the department responsible for dispensing the medication.
250
An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
A) side effect.
B) idiosyncrasy.
C) placebo effect.
D) adverse effect.
adverse effect.
251
Increased myocardial contractility secondary to stretching of the myocardial walls is called the: Select one:
A. Ernest-Henry effect.
B. Smith-Beck mechanism.
C. Beck-Cushing reflex.
D. Frank-Starling mechanism.
Frank-Starling mechanism.
252
Molecules that bind to a receptor's cells and trigger a response by that cell, thereby resulting in some kind of action or biologic effect, are called: Select one:
A. steroids.
B. hormones.
C. agonists.
D. proteins.
agonists.
253
Normal inhalation is the result of: Select one:
A. positive pressure in the thoracic cavity.
B. diaphragmatic relaxation.
C. air passively entering the lungs.
D. negative pressure in the thoracic cavity.
negative pressure in the thoracic cavity.
254
Osmosis is the movement of a: Select one:
A. solvent from an area of high solute concentration to one of low concentration.
B. solute from an area of low solvent concentration to one of high concentration.
C. solute from an area of high solvent concentration to one of low concentration.
D. solvent from an area of low solute concentration to one of high concentration.
solvent from an area of low solute concentration to one of high concentration.
255
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar capillary membrane through a process called: Select one:
A. diffusion.
B. perfusion.
C. metabolism.
D. osmosis.
diffusion.
256
Phagocytosis is the process by which: Select one:
A. phagocytes are destroyed.
B. microbes destroy monocytes.
C. monocytes digest microbes.
D. phagocytes are produced.
monocytes digest microbes.
257
Severe injuries to the liver are life threatening because it is: Select one:
A. avascular and relatively small.
B. highly vascular and very fragile.
C. poorly protected by the rib cage.
D. normally enlarged in most people.
highly vascular and very fragile.
258
Small units of an element that vary in size and weight are called: Select one:
A. isotopes.
B. molecules.
C. atoms.
D. electrons.
atoms.
259
Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in: Select one:
A. vasoconstriction.
B. bronchodilation.
C. tachycardia.
D. vasodilation.
vasoconstriction.
260
The atrioventricular valves of the heart include the: Select one:
A. tricuspid and mitral valves.
B. mitral and aortic valves.
C. bicuspid and aortic valves.
D. tricuspid and pulmonic valves.
tricuspid and mitral valves.
261
The basic structure of nervous tissue that responds to environmental changes by transmitting impulses is the: Select one:
A. neuroglia.
B. neuron.
C. dendrite.
D. axon.
neuron.
262
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means that it: Select one:
A. allows only certain substances to pass through it.
B. will allow any substance to readily pass through it.
C. only allows potassium and calcium to pass through it.
D. only allows sodium and chloride to pass through it.
allows only certain substances to pass through it.
263
The first and second cervical vertebrae are called the: Select one:
A. odontoid and axis.
B. axis and dens.
C. atlas and axis.
D. dens and atlas
atlas and axis.
264
The formation of glucose in the liver is called: Select one:
A. gluconeogenesis.
B. glycogenolysis.
C. glycolysis.
D. glucagon synthesis.
gluconeogenesis.
265
The gap that lies between each nerve cell is called the: Select one:
A. vesicle.
B. cleft.
C. synapse.
D. terminal.
synapse.
266
The growth plate of a bone is also called the: Select one:
A. cribriform plate.
B. metaphyseal plate.
C. diaphyseal plate.
D. epiphyseal plate.
epiphyseal plate.
267
The heart muscle lies within a space in the thoracic cavity called the Select one:
A. hemithorax.
B. endocardium.
C. pericardium.
D. mediastinum.
mediastinum.
268
The heart's primary pacemaker, which is located in the right atrium, is the: Select one:
A. AV node.
B. bundle of His.
C. AV junction.
D. SA node.
SA node.
269
The integumentary system includes which of the following structures? Select one:
A. Lymph nodes
B. Epidermis
C. Adrenal glands
D. Blood vessels
Epidermis
270
The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the: Select one:
A. pulmonary pleura.
B. parietal pleura.
C. visceral pleura.
D. thoracic pleura.
parietal pleura.
271
The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient that requires energy is called: Select one:
A. active transport.
B. endocytosis.
C. facilitated diffusion.
D. osmotic pressure.
active transport.
272
The movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: Select one:
A. diffusion.
B. endocytosis.
C. exocytosis.
D. osmosis.
diffusion.
273
The myocardium generates its own electrical impulses through a process called: Select one:
A. excitability.
B. conductivity.
C. automaticity.
D. dromotropy.
automaticity.
274
The peripheral nervous system consists of the: Select one:
A. somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
B. autonomic nervous system only.
C. brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves.
D. somatic nervous system only.
somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
275
The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one:
A. respiration.
B. tidal volume.
C. ventilation.
D. oxygenation.
ventilation.
276
The pulmonary circulation is responsible for: Select one:
A. filtering the blood of toxic chemicals.
B. sending deoxygenated blood to the atria.
C. perfusing the vital organs of the body.
D. ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated.
ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated.
277
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the: Seleot ane:
A. somatic nervous system.
B. voluntary nervous system.
C. autonomic nervous system.
D. adrenal nervous system.
autonomic nervous system.
278
The term perfusion is defined as: Select one:
A. effective exchange of 02 and COz in the lungs.
B. sufficient removal of waste products from the body.
C. the production of waste products from metabolism.
D. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
279
The three small bones in the middle ear are the: Select one:
A. stapes, anvil, and malleolus.
B. incus, malleus, and stapes.
C. malleus, anvil, and incus.
D. malleus, stapes, and foramina.
incus, malleus, and stapes.
280
Ventricular muscle contraction and the pumping of blood throughout the body occur during: Select one:
A. the cardiac cycle.
B. asystole.
C. systole.
D. diastole.
systole.
281
What is the function of a baroreceptor? Select one:
A. Sensing the arterial level of carbon dioxide
B. Sensing changes in arterial oxygen levels
C. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure
D. Monitoring the pH of cerebrospinal fluid
Monitoring changes in arterial pressure
282
What physiologic reaction occurs when a person's blood sugar level falls? Select one:
A. More glycogen is stored in the liver.
B. The pancreatic beta cells become hyperactive.
C. The pancreas secretes more insulin.
D. Glucagon production is increased.
Glucagon production is increased.
283
Which of the following conditions would cause a left shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? Select one:
A. Decreased pH
B. Increased pH
C. Acidosis
D. Increased CO2
Increased pH
284
Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system? Select one:
A. Decreasing gastrointestinal motility
B. Increasing the heart rate
C. Increasing blood glucose concentration
D. Increasing blood pressure
Decreasing gastrointestinal motility
285
Which of the following is a function of the skin? Select one:
A. Temperature Regulation
B. Production of antibodies to foreign organisms
C. Maintenance of calcium levels
D. Blood cell production
Temperature Regulation
286
Which of the following is an example of a voluntary muscle? Select one:
A. Nonstriated
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. Skeletal
Skeletal
287
Which of the following is part of the pelvis? Select one:
A. Femur
B. Iliac crest
C. Trochanter
D. Sacrum
Iliac crest
288
Which of the following statements regarding type O blood is correct? Select one:
A. It contains type A surface antigens.
B. It contains no surface antigens.
C. It contains type B surface antigens.
D. It contains both type A and B surface antigens.
It contains no surface antigens.
289
Which of the following vessels or structures is part of the pulmonary circulation? Select one:
A. Epicardium
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Endocardium
D. Descending aorta
Pulmonary artery
290
Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis? Select one:
A. Sacral
B. Lumbar
C. Coccyx
D. Thoracic
Sacral
291
With regard to the heart, ejection fraction is defined as the: Select one:
A. volume of blood ejected from both atria per contraction.
B. percentage of blood ejected from the heart per contraction.
C. percentage of blood returned to the heart per contraction.
D. volume of blood that enters the lungs per contraction.
percentage of blood ejected from the heart per contraction.
292
Approximately 97% of the oxygen that diffuses out of the alveoli: Select one:
A. is exhaled from the body.
B. is dissolved in plasma.
C. binds to hemoglobin.
D. binds to bicarbonate.
binds to hemoglobin.
293
The upper section of the sternum is called the: Select one:
A. manubrium.
B. jugular notch.
C. angle of Louis.
D. xiphoid process.
manubrium.
294
The most important nerve of the cervical plexus, which innervates the diaphragm, is the: Select one:
A. trochlear nerve.
B. phrenic nerve.
C. abducens nerve.
D. vagus nerve.
phrenic nerve.
295
What is the effect of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? Select one:
A. It stimulates release of growth hormone.
B. It stimulates release of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
C. It stimulates release of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
D. It inhibits release of prolactin.
It stimulates release of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
296
Which of the following organs/structures lies) in the retroperitoneal space of the abdomen? Select one:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Kidneys
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Kidneys
297
Which of the following structures comprise different types of tissues that work together to perform a particular function? Select one:
A. Organisms
B. Organs
C. Body systems
D. Cells
Organs
298
The olfactory nerve (CN I) is responsible for: Select one:
A. smell.
B. hearing.
C. sight.
D. vision.
smell.
299
The ongoing process by which red blood cells are made is called: Select one:
A. phagocytosis.
B. diapedesis.
C. erythropoiesis.
D. hematopoiesis.
erythropoiesis.
300
The primary respiratory stimulus in a healthy adult is an): Select one:
A. decreased arterial oxygen level.
B. decreased venous level of carbon dioxide.
C. increased arterial carbon dioxide level.
D. increased pH level of the venous blood.
increased arterial carbon dioxide level.
301
The process in which malignant cells travel to other organs or tissue and establish secondary tumors is called: Select one:
A. hemostasis.
B. dysplasia.
C. metastasis.
D. cancer in situ.
metastasis.
302
The right and left coronary arteries arise from the: Select one:
A. ascending aorta.
B. abdominal aorta.
C. descending aorta.
D. aortic arch.
ascending aorta.
303
The separation of the intracellular and extracellular areas by a selectively permeable membrane helps to maintain: Select one:
A. exocytosis.
B. homeostasis.
C. hemostasis.
D. endocytosis.
homeostasis.
304
A medication that possesses a positive chronotropic effect is one that: Select one:
A. decreases heart rate.
B. increases the conduction of electricity.
C. increases heart rate.
D. decreases cardiac contractility.
increases heart rate.
305
A(n) - is a substance that can absorb or donate hydrogen ions. Select one:
A. ion
B. buffer
C. base
D. acid
buffer
306
Decreases in the PaCO2 result in increased pH levels in the: Select one:
A. reproductive system.
B. circulatory system.
C. digestive system.
D. respiratory center.
respiratory center.
307
During depolarization, which ion typically enters the cell to cause the membrane potential to become more positive?
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium
Sodium
308
When activated, fibrinogen is converted to: Select one:
A. thrombin.
B. plasmin.
C. thromboplastin.
D. fibrin.
fibrin.
309
Which of the following is a type of white blood cell? Select one:
A. Eosinophil
B. Platelet
C. Histamine
D. Fibrin
Eosinophil
310
Which of the following are typically found in the muscle cells and provide cell movement and contraction via interaction with actin and myosin? Select one:
A. Peroxisomes
B. Microfilaments
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria
Microfilaments
311
What is the primary function of the nephron in the kidneys?
a. To store urine before excretion
b. To filter blood and form urine
c. To produce hormones for regulating metabolism
d. To produce red blood cells
To filter blood and form urine
312
In which part of the nephron does the majority of water reabsorption occur?
a. Collecting duct
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Glomerulus
d. Loop of Henle
Loop of Henle
313
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: Select one:
A. remains in the lungs following maximum exhalation.
B. is moved in and out of the lungs with maximal expiration.
C. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. D. is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
314
Cellular respiration and energy production →
Mitochondria
315
DNA/genetic information →
Nucleus
316
Protein Synthesis →
Ribosome
317
lipid synthesis →
Smooth/Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
318
selective barrier controlling the movement of substances in and out of the cell →
Cell Membrane
319
Process and Packaging →
Golgi Apparatus
320
Which of the following is the primary molecule that is broken down during cellular respiration to produce ATP?
a. Water
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Glucose
d. Oxygen
Glucose
321
Which of the following processes produces the most ATP during aerobic cellular respiration?
a. Citric acid cycle (Krebs * cycle)
b. Oxidative phosphorylation (Electron Transport Chain)
c. Glycolysis
d. Photosynthesis
Oxidative phosphorylation (Electron Transport Chain)
322
Which of the following is a byproduct of cellular respiration?
a. ATP
b. Glucose
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide
323
SA node-
initiates the electrical impulse that triggers a heartbeat
324
AV node -
delays the electrical signal to allow for ventricular filling
325
Bundle of his-
initiates the electrical impulse that triggers the heart beat
326
Sodium →
depolarization of the ventricular myocyte
327
Calcium →
maintain the plateau phase and contribute to muscle contraction
328
Potassium →
repolarization of the ventricular myocyte
329
When administering dextrose to children younger than 8 years, the dextrose concentration should be less than:
A) 10%.
B) 12.5%.
C) 15%.
D) 25%.
0.25
330
You should check a glucometer reading before administering oral glucose and then repeat the reading at least how many minutes after administration?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 30 minutes
10 minutes
331
What is the mechanism of action of sodium bicarbonate?
A) It binds with cholinergic receptors.
B) It increases blood and urinary pH.
C) It inhibits the activation of plasminogen.
D) It hinders the breakdown of fibrin.
It increases blood and urinary pH.
332
A young woman experienced massive facial trauma after being ejected from her car when it struck a tree. She is semiconscious, has blood draining from her mouth, and has poor respiratory effort. The MOST appropriate initial airway management for this patient involves:
A) vigorously suctioning her oropharynx for no longer than 15 seconds and then inserting a multilumen airway device.
B) alternating suctioning her oropharynx for 15 seconds and assisting her ventilations for 2 minutes until you can definitively secure her airway.
C) suctioning her oropharynx and performing direct laryngoscopy to assess the amount of upper airway damage or swelling that is present.
D) providing positive-pressure ventilatory support with a bag-mask device and making preparations to perform an open cricothyrotomy.
alternating suctioning her oropharynx for 15 seconds and assisting her ventilations for 2 minutes until you can definitively secure her airway.
333
Which of the following statements regarding field extubation is correct?
A) It is generally better to sedate the patient rather than extubate.
B) The patient should be extubated if spontaneous breathing occurs.
C) The risk of laryngospasm following extubation is relatively low.
D) Extubation should be performed with the patient in a supine position.
It is generally better to sedate the patient rather than extubate.
334
Which of the following medications is a dissociative anesthetic that produces anesthesia through hallucinogenic, amnesic, analgesic, and sedative effects? Select one:
A. Fentanyl
B. Versed
C. Ketamine
D. Diazepam
Ketamine
335
Which of the following is a step that is performed during nasotracheal intubation?
A) Advancing the ET tube as the patient inhales
B) Preoxygenating with a bag-mask as necessary
C) Ensuring that the patient's head is hyperflexed
D) Placing the patient's head in a neutral position
Preoxygenating with a bag-mask as necessary
336
Which of the following is a nondepolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agent?
A. Midazolam
B. Succinylcholine chloride
C. Vecuronium bromide
D. Atropine sulfate
Vecuronium bromide
337
Which of the following conditions would most likely cause laryngeal spasm and edema?
A) Croup
B) Inhalation injury
C) Viral pharyngitis
D) Mild asthma attack
Inhalation injury
338
Which of the following abnormal respiratory patterns generally do NOT suggest brain injury or cerebral anoxia?
A) Biot respirations
B) Agonal respirations
C) Kussmaul respirations
D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Agonal respirations
339
When suctioning a patient's stoma, you should:
A) insert the catheter until resistance is felt.
B) ask the patient to inhale as you are suctioning.
C) insert the catheter no more than 15 cm.
D) provide suction for no longer than 20 seconds.
insert the catheter until resistance is felt.
340
When performing an open cricothyrotomy, you should FIRST:
A) maintain aseptic technique as you cleanse the area with iodine.
B) slide your index finger between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.
C) palpate for the V notch of the thyroid cartilage and stabilize the larynx.
D) hyperextend the patient's neck and then palpate the cricoid cartilage.
palpate for the V notch of the thyroid cartilage and stabilize the larynx.
341
When obtaining a peak expiratory flow rate for a patient with acute bronchospasm, you should:
A) ask the patient to fully exhale before blowing into the mouthpiece.
B) perform the test three times and take the best rate of the three readings.
C) administer one bronchodilator treatment before obtaining the first reading.
D) ensure that the patient is in a supine position to obtain an accurate reading.
perform the test three times and take the best rate of the three readings.
342
When administering CPAP therapy to a patient, it is important to remember that:
A) acute symptomatic bradycardia has been directly linked to CPAP therapy.
B) SpO2 of 100% must be achieved as quickly as possible. C) the increased intrathoracic pressure caused by CPAP can result in hypotension.
D) the head straps must be secured immediately in order to achieve an adequate seal.
the increased intrathoracic pressure caused by CPAP can result in hypotension.
343
When a patient's respirations are too rapid and too shallow:
A) the majority of inhaled air lingers in areas of physiologic dead space.
B) inhaled air may only reach the anatomic dead space before being exhaled.
C) the increase in tidal volume will compensate for a rapid respiratory rate.
D) minute volume increases because a larger amount of air reaches the lungs.
inhaled air may only reach the anatomic dead space before being exhaled.
344
The use of capnography in patients with prolonged cardiac arrest may be limited because:
A) of an excess buildup of nitrogen in the blood.
B) the paramedic often ventilates the patient too slowly.
C) of acidosis and minimal carbon dioxide elimination.
D) metabolic alkalosis damages the colorimetric paper.
of acidosis and minimal carbon dioxide elimination.
345
The paramedic should be especially diligent when confirming tube placement following blind nasotracheal intubation because:
A) the ET tube cannot be secured effectively when it is in the nose.
B) most patients who are intubated nasally are extremely combative.
C) they did not visualize the tube passing between the vocal cords.
D) most nasotracheal intubation attempts result in esophageal placement.
they did not visualize the tube passing between the vocal cords.
346
The concept of apneic oxygenation is based on the fact that:
A) supplemental oxygen after chemical paralysis will not reduce a hypoxic event
B) in the apneic patient, approximately 200 mL/min of carbon dioxide moves in the alveoli
C) oxygen uptake by the alveoli will continue, even when the diaphragm is not moving
D) the average healthy adult patient will not desaturate for 15 to 20 minutes
oxygen uptake by the alveoli will continue, even when the diaphragm is not moving
347
Supplemental oxygen is indicated for any patient with:
A. Respiratory distress
B. Ischemic stroke
C. A syncopal episode
D. Cardiac chest pain
Respiratory distress
348
Signs of clinical improvement during CPAP therapy include:
A) a decrease in systolic BP.
B) an increase in the heart rate.
C) increased ETCO2.
D) increased ease of speaking.
increased ease of speaking.
349
Paralytic medications exert their effect by:
A) blocking the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the sympathetic nervous system.
B) competitively binding to the motor neurons in the brain, thus blocking their ability to send messages.
C) functioning at the neuromuscular junction and relaxing the muscle by impeding the action of acetylcholine.
D) blocking the function of the autonomic nervous system and impeding the action of acetylcholinesterase.
functioning at the neuromuscular junction and relaxing the muscle by impeding the action of acetylcholine.
350
Neuromuscular blocking agents:
A) are most commonly used as the sole agent to facilitate placement of an ET tube.
B) convert a breathing patient with a marginal airway into an apneic patient with no airway.
C) induce total body paralysis within 10 to 15 minutes following administration via IV push.
D) have a negative effect on both cardiac and smooth muscle and commonly cause dysrhythmias.
convert a breathing patient with a marginal airway into an apneic patient with no airway.
351
Laryngospasm is defined as:
A) aspiration of foreign material.
B) spasmodic closure of the vocal cords.
C) voluntary closure of the glottic opening.
D) spontaneous collapsing of the trachea.
spasmodic closure of the vocal cords.
352
It would be appropriate to insert a nasopharyngeal airway in patients who:
A) are unresponsive with multiple facial bone fractures.
B) have an altered mental status with an intact gag reflex. C) are semiconscious with active vomiting and cyanosis.
D) have CSF leakage from the nose and are semiconscious.
have an altered mental status with an intact gag reflex.
353
If return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) occurs, which of the following ETCO2 findings would expext to encounter?
A) A progressive decrease in the ETCO2 reading
B) Complete loss of a capnorahic waveform
C) Capnograhic waveforms that get smaller
D) An abrupt and sustained increase in ETCO2
An abrupt and sustained increase in ETCO2
354
1. A 29-year-old female patient who is vomiting blood is suspected to have an active Gl bleed. Which medication can be used to treat active GI bleeding during transport to the medical facility?
A. Octreotide
B. Anectine
C. Olamzapine
D. Procainamide Hydrochloride
Octreotide
355
2. A 52-year-old male patient with a history of COPD is showing signs of acute bronchospasm. Which medication can be given to the patient to stimulate smooth muscle relaxation of the bronchial tree and peripheral vasculature?
A. Ativan
B. Xopenex
C. Toradol
D. Osmitrol
Xopenex
356
3. A patient is given amiodarone after suffering a cardiac arrest. You should assess for which of the following adverse reactions or side effects?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypertension
C. Seizures
D. Prolonged QT intervals
D. Prolonged QT interval
357
4. The use of acetic acid is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A. Severe active Live disease
B. Pregnancy
C. Hypokalemis
D. Perforated lymphatic membrane.
D. Perforated Lymphatic membrane
358
5. A 36-year-old man experienced significant burns to his face, head, and chest following an incident with a barbeque pit. Your assessment of his airway reveals severe swelling. After administering medications to sedate and paralyze the patient, you are unable to intubate him. Furthermore, bag-mask ventilations are producing no chest rise. The quickest way to secure a patent airway in this patient is to:
A. Insert a supraglottic airway device
B. Ventilate with a demand valve
C. Perform an open cricothyrotomy
D. Perform a needle cricothyrotomy.
C. Perform an open cricothyrotmy
359
6. 50-year-old woman presents with acute respiratory distress while eating. Upon your arrival, you note that she is conscious, coughing, and wheezing between coughs. Further assessment reveals that her skin is pink and moist. In addition to transporting her to the hospital, you should:
A. Deliver positive pressure ventilations via bag mask device
B. Perform abdominal thrusts until she becomes unconscious
C. Look in her mouth and attempt to visualize a foreign body
D. Encourage her to cough and closely monitor her condition
D. Encourage her to cough and closely monitor her condition
360
7. A 66-year-old woman is found to be unresponsive and apneic. Her carotid pulse is weak and rapid. When ventilating this patient, you should deliver
A. Each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 breath/min
B. One breath over 2 second every 5 to 6 seconds
C. One breath over 1 second every 3 to 5 seconds
D. Each breath over 2 seconds at a rate of 12 breaths/min
A. Each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 breath/min
361
8. A disadvantage of ET intubation is that it:
A) is associated with a high incidence of vocal cord damage and bleeding into the oropharynx.
B) bypasses the upper airway's physiologic functions of warming, filtering, and humidifying.
C) does not eliminate the incidence of gastric distention and can result in pulmonary aspiration.
D) is only a temporary method of securing the patient's airway until a more definitive device can be inserted.
B) bypasses the upper airway's physiologic functions of warming, filtering, and humidifying.
362
9. After confirming that an intubated patient remains responsive enough to maintain his or her own airway, you should first:
A) fully deflate the distal cuff on the ET tube.
B) have the patient sit up or lean slightly forward.
C) suction the oropharynx to remove any secretions.
D) insert an orogastric tube to ensure the stomach is empty.
B) have the patient sit up or lean slightly forward.
363
10. After inserting the ET tube between the vocal cords, you should remove the stylet from the tube and then:
A) attach the bag-mask device and ventilate.
B) secure the tube with a commercial device.
C) attach an ETCO2 detector to the tube.
D) inflate the distal cuff with 5 to 10 mL of air.
D) inflate the distal cuff with 5 to 10 mL of air.
364
11. After inserting the needle into through the cricothyroid membrane, you should next:
A) change your angle to 90 degrees and advance the catheter over the needle.
B) aspirate with the syringe and then insert the needle about 2 cm farther.
C) insert the needle about 1 cm farther and then aspirate with the syringe.
D) advance the catheter over the needle until the hub is flush with the skin.
C) insert the needle about 1 cm farther and then aspirate with the syringe.
365
12. An ET tube that is too large for a patient:
A) is much more likely to enter the esophagus.
B) will lead to an increased resistance to airflow.
C) will make ventilating the patient more difficult.
D) can be difficult to insert and may cause trauma.
D) can be difficult to insert and may cause trauma.
366
13. Assessment of a patient in respiratory distress reveals capnographic waveform that resemble a shark fin. What should you suspect?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Pneumonia
C. Heart Failure
D. Bronchospasm
D. Bronchospasm
367
14. Assessment of spontaneously perfusing patients ETCO2, reveals small capnographic waveform and a reading of 22 mm Hg. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. Bradypnea
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Hyperventilation
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Hyperventilation
368
15. Before securing the ET tube in place with a commercial device, you should:
A) remove the bag-mask device from the ET tube.
B) hyperventilate the patient for 30 seconds to 1 minute.
C) move the ET tube to the center of the patient's mouth. D) note the centimeter marking on the ET tube at the patient's teeth.
D) note the centimeter marking on the ET tube at the patient's teeth.
369
16. Biot respirations are characterized by:
A. An irregular pattern of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
B. Slow, shallow irregular respirations or occasional gasping breaths
C. Deep, gasping respirations that are often rapid but may be slow
D. Increased respirations followed by apnea periods
A. An irregular pattern of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
370
17. Capnography can serve as an indicator of:
A) proper ventilatory depth.
B) cerebral perfusion pressure.
C) coronary perfusion pressure.
D) chest compression effectiveness.
D) chest compression effectiveness.
371
18. Capnography is a reliable method for confirming proper ET tube placement because:
A. carbon dioxide is not present in the esophagus
B. It is a reliable indicator of the patients PaO2 level
C. Capnographers measure the amount of exhaled oxygen D. Capnographers measure the amount of carbon dioxide in inhaled air
A. carbon dioxide is not present in the esophagus
372
19. CPAP is NOT appropriate for patients with:
A) acute or chronic bronchospasm.
B) slow, shallow respiratory effort.
C) an oxygen saturation less than 90%.
D) evidence of congestive heart failure.
B) slow, shallow respiratory effort.
373
20. Drugs such as vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) and pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) are MOST appropriate to administer when:
A. intubation of the pt is anticipated to be difficult
B. longer-acting paralytics are contraindicated
C. extended periods of paralysis are needed
D. you have a transport time of less than 15 minute
C. extended periods of paralysis are needed
374
21. Endotracheal (ET) intubation is defined as:
A. Inserting an ET tube through the vocal cords via the patients mouth
B. Inserting an ET tube through the glottic opening via the patient mouth
C. Inserting an ET tube through the glottic opening and sealing off the trachea
D. Inserting an ET tube through an opening in the cricothyroid membrane
C.. Inserting an ET tube through the glottic opening and sealing off the trachea
375
22. Hyperventilating an apneic patient:
A) is appropriate if the patient is an adult.
B) may decrease venous return to the heart.
C) is beneficial if the pulse rate is too slow.
D) reduces the incidence of gastric distention.
B) may decrease venous return to the heart.
376
23. If a patient has a stoma and no tracheostomy tube in place:
A. Ventilation can be performed by placing a mask over the stoma
B. You must perform a head tilt chin lift maneuver before ventilating
C. Suctioning of the stoma must be performed before ventilating
D. You should not seal the nose and mouth when ventilating
C. Ventilation can be performed by placing a mask over the stoma
377
24. If chest compressions and repositioning of the airway are unsuccessful in removing a severe airway obstruction in an unconscious patient, you should:
A. Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth
B. Perform laryngoscopy and use Magill forceps
C. Alternate chest compressions and abdominal thrusts
D. Gain airway access via the cricothyroid membrane
B. Perform laryngoscopy and use Magill forceps
378
25. If return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), occurs, which of the following ETCO2 findings would you expect to encounter?
A. An abrupt and sustained increase in ETCO2
B. Capnographic waveforms that get smaller
C. A progressive decrease in the ETCO2 reading
D. Complete loss of a capnographic waveform
An abrupt and sustained increase in ETCO2
379
Interventions used in patients with edema may include which of the following?
A) catecholamines
B) sodium
C) continuous positive airway pressure
D) glucose
continuous positive airway pressure
380
Opsonization is a process in which:
A. an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells
B. a mother passes igG and igM antibodies to the fetus via breast milk
C. antibodies cause antigens to clump together to facilitate phagocytosis
D. antibodies bind and inactivate toxins produced by bacteria
an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate recognition by immune cells
381
Strength of a person’s peripheral pulses is related to
A. cardiac output and heart rate
B. physical size and blood pressure
C. heart rate and preload
D. stroke volume and pulse pressure
stroke volume and pulse pressure
382
A person who ingests an excessive amount of salicylate would likely experience
A. alkalosis
B. bradycardia
C. a fall in pH
D. hypoventilation
a fall in pH
383
An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue is called
A. metaplasia
B. hypertrophy
C. atrophy
D. hyperplasia
hyperplasia
384
The prevalence of a particular disease refers to
A. the number of cases in a particular population over time B. the number of deaths from the disease in a given population
C. how acutely the disease negatively affects a person
D. the frequency with which the disease occurs
the number of cases in a particular population over time
385
When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured
A. a slow influx of blood flow causes progressive repair
B. their cells divide completely and thus heal completely
C. they are replaced by regeneration from remaining cells D. scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced
Scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced
386
When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to
A. fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids
B. anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate
C. anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid
D. aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide
anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid
387
Which of the following conditions would cause a proportionate gain in both water and sodium?
A. steroid use
B. loop diuretic use
C. diarrhea
D. hemorrhage
steroid use
388
Which of the following factors would cause a decreased shift of potassium into the cells?
A. metabolic acidosis
B. alkalosis
C. insulin deficiency
D. increased vagal tone
alkalosis
389
Which of the following is and autoimmune disease?
A. type 2 diabetes
B. congestive heart failure
C. graves disease
D. HIV infection
graves disease
390
Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia correct?
A. hemophilia is caused by excessive production of factor VIII
B. hemophilia is generally not an inherited disorder and affects males and females in equal number
C. hemophilia is an inherited disorder, is characterized by excessive bleeding, and occurs is predominantly in males D. hemophilia is characterized by factor VIII deficit and is passed from asymptomatic fathers to daughters
hemophilia is an inherited disorder, is characterized by excessive bleeding and occurs predominantly in males
391
Which of the following statements regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is correct?
A. at the cellular level, MODS results in aerobic metabolism, metabolic alkalosis, and impaired cellular function
B. signs and symptoms of MODS include compensatory hypertension, bradycardia, and a fever greater then 105 degrees Fahrenheit
C. MODS typically develops within 20 to 30 minutes following resuscitation from cardiac arrest
D. MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massice systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response
MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response
392
Wounds that heal by primary intention
A. heal without the formation of a scab
B. are generally clean wounds with opposed margins
C. do not utilize fibrin or fibronectin
D. have a more pronounced and prolonged inflammatory phase
are generally clean wounds with opposed margins
393
Aspirin and NSAIDS reduce inflammation and pain by
A. inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
B. promoting mast cell synthesis of prostaglandins
C. thinning the blood and reducing platelets
D. decreasing circulating pyrogen levels
inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
394
Early manifestations of Alzheimer disease include
A. memory loss and subtle personality
B. indifference to food and urinary incontinence
C. impaired cognition and impaired abstract thinking
D. inability to carry out activates of daily living
memory loss and subtle personality
395
Early signs or symptoms of breast cancer include
A. significant weight loss and vomiting
B. swollen lymph glands in the axilla
C. a small, painless lump in the breast
D. nipple discharge and breast tenderness
a small, painless lump in the breast
396
If a patient is confined to bed for a prolonged period of time, you would expect edema to form in the
A. face, neck, and chest
B. upper extremities
C. sacrum
D. peritoneum
sacrum
397
If an injury leading to cell degeneration is of sufficient intensity and duration
A. irreversible cell injury will lead to cell death
B. ischemia will result in simple necrosis
C. the cell will undergo coagulation necrosis
D. the cell will become inflamed and may burst
irreversible cell injury will lead to cell death
398
Infectious cellular injury would likely occur in a patient
A. with uncontrolled hypertension
B. who is over 30 years of age
C. with migraine headaches
D. with metastatic cancer
with metastatic cancer
399
Major risk factors for lung cancer include
A. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos
B. chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies
C. female sex and age over 40 years
D. frequent respiratory infections and asthma
cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos
400
As a result of the increase in diastolic blood pressure associated with aging
A. cardiac output progressively increases
B. the ventricles overfill with blood, resulting in chronic congestive heart failure
C. the left ventricle works harder, becomes thicker, and loses its elasticity
D. the heart valves become stiff and impede blood flow through the heart
the left ventricle works harder, becomes thicker, and loses its elasticity
401
Women who experience menopause are at higher risk for
A. cardiac conditions
B. cancer
C. renal disease
D. diabetes
cardiac conditions
402
by definition infancy begins at
A. 12 months of age
B. 18 months of age
C. 1 month of age
D. birth
C 1 month of age
403
If possible, what should you do when working with adolescents?
A. explain everything you are going to do in detail, and ask for permission before each procedure
B. have your partner speak with the parent in a separate area while you talk with the patient
C. be direct and nonemotional and employ the assistance of a trusted nonfamily member
D. interview them with their parents so they feel more comfortable
have you partner speak with the parent in a separate area while you talk with the patient
404
If you respond to a call for an infant who is experiencing respiratory distress, always
A. count respirations before performing life saving measures
B. make sure the infant’s nasal passages are clear of mucus
C. provide bag-mask ventilations prior to any further assessment
D. have the calmer parent or caregiver hold the child
make sure the infant’s nasal passages are clear of mucus
405
In contrast to infants, toddlers
A. gain weight at a faster rate
B. have a slower respiratory rate
C. have a slightly higher pulse rate
D. have a lower systolic blood pressure
have a slower respiratory rate
406
In conventional reasoning school-age children
A. act out so that they can get what they want
B. make decisions guided by their consciences
C. seek approval from their peers and society
D. act almost purely to avoid punishment
seek approval from their peers and society
407
In late adults, atherosclerosis can contribute to the development of
A. aneurysms
B. obesity
C. diabetes
D. hypercapnia
aneurysms
408
It is important to keep in mind which of the following when assessing an infant for a potential head, neck, or spine injury?
A. infants often land headfirst when they fall
B. head injuries in infants are less serious because their skull is still forming
C. infants are more likely to have a neck injury than a head injury
D. spinal injuries are more common in infants after a fall
infants often land headfirst when they fall
409
Teething is commonly accompanied by
A. ear infections
B. a rash
C. fever
D. diarrhea
fever
410
The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to
A. bradycardia
B. atherosclerosis
C. hypotension
D. rheumatic heart disease
atherosclerosis
411
Vascular compensation for changes in blood pressure decreases with age due to
A. a marked reduction in renal function with increased sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules
B. left ventricular hypertrophy and the subsequent decrease in cardiac output that it causes
C. a 60% to 70% decrease in sympathetic nervous system stimulation and catecholamine release
D. reduced elasticity of the peripheral vessels secondary to decreases in elastin and collagen
reduced elasticity of the peripheral vessels secondary to decreases in elastin and collagen
412
When assess school-age children, it is imperative to do which of the following
A. earn their trust
B. be discreet
C. speak with the patient in a private area
D. respect the patient’s privacy
earn their trust
413
When preparing to establish an IV line on a 4-year-old child, the child asks if it will hurt. How should respond to the child?
A. I need to this procedure right away
B. this is going to hurt a lot. I don’t need to do it if you don’t want me to
C. it may hurt a little, you may feel a quick pinch
D. it wont hurt at all
it may hurt a little, you may feel a quick pinch
414
When preparing to transport an older adult to the hospital, they are hesitant to go because they do not want to leave their pets. What should you do
A. allow the patient to bring their pets with them
B. identify animal resources or a kennel that can take care of the pets while the patient is in the hospital
C. tell the patient that they don’t have time to worry about their pets during an emergency
D. assure the patient that they’ll be back in time to care for their pets
Identify animal resources or a kennel that can take care of the pets while the patient is in the hospital
415
When ventilating a late adult, it is important to keep in mind that
A. the tidal volume you give them may be different from what you would give a younger person
B. the individual is at higher risk for aspiration so you should deliver a low tidal volume
C. you will need to use more force to achieve chest rise and fall compared to when ventilating a younger patient
D. a decrease in the secretion of saliva can make it more difficult to ventilate a late adult
A the tidal volume you give them may be different from what you would give a younger person
416
Which of the following is true of early adults
A. many have atherosclerotic disease
B they experience more psychological conditions related to well-being
C. they view crises as challenges to be overcome rather than as threats to be avoided
D. childbirth is most common in this age group
childbirth is most common in this age group
417
Which of the following physical changes occurs in adults older than 25 years of age
A. settling of the discs in the spine
B. decrease in the body’s fatty tissue
C. an increase in muscle strength
D. hyperactivity of the reflexes
settling of the disc in the spine
418
Which of the following statements regarding growth spurts in adolescents is correct?
A. boys generally experience this stage of growth later in life than girls do
B. blood volume typically remains unchanged during a growth spurt
C. when this period of growth has finished, girls are generally taller than boys
D. girls typically experience a growth spurt later in life than boys do
boys generally experience this stage of growth in life than girls do
419
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
A. middle adult males are a greater risk for cardiovascular disease than middle adult females
B. middle adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided
C. middle adults focus less on achieving their life’s goals because of “empty nest” syndrome
D. menopause in middle adult females causes an overall increase in bone density
middle adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided
420
An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue is called
A. metaplasia
B. hypertrophy
C. atrophy
D. hyperplasia
hyperplasia
421
The prevalence of a particular disease refers to
A. the number of cases in a particular
B. the number of deaths from the disease in given population
C. how acutely the disease negatively affects a person
D. the frequency with the disease occurs
the number of cases in a particular
422
What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels?
A. obstructive
B. distributive
C. peripheral
D. cardiogenic
obstructive
423
what hormone targets the adrenal cortex, resulting in cortisol secretion?
A. adrenocorticotropic hormone
B. thyroid-stimulating hormone
C. antidiuretic hormone
D. norepinephrine
adrenocorticotropic hormone
424
What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock?
A. hypertension
B. cardiac tamponade
C. hyperglycemia
D. myocardial infarct
myocardial infarct
425
Which of the following signs is not a sign of shock?
A. hypotension
B. peripheral cyanosis
C. adequate capillary refill
D. pallor
adequate capillary refill
426
Which of the following is true about the nervous system in late adults
A. loss of 50% frontal lobe synapses
B. loss of 1% to 4% neurons
C. brain weight loss of 30-40%
D. slower motor and sensory neural networks
slower motor and sensory neural networks
427
Ingestion of ethanol can cause all effects on the body except:
A. CNS depression
B. cardiovascular collapse
C. hyperventilation
D. hypoventilation
hyperventilation
428
Adolescent ages __-__
13 years - 18 years
429
Infant ages __-__
1 month - 1 year
430
Toddler ages __-__
1 year - 2 years
431
Neonate ages __-__
Brith - 1 month
432
Preschooler ages __-__
3 years - 5 years
433
School age __-__
6 years - 12 years
