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Paediatric Dentistry Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the 4 types of hyperdontia or supernumery ?

A
  • mesiodens
  • supplemental
  • tuberculate
  • conical
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2
Q

what developmental disease is associated with hyperdontia?

A

cleidocranial dystosis

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3
Q

what are the 3 common signs of cleidocranial dystosis?

A
  • hypoplastic clavicle
  • delayed/failed eruption
  • supernumery
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4
Q

name 3 causes of a diastema?

A
  • enlarged labial frenulum
  • odontoma
  • normal physiology (will close after 3s erupt)
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5
Q

what is amelogenesis imperfecta? (2)

A
  • congenital/genetic disease (X linked)

- causes defect in ameloblast function and enamel matrix mineralisation

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6
Q

what are the 3 classifications of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • hypoplastic
  • hypomineralised
  • hypomaturation (enamel can be pierced under form pressure)
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7
Q

what are the 3 stages of enamel formation?

A
  1. formative stage – deposit enamel matrix
  2. calcification stage – matrix mineralize
  3. maturation stage – crystal enlarge and matures (become enamel rods)
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8
Q

what is dentinogenesis imperfecta? (2)

A
  • genetic disorder of tooth developement

- causing dentine dysplasia

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9
Q

what are the 3 signs of dentinogensis imperfecta?

A
  • teeth appearing yellow
  • signs of amelogenesis imperfecta
  • sclerosed canals (seen on radiograph)
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10
Q

what are the 3 types of dentinogensis imperfecta (DI)?

A

type 1: associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
type 2: only DI
type 3: Brandywine isolate

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11
Q

what is the classic sign of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue sclerae (eyes)

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12
Q

what drug could cause dental compiications for patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

bisphosphonates

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13
Q

what causes MIH?

A

caused by the lack of mineralisation of enamel during the maturation phase.

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14
Q

what is Turners hypoplasia?

A

hypoplastic permenant tooth caused by PA infection from previous decidious tooth

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15
Q

what are the 2 developmental disorders that are associated with hypodontia?

A
  • ectodermal dysplasia

- Down’s syndrome

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16
Q

what are the 3 signs of ectodermal dysplasia

A
  • affects males only
  • heat intolerance (lack of sweat glands)
  • hypodontia
  • microdontia (pegged laterals)
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17
Q

what chromosome number defect is causes Down’s syndrome?

A

chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21)

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18
Q

what is anodontia?

A

complete lack of teeth

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19
Q

what is the name of the rare dental malformation that causes “a tooth to be in a tooth”? what dental complication can occur?

A
  • dens invaginatus

- prone to infection and very difficult to RCT

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20
Q

there is a missing lateral incisor, the plan is to bring forward the canine, what are the aesthetic issues?

A
  • yellower than laterals

- wider anatomy

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21
Q

what teeth commonly have a late eruption?

A

canines

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22
Q

what developmental disorder is associated with failed tooth eruption?

A

cleidocranial dystosis

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23
Q

when a tooth is larger or smaller than its normal anatomy, what are they called?

A

macodontia

microdontia

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24
Q

what is the tooth developmental disorder called when 2 crowns have 1 root?

A

Germination

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25
what is the tooth developmental disorder called when 2 teeth are joined together, having separate roots?
Fusion
26
what is it called when there is an extra cusp or bump is formed on a tooth?
dens evaginatus
27
what is it called when an extra cusp forms on an anterior tooth?
Talon's cusp
28
what is the diagnosis? - pulp enlarge vertically - furcation moves down apically. - associated with amelogenesis imperfecta
Taurodontism
29
what is the pathogenesis of taurodontism?
failure or late evagination of HERs
30
what are the 3 most common dental anomalies?
- rotation - hypodontia - impaction
31
why do we only consider XLA 6s after 9.5 years old? (2)
- to prevent mesial tilting of tooth 7 | - once bifurcation of 7 to forms, no issue
32
Name 5 non-pathological, developmental oral medicine conditions in kids?
- haemangioma - geographic tongue - ankyloglossia - spongy neavus - neonatal/natal cyst - eruption cyst - melanotic macule
33
what are the 2 signs and symptoms of a geographic tongue?
- burning sensation with spicy, citrus and acidic food | - red patch with yellow/grey borders
34
what is the medical term of geographic tongue?
benign migratory glossitis
35
Patient has benign migratory glossitis - what is the main concern? (2) - what is the management? (4)
- candidal infection - discomfort Tx plan - avoid spicy, citrus and acidic food - OHI and 0.2% CHX MW - antifungal (miconazole gel or nystatin suspension) - Difflam (benzydamine MW)
36
Name 6 non-pathological, reactive oral medicine conditions?
- fibroma - pyogenic granuloma - traumatic ulcer - extravasation mucocele - ranula - orofacial granulomatosis (OFG)
37
what are the signs of OFG? (4)
- lip and facial swelling - gingival hyperplasia - angular cheilitis - cobble-stoned mucosa (also found in Crohn's disease)
38
Patient has suspected OFG, what additional investigations are required? (3)
- blood test (B12, folate) - patch test - biopsy
39
what sort of diet are patient's with OFG sensitive to? (2)
- benzoate | - cinnamon
40
what soft drink does not contain benzoate?
diet coke
41
What are the 5 viruses that may cause dental conditions and what is the condition called?
- Varicella Zoster (Herpes zoster) - Herpes Simplex (PHG) - Coxsackie (herpangina, hand/foot/mouth) - Epstein-Bar (glandular fever) - MMR
42
what is the medical term for glandular fever?
infective mononucleosis
43
what is MMR and how is it related to dentistry? (3)
mumps - parotid swelling, flu-like symptoms measles - Kopilks spots, fever rubella - german measles
44
recurrent aphthous ulcers - 3 types? - what are the difference?
minor - small, only on non-keratinized mucosa major - bigger, slow to heal on both keratinized and non-keratinized mucosa herpetiform - frequent
45
what are the 3 main causes of TMD?
- disc displacement - degenerative joint disease - psychosocial factors
46
what are the 2 types of disc displacement types in TMD? what is are the signs?
- with reduction (has clicking/popping and pain) | - without reduction (limited jaw opening)
47
TMD management - 4 advises - 2 prescriptions
advices - soft diet - analgesic - jaw exercises - don't chew gum prescriptions - diazepam - stabilisation splint
48
what are the 3 common cysts of the jaw?
- radicular - residual - dentigerous - orokeratocyst (OKC)
49
OKC - signs/symptoms (2) - recurrence rate - pathogenesis origin?
- no tooth mobility - little or no expansion - 60% recurrence rate - Gland of Serres (dental lamina remnant)
50
what is the condition called if there are multiple OKC lesions?
- Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome | - Gorlin Syndrome
51
name 4 common tumours of the jaw
- ameloblastoma - odontomes - juvenile ossifying fibroma - sarcoma
52
what is the odontogenic origin of an odontome?
benign mixed epithelial odontogenic tumour
53
what is the odontogenic origin of an ameloblastoma?
benign epithelial odontogenic tumour
54
4 signs of a lesion that you should refer?
- more than 2 weeks - bleeding, ulcerative - lymph node involvement - risk factors present (smoking, betel nut chewing)
55
Patient has asthma. Name 3 dental implications
- dry mouth - candidiasis - dental erosion (low pH of inhaler)
56
Patient has asthma. What 3 dental treatment is contraindicated (1) or be used with caution (2) ?
contraindication - NSAID caution - GA (increased risk of bronchospasm) - Fluoride varnish - Elastoplasts
57
why do we need to be cautious when using elastoplast or fluoride varnish in pt with asthma? (2)
- has colophony (rosin) | - causes allergic contact dermatitis
58
DKA. - what is it? - why it happens? - what happens to body? - Tx?
- diabetic ketoacidosis - body breaking down fat as unable to use glucose in blood as energy source - blood becomes acidic - insulin injection
59
symptoms of DKA? (4)
- nausea / vomiting - increased thirst - excessive urination - "fruity" breath smell
60
oral features of pt with Downs syndrome? (6)
- mid face hypoplasia - narrow palate - large fissured tongue - microdontia - delayed eruption - crossbites / class 3 malocclusion / anterior open bites
61
Pt with Down's Syndrome. - caries risk? - why? (3)
low - shallow fissures - high salivary pH - spaced dentition
62
what problems (2) can cause for Down's syndrome during GA? and why (1)
- weak atlanto-axial spine - narrow respiratory airway why? - spine damage during intubation
63
what dental implications happen in pt with cerebral palsy? (4)
- poor plaque control - malocclusion - wear (bruxism, erosion) - enamel hypoplasia
64
pt with cerebral palsy usually have a PEG. what does it stand for?
Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastronomy
65
name 3 bleeding disorders. what clotting factors are they missing? (3)
haemophilia A - factor 8 haemophilia B - factor 9 Von Willibrands - VWB factor
66
what 2 drugs are commonly prescribed for VWB disease? what are their functions (2 each) ?
oral tranexamic acid - antifibrolytic - stops prolonged bleeding desmopressin - diuretic - stimulates endothelial cells to produce VWB factors
67
name 3 types of anaemia
- sickle cell - deficiency - thalassemia (abnormal haemogoblin synthesis)
68
what does ADHD stand for?
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
69
what is the ASA classification?
american society of anesthesiology ``` class 1 - healthy 2 - mild disease 3 - severe disease 4 - life threatening disease 5 - expected to die with surgery 6 - brain dead ```

Dental (16 decks)

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