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Integrated Exam > P1 YEAR > Flashcards

P1 YEAR Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Primary Structure in Proteins?

Definition

A

Oligopeptide sequnce, planar due to bond character in resonance structure

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2
Q

What is the Secondary Structure in Proteins?

Definition

A

Polypeptides arrange into secondary structures and are sequence dependent, form spontaneously, and are formed and stablized by hydrogen bonding

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3
Q

What are the components in a Secondary Structure?

A
  1. Alpha Helix
  2. Beta Sheet
  3. Beta Turns
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4
Q

What is an Alpha Helix?

Definition

A

Forms by hydrogen bonding between carbonyl oxygen and n+4 amino hydrogen

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5
Q

What is a Beta Sheet?

Definition

A

Stabilized through hydrogen bonding between adjacent strands (may be parallel or antiparallel)

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6
Q

What is a Beta Turn?

Definition

A

Cause a 180 degree turn in the polypeptide backbone stabilized by hydrogen bonding between 1st and 4th residue of the turn often include PROLINE and GLYCINE

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7
Q

What is a Type 1 Beta Turn?

Definition

A

PROLINE lots of steric hindrance

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8
Q

What is a Type 2 Beta Turn?

Definition

A

GLYCINE rotational freedom

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9
Q

What is the Tertiary Structure of a Protein?

Definition

A

Form by assembly of secondary structures, it may form a recognizable pattern

Motif

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10
Q

What is the Quaternary Structure of a Protein?

Definition

A

Composed of two or more polypeptide chains, peptides making up multimer may be either identical or nonidentical will often have an axis symmetry

ex. collagen

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11
Q

What is the Active Site of an Enzyme?

Definition

A

A specific region on an enzyme where the substance are bound

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12
Q

List the Properties of the Active Site on an Enzyme

A
  1. Small part of total volume of enzyme
  2. Bound to substrates via multiple weak, reverible attractions such as hydrophobic interactions, ionic interactions, hydrogen bond
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13
Q

List the Macronutrients

A
  1. Proteins
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Lipids
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14
Q

Define Protein

Definition

A

Provide essential nitrogen, carbons, electrons as well as essential amino acids that body cannot synthesize

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15
Q

Define Carbohydrates

Definition

A

Carbons and Electrons, no essential carbs

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16
Q

Define Lipids

Definition

A

Carbons, electrons, and essential lipids that the body cannot synthesize

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17
Q

What pathway is this: Carbohydrates to Glucose?

A

Central Pathway: Glycolysis leading to produce Acetyl CoA

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18
Q

What pathway is this: Proteins to Amino Acids?

A

Amino Acids can also lead to Acetyl CoA

Precursor to producing glucose

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19
Q

What pathway is this: Fats to Glyceral/Fatty Acids?

A

Beta Oxidation also leads to Acetyl CoA

Glycerol: precursor to producing glucose

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20
Q

Why is Acetyl CoA is so important?

A

Acetyl CoA goes through Krebs Cycle/ETC to produce CO2, H2O, and ATP

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21
Q

List Membrane Properties

Definition

A
  1. Dynamic and Flexible
  2. Can exist in various phases/transitions
  3. NOT permeable to large polar solutes or ions
  4. Permeable to SMALL polar solutes and nonpolar compounds
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22
Q

Depending on their compositions/temperature, the lipid bilayer can exist in what TWO phases?

A
  1. Gel Phase
  2. Fluid Phase
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23
Q

What is the Gel Phase?

Definition

A

Liquid ORDERED State: individual molecules do NOT move around

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24
Q

What is the Fluid Phase?

Definition

A

Liquid DISORDERED State: individual molecules CAN move around

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25
Q

Membrane Fluidity: is determined mainly by fatty acid compositon and melting point, more fluid membranes require what?

A

SHORTER and MORE UNsaturated fatty acids

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26
Q

Melting Temperature DECREASES as what?

A

Double Bonds are ADDED

At lower temps, cells need more unsaturaed FA

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27
Q

Melting Temperatues INCREASES with what?

A

LENGTH of SATURATED fatty acids

At higher temps, cells need more long, saturated FA

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28
Q

What is Lateral Diffusion?

Definition

A
  1. Indiviudal lipids undergo fast uncatalyzed later diffusion within the layer
  2. Lipids can move around laterally
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29
Q

What is Transverse Diffusion?

Definition

A
  1. Spontaneous flips from one layer to another are rare because the charged head group must transverse the hydrophobic tail region of the membrane
  2. Flipases
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30
Q

What are Flipases?

Definition

A
  1. Special enzymes that catalyze the transverse diffusion
  2. Unique unidirectional and bidirectional enzymes to catalyze lipid movement
  3. Some flipases use energy of ATP to move lipids against the concentration gradient
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31
Q

DEA Numbers

Definition

A

2 Letters followed by 7 Numbers

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32
Q

How to CHECK a DEA Number?

A
  1. Add numbers #1, 3, 5 together
  2. Add numbers #2, 4, 6 together and multiply by 2
  3. Add the first and second calculated number together and make sure that matches the last digit
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33
Q

Superscription

Definition

A

Take Thou

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34
Q

Inscription

Definition

A

Drug Name and Strength

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35
Q

Subscription

Definition

A

Directions to the Pharmacist

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36
Q

Sigma

Definition

A

Directions to the Patient

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37
Q

NDC Numbers

NON-INSURANCE

A

10 Digit
1st Seg = Labeler Code
2nd Seg = Product Code
3rd Seg = Package Code

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38
Q

NDC Numbers

INSURANCE

A

11-Digit
5-4-2 format

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39
Q

DAW Codes 0-2

A

0: no product selection
1: substitution not allowed by provider
2: substitution allowed, patient requested product dispensed

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40
Q

1 Dram = what?

A

Teaspoon = 5 mL

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41
Q

1 oz = what?

A

30 g = 30 mL

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42
Q

16 oz = what?

A

1 pint = 1 pound = 480 grams

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43
Q

Tablespoon = what?

A

15 mL

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44
Q

1 grain = what?

A

60 mg

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45
Q

What is Down-Regulation?

Definition

A

Response of a system to DECREASE the response of the cell due to excessive stimulation by an agonist.
The response can be due to decreased number of recepetors or uncoupling of the receptor from the sign transduction mechanism or both.
Involved in mechanisms of TOLERANCE

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46
Q

What is Up-Regulation?

Definition

A

The response of a system to increase the response of the cell to a LACK of stimulation by an AGONIST.
The response can be due to either anincrease in receptor number of enhanced coupling of the receptor to the signal transuciton or both.
Involved in mechanisms of SUPERSENSTIVITY

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47
Q

What is Cranial Nerve I?

A

Olfactory Nerve

ONLY sensory/afferent, goes to olfactory bulb/cortical area

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48
Q

What is Cranial Nerve II?

A

Optic Nerve

ONLY sensory

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49
Q

How does the Optic Nerve II work to transmit?

A
  1. Photoreceptors in the retina transmit visual info to the bipolar cells in the retina.
  2. Bipolar cells synpase on ganglion cells which have their cells bodines in the retina
  3. Axons of ganglion cells leave the eyeball and form optic nerves
  4. Eyeball to Optic Chiasm
  5. Optic Chaism to Brain
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50
Q

Bipolar Cells

Definition

A

Primary Sensory Neurons

Do not fire impulses, send info via GRADED signal changes

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51
Q

Ganglion Cells

Definition

A

Secondary sensory neurons

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52
Q

Eyeball to Optic Chiasm

Definition

A

Optic Nerve

X Shaped Structure

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53
Q

Optic Chiasm to Brain

Definition

A

Optic Tract

Posterior diencephalon synapse on lateral GENICULATE nucleus of thalamus

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54
Q

What is Optic Nerve III?

A

Oculomotor Nerve

Innervates eye muscles, motor AND sensory

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55
Q

Where is the nucleus of the Oculomoter Nerve III?

A

Exits from the midbrain, nucleus is in the ROSTRAL MIDBRAIN

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56
Q

What type of innervations are possible with Cranial Nerve III?

A
  1. Medial Rectus: adduction toward the nose
  2. Inferor Rectus + Superior Oblique: moves eye down
  3. Superior Rectus + Inferior Oblique: moves eye up
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57
Q

What is Cranial Nerve IV?

A

Trochlear Nerve

Motor and Sensory

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58
Q

Where is the nucleus of Trochlear Nerve IV?

A

Nucleus is in the CAUDAL part of MIDBRAIN

Innervates SUPERIOR OBLIQUE

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59
Q

What Cranial Nerve is the ONLY one to exit DORSALLY?

A

Trochlear Nerve IV

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60
Q

What is Cranial Nerve V?

A

Trigeminal Nerve

Sensory FACE and Motor CHEWING

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61
Q

The Trigeminal Nerve V arises from the pons and then the trigeminal ganglion, what are the 3 Divisions of the nerve that leave the ganglion?

A
  1. Opthalmic V1: SENSORY
  2. Maxillary V2: SENSORY
  3. Mandibular: SENSORY AND MOTOR
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62
Q

What is the ONLY structure in the CNS that uses electrical synapses and not chemical?

A

Trigeminal Mesencephalic Nucleus

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63
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VI?

A

Abducens Nerve

Motor and Sensory

CAUDAL Pons

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64
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VII?

A

Facial Nerve

Motor, Sensory, and PNS

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65
Q

What elements does Facial Nerve VI control?

A
  1. Motor: facial expression
  2. PNS: salivary and lacrimal glands
  3. Sensory: skin of ear, taste buds
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66
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VIII?

A

Vestibulocochlear Nerve

ONLY sensory

Pontomedullary Junction

67
Q

What is Cranial Nerve IX?

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Motor, Sensory, and PNS

68
Q

What elements does Glosspharyngeal Nerve IX control?

A
  1. Motor: pharynx
  2. PNS: parotid gland
  3. Sensory: baroreceptors, BP, O2, taste
69
Q

What is Cranial Nerve X?

A

Vagus Nerve

Motor, Sensory, and PNS

70
Q

What are elements of Vagus Nerve X?

A
  1. Exits Medulla
  2. Majority of PNS: heart/organs
71
Q

What is Cranial Nerve XI?

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve

ONLY SOMATIC MOTOR - neck muscles

72
Q

What is Cranial Nerve XII?

A

Hypoglossal Nerve

ONLY SOMATIC MOTOR - tongue

73
Q

Depolarization of Hair Cells

HEARING

A
  1. K+ enters the cell = DEPOLARIZATION
  2. Sterocilia (in hair cells) K+ channels and tip links connect stereocilia
  3. Stereocilia bend towards the TALLEST stereocilia aka the tension of the tip length INCREASES = OPEN K+ channels
  4. Depolarization causes Ca2+ to enter which releases glutamate
74
Q

Repolarization of Hair Cells

HEARING

A
  1. If stereocilia bends towards the SHORTER stereocilia, there is LESS tension and the K+ channels CLOSE
  2. K+ remains inside = REPOLARIZATION
75
Q

Perilymph in HAIR cells has what concentration gradient?

A

HIGH Na+ and LOW K+

76
Q

Endolymph in HAIR Cells has what concentration gradient?

Stereocilia area

A

LOW Na+ and HIGH K+

77
Q

What are the 3 Phases of the Uterine Cycle?

A
  1. Proliferative Phase
  2. Secretory Phase
  3. Menstrual Phase
78
Q

Proliferative Phase has what hormone actions?

Time from the end of menses to ovulation

A
  1. Increase ESTROGEN levels = stimulate growth and development of endometrium
  2. INDUCE PROGESTERONE receptors needed for secretory phase
79
Q

Secretory Phase has what hormone actions?

Between ovulation and menstruation onset

A
  1. INCREASED PROGESTERON = maturation of endometrial, stimulate glandular secretion, inhibit myometrial contractions

suitable environment for implantation and embryo

80
Q

Menstrual Phase has what hormone actions?

A
  1. FALL in ESTROGEN and PROGESTERONE
  2. Causes PROSTAGLANDIN production = smooth muscle contraction (cramps, endometrium sloughing)
81
Q

When does Glucose appear in the Urine?

MECHANISM

A
  1. When the concentration of glucose in the filtrate increases, the cotransporters are saturated and cannot absorb = DECREASED reabsorption and INCREASED filtered glucose
  2. Glucose stays in the PROXIMAL tubule due to saturation = excretion
  3. Reabsorption STOPS = Increased Excretion
82
Q

What are the THREE forms of Carbon Dioxide CO2 Transport in the blood?

A
  1. Dissolved CO2 in Plasma
  2. Bound CO2 = hemoglobin RBC
  3. Chemically Modified CO2 = MOST IMPORTANT aka conversion of CO2 to BICARBONAYE VIA CARBONIC ANHYDRASE
83
Q

What is the MAJOR and MOST important factor of CO2 transport in the blood?

A

Plasma Bicarbonate

84
Q

Ideal Gas Law

A

PV = nRT
PV = (W/MW) x RT

85
Q

Combined Gas Law

A

P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
PV/T = k

86
Q

Gibbs Free Energy

A

G = nRT (ln(a2/a1))

87
Q

What 5 Excipients are used as Tonicity Agents?

A
  1. Dextrose
  2. Glycerin
  3. Mannitol
  4. Potassium Chloride
  5. Sodium Chloride
88
Q

Wetting Agents

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to disperse solids in continuous liquid phase

89
Q

Flocculating Agents

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to floc the drug particles

90
Q

Thickeners/Viscosity Modifiers

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to increase the viscosity of suspension

91
Q

Buffers pH

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to stabilize the suspension to a desired pH range

92
Q

Colorants, Flavors, Sweeteners

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to impart desired color and taste to suspension, improve elegance

glucose, sucrose, sorbital, peppermint oil, saccharin

93
Q

Preservative

Defintion: Excipients

A

Added to prevent microbial growth

94
Q

What are the most commonly used excipients in capsules/tablets?

A
  1. Lactose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Calcium Sulfate
  4. Di-Calcium Phosphate
  5. Starch
  6. Magnesium Stearate
95
Q

What is pKa?

A

Refers to the pH at which the charged and uncharged forms of a molecule are present in an equal proportion

96
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach Weak Acids

A

pH = pKa + log [salt]/[acid]
Acid = UNionized
Salt = IONized

97
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach Weak Base

A

pH = pKa + log [base]/[salt]

98
Q

Titration of Weak Acid w/ Strong Base

A

Equivalence Point = acid is completely neutralized with base
Half Equivalence Point = [acid] = [salt] aka pH = pKa

99
Q

When does Maximum Buffer Capacity occur?

A

pH = pKa
aka choose a buffer with a pKa value close to the desired pH

100
Q

List the 5 basic components of the Medication Use Process

A
  1. Prescribing
  2. Transcribing and Documenting
  3. Dispensing
  4. Administering
  5. Monitoring
101
Q

Liophilicity

Definition

A

The ability of drug molecule to interact with and cross lipid bilayer

PASSIVE diffusion
Nonpolar + Polar Regions

102
Q

What are the factors controlling Drug Absorption?

A
  1. Solubility of Drug
  2. Dissolution Rate
  3. Concentration
  4. Circulation at the Site of Absorption
  5. Surface Area of Absorbing Site
103
Q

Pros/Cons: Oral Route

Administration

A
  1. Most common, preferred, safest
  2. Small Intestine = major site of absorption due to large surface area
  3. First-Pass Efect
104
Q

Pros/Cons: Buccal/Sublingual Route

Administration

A
  1. Quick absorption –> transcellular diffusion
  2. Avoids first pass metabolism
  3. Unsuitable for bitter tasting drugs
105
Q

Pros/Cons: Rectal Route

Administration

A
  1. Limited Absorption: low surface area
  2. Great for peds
  3. Avoids first-pass
  4. Slow, incomplete, irregular absorption
  5. Irritation of rectal mucosa
106
Q

Pros/Cons: Parenteral Routes

Administration

A

SQ: slow absorption, prolonged action
IM: most common, rapid absorption
IV: most rapid, danger

107
Q

Pros/Cons: Transdermal Route

Administration

A
  1. Facilitated by carriers and devices
  2. Constant delivery of drug
  3. Slow process, long term therapy
108
Q

Pros/Cons: Nasal Route

Administration

A
  1. Rapid absorption
  2. Limited surface area
  3. Limited dose
  4. Damage to nasal lining with long term use
109
Q

Pros/Cons: Pulmonary Route

Administration

A
  1. Absorption is passive diffusion
  2. Particles less than 5um preferred
  3. Must reach terminal bronchioles and alveoli
  4. Retention and Clearance problematic
110
Q

List the Phase I Reactions

Chemical Reaction, Non-Synthetic

A
  1. Oxidations
  2. Reductions
  3. Hydrolses
111
Q

Oxidation Reactions

Associated Elements

Phase I

A

Catalyzing Enzymes:
1. P450
2. Flavin Monnoxygenase
3. Amine Oxidase
4. Dehydrogenations

112
Q

Reduction Reactions

Associated Elements

Phase I

A
  1. Relative uncommon pathway for drug mettabolism
  2. Yield active or toxic metabolites
  3. Introduce hydroxyl and amine groups
  4. SOA: microsomal and cytosolic enzymes
113
Q

Hydrolyses Reactions

Associated Elements

Phase I

A
  1. Epoxide Hydrolase: gets ride of epoxide produced from oxidation
  2. Esterases: converting ester prodrugs (SOA: all over the body)
  3. Peptide Hydrolase
  4. Lactone
114
Q

Phase I Reactions introduces or exposes one the reactive groups onto the xenobiotic, list the possible reactive growups

A
  1. Hydroxyl -OH
  2. Amino -NH2
  3. Carboxyl -COOH
  4. Sulfhydryl -SH

causes increased reactivity and hydrophilicity

115
Q

List the Phase II Reactions

Conjugations, Group Transfer

A
  1. Glucuronidation
  2. Sulfation
  3. Glutathione
  4. Amino Acid Conjugation
  5. Acetylation
  6. Methylation
116
Q

Glucuronidation Reactions

Associated Elements

Phase II

A
  1. MAJOR reaction and strongly INCREASES water solubility
  2. Enzyme: Glucuronosyltransferase UGT
  3. Co-Factor: UDP-Glucuronic Acid GA
  4. Precursor: Glucose – abundant making it the MOST common reaction
117
Q

What is the most important endogenous substrate for UGT?

Phase II

A

Bilirubin

118
Q

Sulfation Reaction

Associated Elements

Phase II

A
  1. Enzyme: Sulfotransferases SULs
  2. Co-Factor: PAPS
  3. Cojugating Agent: Sulfate Group
  4. Target Groups: Phenols, Alcohols, and Amines
119
Q

What is PAPS and why is it important in APAP metabolism?

A

3’-Phosphoadenosine-5’-Phosphosulfate
PAPS is depleted in APAP overdose and causes hepatotoxicity

120
Q

Glutathione Conjugation Reaction

Associated Elements

Phase II

A
  1. Enzyme: Glutathione S-Transferases GSTs
  2. Co-Factor: Glutathione
  3. Conjugatinge Agent: Glutathione GSH
  4. Target Groups: Electrophic Functions Grooups
  5. Depleted GSH in APAP overdose leads to hepatotoxicity
121
Q

Acetylation Reaction

Associated Elements

Phase II

A
  1. Enzyme: N-Acetyltransferases NATs, Cytosolic Enzymes
  2. Co-Factor: Acetyl Coenzyme A
  3. Target Groups: Aromatic AMines and Alcohols
122
Q

Acetylation of what may lead to hepatotoxicity?

A

Isoniazid INH

123
Q

Alpha 1 Receptor

Important Elements

A

Antagonist: Prazosin
G Protein: Galphaq
Effects: Increase IP3 and DAG
EXCITATORY

124
Q

Alpha 2 Receptor

Important Elements

A

Antagonist: Yohimbine
G Protein: Galphai
Effects: Decrease cAMP
Inhibit Sympathetic

125
Q

What is the antagonist for Alpha 2b/c type receptors?

A

Prazosin

126
Q

B Receptors

Important Elements

A

Antagonist: Propranolol
G Protein: Galphas
Effects: increase cAMP common to all

127
Q

Beta 1 Receptor

Important Elements

A

Antagonist: Betaxolol
Location: Heart, Juxtaglomerular Apparatus JGA of the Kidney
Stimulated by: NE potentially innervated

128
Q

Beta 2 Receptor

Important Elements

A

Antagonist: Butoxamine
Vasodilation, reduction of BP, relaxation of smooth muscle
Non-Innervated Receptors: NE from bloodstream

129
Q

Beta 3 Receptor

Important Elements

A

Location: Adipose Tissue
Function: not clear
Med: Mirabegron (Myrbetriq)

130
Q

Histamine

Components

A
  1. Communicated between cells through interacting with receptors on the outside
  2. Blasts a signalling response to severe cells
  3. Rapidly metabolized
131
Q

What are the multiple effects of histamine and how is this possible?

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Anaphylaxis
  3. Gastric Acid Secretion
  4. Neurotransmission
  5. Possible through four different histamine receptors located in different tissues
132
Q

What are drugs Inducing Immunity?

A

Vaccines and Passive Antibodies

133
Q

What are drugs Inhibiting Immunity?

A

Immunosuppressive agents

134
Q

What are drugs that Modify Immunity or Related Responses?

A

Cytokines, Anti-Inflammatories

135
Q

What are drugs Helping the Immune System?

A

Anti-Infectives or Antineoplastics

136
Q

What are drugs to Evaluate Immunity or Antigens?

A

Immunodiagnostics

137
Q

TH1 Cytokine

Elements

A

Secrete: IL2, IFNy, IL12, and TNFB
Stimulate: cell mediated responses, bacterial killing, Ig class switch
Block: function of TH2 cells

138
Q

IFNy Cytokine

Elements

A

Enahnces: macrophages, PMH, cytotoxic activity
Proinflammatory

139
Q

TH2 Cytokine

Elements

A

Mediate Anti-Parastitic Immunity
Promote IgE class switch
Block TH1 and Th17

140
Q

Th17 - IL17 Cytokine

Elements

A

Mycobaterial/Fungal surveillance, allergy, and autoimmune disease

141
Q

TReg Cytokine

Elements

A

TGFB and IL10
Promote mucosal immunity

142
Q

What interleukin is secreted by various antigen presenting cells and most cell types?

Similar to TNFa, proinflammatory

A

Interleukin I

143
Q

Which Interleukin is produced by Th1 and other T cells that promotes T cell proliferation?

Supports T cell growth, enhances NK cytotoxic activity

A

Interleukin 2

144
Q

Which Interleukin is produced primarily by TH2, TReg, and M2 and is Anti-Inflammatory?

Performs TH2 stuff

A

Interleukin 10

145
Q

Which Interleukin is the Prototypical TH2 cytokine and induced Ig class switch to IgG?

Stimulates mast cell growth of TH2

A

Interleukin 4

146
Q

What are the 4 main types of Infectious Disease?

A
  1. Toxigenic
  2. Extracellular
  3. Facultative
  4. Intracellular
147
Q

Toxigenic Infection

Exotoxin solube protein secreted by bacteria outside the bacterial cell

A
  1. Diptheria, Tetanus
  2. Leads to Septic Shock
148
Q

What cytokines are involved in Septic Shock?

A
  1. IL-1beta
  2. TNF-alpha
149
Q

What are protective mechanisms in Toxigenic Infection?

A
  1. IgM Bacteriolysins
  2. IgG Anti-Capsular Antibody
  3. IgM Antibody for Lipid A
150
Q

Extracellular Infection

Most susceptible to curent anti-infectives

A
  1. Antiphagocytic Capsule: importat virulence factor for bacteria
  2. Acute Inflammatory Response: IL-8 Chemokine attrachs NK cells
151
Q

Faculative Intraceullar Infection

Mycobacteria

A
  1. Resistant to NK killing
  2. Monocyte involvement
  3. Efferent Phase: cell mediated immunity
152
Q

Obligate Intracellular Inffection

Viruses

A
  1. Interfern type 1 is major nonspecific defense
  2. CD8+ cytoxic T cells most important for recovery
  3. IgA and/or IgG prevent reinfection
153
Q

What are the Classifications of Immunodeficiency?

A
  1. Primary: congenital developmental defects
  2. Secondary: acquired disorders (viral, neoplasm, lifestyle)
154
Q

Primary or Inherited Immunodeficiency

TYPES

A
  1. Aspienia
  2. C3 Deficiency: complement
  3. Chronic Granulomatous Disease: phagocyte function
  4. MBL Deficiency: opsonization, phagocytosis
  5. SCID: T and B cell
155
Q

Secondary or Acquired Immunodeficiency

TYPES

A
  1. Viral: HIV, measles
  2. Neoplasm: leukemia, lymphoma
  3. Lifestyle: alcohol abuse
  4. Trauma: burns
  5. Latrogenic: drugs, allograft
156
Q

List the 4 Types of Ointment Bases

A
  1. Oleaginous Base
  2. Absorption Base
  3. Water Removable Base (Oil in Water)
  4. Water Soluble Base
157
Q

List and Classify Oleginous Bases

A
  1. Emollient
  2. White Petrolatum
  3. White Ointment
  4. Yellow Ointment
158
Q

List and Classify Absorption Bases

A
  1. Incorporate small volume of aqueous solutions in hydrocarbon base
  2. Hydrophilic Petrolatum aka Aquaphor
159
Q

List and Classify Water Removable Bases

A
  1. Easily washed from skin
  2. Creams
  3. Sodium Lauryl Sulfate + White Petrolatium + Methylparaben
160
Q

List and Classify Water Soluble Bases

A
  1. Do NOT contain oleaginous component
  2. Greaseless
  3. PEG Ointment
161
Q

What should be avoided in Suppository formulation since it enhances degradation of oleaginous bases?

A

Water

162
Q

What is a suspending agent that can be added to suppositories to decrease the drug settling out?

A

Silica Gel

163
Q

What can be added to delay the release of drugs suppositories by forming a gel that delays dissolution?

A
  1. Methylcellulose
  2. Alginic Acid

Integrated Exam (3 decks)

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