pa44-180 : POH 7

Question 1

how many occupants can this aircraft hold

Answer 1

4

Question 2

what is the luggage compartment capacity

Answer 2

200 lbs

Question 3

what is the nose cone made out of?

Answer 3

fibreglass

Question 4

are aerobatics prohibited in this aircraft?

Answer 4

yes

Question 5

what is the fuselage

Answer 5

a semi-monocoque structure

Question 6

what kind of wing do we have?

Answer 6

semi-tapered design

Question 7

what are the four different types of wings

Answer 7

plain flaps
split flaps
slotted flaps
fowler flaps

Question 8

describe the plain flap

Answer 8

is a simple hinged portion of the trailing edge that is forced down into the airstream to increase the camber of the airfoil

Question 9

describe the split flap

Answer 9

is a plate deflected from the lower surface of the airfoil. Creates a lot of drag because of the turbulent air between the wing and deflected surface

Question 10

describe slotted flap

Answer 10

similar to the plain flap, but moved away from the wing to open a narrow slot between the flap and wing for boundary layer control.
- may cause a slight increase in wing area, but the increase in lift is insignificant

Question 11

describe the fowler flap

Answer 11

is used extensively on larger airplanes.
when extended, it moves down, increasing the camber, and aft, casuing a significant increase in wing area as well as opening one or more slots for boundary layer control

Question 12

what makes up the empennage

Answer 12

vertical stabilizer
all-moveable horizontal stabilator
rudder

Question 13

where is the stabilizer mounted

Answer 13

on top of the vertical fin and it incorporates an anti-servo tab that is longitudinal stability and trim

Question 14

what kind of engines does this aircraft have

Answer 14

Lycoming four cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed fuel injected engines

Question 15

what is each engine rated as

Answer 15

180 hp @ 2700 RPM @ sea level

Question 16

how are the engines cooled

Answer 16

air cooled and equipped with oil coolers with low temp bypass

Question 17

which direction does the left engine rotate? right rotate?

Answer 17

left : clockwise
right : counterclockwise

Question 18

should the alternate air be used while on the ground?

Answer 18

no, it would allow for dust and other contaminates to enter the system

Question 19

what source of air should always be used for takeoff

Answer 19

the primary (filtered) induction source

Question 20

what kind of propellers does this aircraft have?

Answer 20

counter-rotating

Question 21

how many blades is each of the props

Answer 21

two blades

Question 22

what kind of propellers does this aircraft have

Answer 22

two blades
constant speed
controllable pitch
feathering

Question 23

where are the propellers mounted to

Answer 23

directly to the crankshaft

Question 24

pitch is controlled by

Answer 24

oil and nitrogen pressure

Question 25

what drives the propeller toward the high RPM or unfeather position

Answer 25

oil pressure

Question 26

what drives the propeller towards the low RPM or feather position

Answer 26

nitrogen pressure and a large spring

Question 27

what does the prop governor control

Answer 27

engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller to match load torque to engine torque in response to changing flight controls

Question 28

where does the unfeathering accumulators store engine oil

Answer 28

under pressure from the governors, which is then released back to the governors for propeller unfeathering when the propeller control lever is moved out of the feathered position

Question 29

what is a feathering lock operated by

Answer 29

centrifugal force

Question 30

what prevents feathering during engine shutdown by making it impossible to feather any time the engine speed falls below 950rpm

Answer 30

feathering lock

Question 31

the controls (throttle, mixture and propellers) utilize what kind of controls

Answer 31

leflon-lined control cables to reduce friction and binding

Question 32

throttle levers are used to adjust

Answer 32

engine mp

Question 33

when is a CAS caution triggered

Answer 33

higher than 400ft AGL manifold pressure lower than 14" landing gear not down and locked and flaps in the 2nd or 3rd notch

Question 34

when is a CAS warning triggered

Answer 34

lower than 400ft AGL manifold pressure lower than 14" landing gear not down and locked and flaps in the 2nd or 3rd notch

Question 35

the propeller control levers are used to adjust

Answer 35

propeller speed from high RPM (low pitch) to feather (high pitch)

Question 36

when the alternate air lever is in the down (open) position

Answer 36

the engine is operating on unfiltered, heated air

Question 37

what are cowl flaps used for

Answer 37

regulate colling air for the engines

Question 38

the primary flight display displays

Answer 38

airspeed attitude altitude heading information

Question 39

what is the primary function of the PFDs

Answer 39

provide attitude and heading data for from the AHARS and ADC

Question 40

what does the ADC provide

Answer 40

airspeed altitude vertical speed air temp

Question 41

warning messages

Answer 41

repeating triple chime

Question 42

caution messages

Answer 42

non-repeating triple chime

Question 43

advisory message

Answer 43

non-repeating single chime

Question 44

what does the warble tone mean when we are preflighting and starting the aircraft

Answer 44

the autopilot disconnect and preflight test complete

Question 45

what kind of gear does this aircraft have

Answer 45

hydraulically operated, fully retractable, tricycle landing gear

Question 46

on takeoff, landing gear should be retreated before an airspeed of

Answer 46

109 kias is exceeded

Question 47

the landing gear may be lowered at any speed up to

Answer 47

140 kias

Question 48

hydraulic pressure for gear operation is furnished by an

Answer 48

electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump

Question 49

how is the landing gear pump activated

Answer 49

by a 2-position gear selector switch

Question 50

when hydraulic pressure is exerted in one direction the gear is,? and when it is exerted in the other direction the gear is ?

Answer 50

retracted extended

Question 51

how long does gear extension or retraction normally take

Answer 51

between 6-10 seconds

Question 52

landing gear down indications

Answer 52

solid green

Question 53

landing gear up indications

Answer 53

hollow white circles

Question 54

landing gear is transit indications

Answer 54

crosshatches square

Question 55

landing gear abnormal / unknown gear position indications

Answer 55

solid red circles

Question 56

what determines when the gear are in the full up or down and locked positions

Answer 56

microswitches in the landing gear system

Question 57

when is the check gear cas message activated

Answer 57

when gear is not down and locked when the mp is below 14" on either one or both engines when the gear selector switch is in the UP position when the airplane is on the ground when the gear is not down and locked when the wing flaps are extended to the second or third kotch positions

Question 58

Check gear aural alter triggered by flap position can only be silenced by

Answer 58

retracting the flaps or by extending the landing gear

Question 59

where is the squat switch located

Answer 59

on the left main gear

Question 60

what does the squat switch do

Answer 60

prevent the hydraulic pump from actuating when the battery master switch is turned on

Question 61

if the landing system loses it hydraulic pressure, what helps the gear come down

Answer 61

gravity

Question 62

if you have to emergency extend the gear, what must you do before doing so

Answer 62

you must put the landing gear switch in the down position to prevent the pump from trying to raise the gear

Question 63

where is the hydraulic reservoir for the landing gear operation

Answer 63

through a panel in the baggage compartment

Question 64

the nose gear is steerable how many degrees

Answer 64

30 degrees arc on either side

Question 65

the struts for the landing gear are

Answer 65

air-oil assemblies

Question 66

what are all normal braking needs

Answer 66

two single disc double puck brake assemblies

Question 67

what is the purpose of flaps

Answer 67

reduce landing speeds and glide path control

Question 68

how much fuel is stored in each nacelle

Answer 68

55 gallons

Question 69

how much fuel is unusable per nacelle

Answer 69

1 gallon

Question 70

what is the total usable fuel for this aircraft

Answer 70

108 gallons

Question 71

what is the minimum fuel octane

Answer 71

100

Question 72

the fuel tank vents are what kind of feature

Answer 72

anti-icing design to precent the formation of blocking the fuel tank vent lines

Question 73

are there back up fuel pumps

Answer 73

yes, there are auxiliary electric fuel pumps

Question 74

what are the auxiliary fuel pumps controlled by

Answer 74

rocker switches

Question 75

what positions do the electric fuel pumps should be

Answer 75

on during takeoff and landing

Question 76

before each flight, fuel must be drained from

Answer 76

the low points in the fuel system

Question 77

when the fuel tanks are on XFEED, it will draw fuel from

Answer 77

the tank on the opposite side

Question 78

how many volts and amps is the alternator

Answer 78

28 volts 65amps

Question 79

an overvoltage relay in each alternator circuit prevents

Answer 79

damage to electrical and avionics equipment by taking it offline if it exceeds 32 volts

Question 80

how many volts and amp is the battery

Answer 80

24 volts 13.6amps

Question 81

where is the battery located

Answer 81

in the nose of the aircraft

Question 82

what does the emergency bus power

Answer 82

standby instruments PFD functions (except Com2 and Nav2)

Question 83

the emergency bus is sized to provide this functionality for a minimum of

Answer 83

30 minutes

Question 84

the emergency battery is

Answer 84

diode isolated from the electrical power which allows for the system to charge the emergency battery during normal operations

Question 85

what is the emergency battery voltage

Answer 85

23.3 volts prior to flight

Question 86

the essential bus overcurrent protection is provided by a

Answer 86

70 amp batt circuit breaker

Question 87

each alternator overcurrent protection is provided by a

Answer 87

80 amp tie bus L altr and R altr circuit breakers

Question 88

avionics bus overload protection is provided by

Answer 88

25 amp avionics bus circuit breaker

Question 89

overload protection is provided by what for the non essential bus

Answer 89

70 amp non-ess bus

Question 90

anti-collision lights should not be operating when flying

Answer 90

through cloud, fog, or has

Question 91

where is the single pitot head installed

Answer 91

bottom of the left wing

Question 92

a partially or completely blocked pitot head will

Answer 92

give erratic or zero readings on the instruments

Question 93

what kind of heater do we have on the aircraft

Answer 93

a janitrol combustion heater

Question 94

which tank does the heater pull from and how much

Answer 94

the left tank at about 1/2 gallon per hour

Question 95

how to turn the heater off on the ground

Answer 95

turn the three-postion switch to FAN for two minutes with the air intake lever in the open position

Question 96

how to turn the heater off in flight

Answer 96

leave the air intake lever open for a minimum of fifteen seconds after turning the switch to off

Question 97

how big in the baggage compartment

Answer 97

24 cubic ft

Question 98

when is the STALL....STALL aural alert activated

Answer 98

between 5-10 knots above stall speed

Question 99

where are the lift detectors located

Answer 99

on the leading edge of the left wing, outboard of the engine nacelle

Question 100

when are the inboard detector activated

Answer 100

when the flaps are in the 25 and 40 degrees position

Question 101

when are the outboard detector activated

Answer 101

when the flaps are in positions less than 10 degrees

Question 102

the ELT test should be conducted

Answer 102

only the first five minutes of any hour limited to three audio sweeps