Paediatric Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

During your ward round on the paediatric unit you review a 5-year-old Caucasian male who has been admitted for chemotherapy as he has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). His mother worriedly asks you what his chance of survival is and how you work this out.

On reviewing the patient notes, you see he is on the 95th percentile for weight and the 60th for height. His white cell count at diagnosis was 12 * 10^9/l and there were no noted T or B cell markers on his blood film.

Which feature from this case is a poor prognostic factor?

A. Caucasian

B. Male sex

C. Presentation under the age of 5

D. White cell count over 11 * 10^9/l at diagnosis

E. Obesity

A

B. Male sex

It is male sex that is the poor prognostic factor here. Being Caucasian is not a poor prognostic factor.

Other poor prognostic factors are: presenting <2 years or >10 years; having B or T cell surface markers; and having a WCC > 20 * 10^9/l at diagnosis.

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2
Q

what are some poor prognostic factors of ALL?

A
  1. age < 2 years or > 10 years
  2. WBC > 20 * 109/l at diagnosis
  3. T or B cell surface markers
  4. non-Caucasian
  5. male sex
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3
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for ALL?

A
  1. anaemia: lethargy and pallor
  2. neutropaenia: frequent or severe infections
  3. thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechiae
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4
Q

when should dexamethasone should be considered in meningitis?

A
  1. frankly purulent CSF
  2. CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre
  3. raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre
  4. bacteria on Gram stain
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5
Q

A 2-year-old boy with several small bruise-like lesions is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She reports first noticing these lesions on her son’s abdomen when bathing him two days ago, despite no obvious preceding trauma. The bruising does not appear to be spreading.

Notably, the child had mild coryzal symptoms one week ago, though has now recovered.

On examination, the child appears well in himself and is smiling. There are 4 small petechiae on the patient’s abdomen. The examination is otherwise unremarkable.

Given the likely diagnosis, what would be an indication for bone marrow biopsy?

A. Epistaxis

B. Folate deficiency

C. Photophobia

D. Splenomegaly

E. Thrombocytopenia

A

D. Splenomegaly

Children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP): bone marrow examination is only required if there are atypical features

The correct answer is splenomegaly. This patient’s presentation is in keeping with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), characterised by a petechial rash in an otherwise well child. ITP is an autoimmune destruction of platelets that may be triggered by a preceding viral illness.

Atypical findings that may warrant bone marrow biopsy include:
1. splenomegaly
2. bone pain
3. diffuse lymphadenopathy, which may suggest an underlying myeloproliferative malignancy
4. high/low WCC
5. failure to respond to treatment

Not E. Thrombocytopenia.
Thrombocytopenia is incorrect, as this is an expected finding in patients with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Thrombocytopenia is not an atypical finding in ITP and therefore is not an indication for bone marrow biopsy.

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6
Q

treatment for ITP

A
  1. usually, no treatment is required
    -ITP resolves in around 80% of children with 6 months, with or without treatment
  2. advice to avoid activities that may result in trauma (e.g. team sports)
  3. other options may be indicated if the platelet count is very low (e.g. < 10 * 109/L) or there is significant bleeding. Options include:
    A) oral/IV corticosteroid
    B) IV immunoglobulins
    C) platelet transfusions can be used in an emergency (e.g. active bleeding) but are only a temporary measure as they are soon destroyed by the circulating antibodies
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7
Q

symptoms of ITP:

A

-bruising
-petechial or purpuric rash
-bleeding is less common and typically presents as epistaxis or gingival bleeding

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8
Q

Symptoms of TTP (mnemonic):

A

pentad: Nasty fever ruined my tubes:
1. neuro symptoms (eg confusion)
2. fever
3. (acute) renal failure/haematuria
4. MAHA
5. thrombocytopenia

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9
Q

what is the pathophysiology of TTP? Associated with:

A

antibodies against ADAMTS13 lead to long strands of VWF which
act like cheese wire in the blood vessels, cutting up RBCs.
TTP driven by deficiency of ADAMTS13 (which normally cleave sticky VWF multimers into monomers)
-cancer, pregnancy

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10
Q

HUS pathophysiology

A

Shiga-like toxin released by E.coli 0157:H7 in the glomerular vessels (uraemia)

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11
Q

Pathophysiology of DIC:

A

excessive exposure to tissue factor (extrinsic pathway): associated with trauma, sepsis, cancer, inflammation eg pancreatitis

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12
Q

DIC causes mnemonic:

A

I’M STONeD!)’:
-Immunological (e.g. severe allergic
reactions, haemolytic transfusion reactions, pancreatitis),
-Miscellaneous (e.g. aortic
aneurysm, liver disease),
-Sepsis/snake bites
-Trauma (including serious tissue injury,
burns, extensive surgery),
-Obstetric (e.g. amniotic fluid embolism, placental
abruption)
- Neoplastic (myeloproliferative disorders as well as
solid tumours such as pancreatic cancer)
- Drugs

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13
Q

why is blood so watery/unable to clot in DIC?

A

anticoagulant factors (adjustment) > procoagulant factor loss

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14
Q

why does TTP cause fever?

A

fever in TTP is likely caused by the release of cytokines in response to the formation of blood clots throughout the body.

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15
Q

What are Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Multinucleated lymphocytes (lymphocytes which have a bilobed nucleus with a dense eosinophilic cytoplasm, “owl’s eye appearance”)

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16
Q

what blood investigations would be present in DIC?

A

prolonged prothrombin time (extrinsic) and activated partial thromboplastin time (intrinsic)
-low platelets, low fibrinogen and low clotting factors.
-Markers of thrombosis like D-dimer and fibrin degradation products will be high.

17
Q

APML investigation findings:

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Increased prothrombin time
  3. Increased fibrin degradation products (such as D-dimer)
  4. Decreased fibrinogen

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an uncommon subtype of acute myelogenous leukaemia that is associated with DIC.

18
Q

symptoms of DIC:

A

e.g. epistaxis, gingival bleeding, haematuria, bleeding from cannula sites.

Patients may also present with fever, confusion, or coma.

19
Q

A 3-year-old girl presents to the general practitioner with a 2-week history of fever and fatigue. She has presented to A&E 4 times in the last 6 months with recurrent infections. On examination, there is widespread painless lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. In addition, there are petechiae on her forearms.

Which of the following is the next best investigation?

A. Abdominal ultrasound

B. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis

C. Full blood count

D. Lymph node biopsy

E. Bone marrow biopsy

A

C. Full blood count

This patient presents with symptoms of bone marrow failure: fatigue indicating anaemia, recurrent infections indicating low white blood cells, and petechiae indicating thrombocytopenia. There are also signs of organ infiltration, given the painless widespread lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. This is most likely in keeping with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). This needs to be urgently investigated with a full blood count in the first instance.

Not D: Lymph node biopsy

This patient presents with symptoms of bone marrow failure: fatigue indicating anaemia, recurrent infections indicating low white blood cells, and petechiae indicating thrombocytopenia. There are also signs of organ infiltration, given the painless widespread lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. This is most likely in keeping with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). This needs to be urgently investigated with a full blood count in the first instance.

20
Q

ALL distribution:

A

ALL has a bimodal distribution typically affecting children under 6 years of age and adults over 80.

21
Q

Most common sign in ALL? What other symptoms might be present?

A

Lymphadenopathy is the most common sign in ALL.

Other symptoms which may be present include: hepatosplenomegaly, pallor or petechiae, fever, fatigue, dizziness, weakness, and epistaxis.

22
Q

How is ALL diagnosed?

A

ALL is diagnosed definitively through bone marrow biopsy (however very invasive therefore urgent FBC is more appropriate in 1st instance)

23
Q

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric emergency department by his father. His father is concerned as he has developed a pinprick purple rash on the back of his legs and has been complaining of stomach and knee pain for the last few days. Prior to this, he had a cold.

His vital signs are normal.

Which of the following is the next most appropriate step of management?

A. Steroids

B. Intravenous Fluids

C. Anti-hypertensives

D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

E. Antibiotics

A

D. NSAIDs

This is a case of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It commonly presents with a triad of purpura/petechiae on the buttocks and lower limbs, abdominal pain and arthralgia. Other features include haematuria, proteinuria, pyrexia and hypertension.

The majority of HSP cases are self-limiting and resolve completely. Therefore, simple analgesia such as NSAIDs and/or paracetamol can be used. In severe cases, steroids may be indicated. If hypertension is present, antihypertensives may also be indicated.

Not A: Steroids

24
Q

HSP tetrad/signs/symptoms:

A
  1. purpura/petechiae in buttocks/lower libs, 2. abdominal pain
  2. Nephritis (haematuria +/- proteinuria)
  3. athralgia

-May be pyrexial
-HSP is commonly preceded by a viral upper respiratory tract infection

25
Q

management of HSP:

A
  1. NSAIDs for analgesia and their anti-inflammatory effect
  2. Antihypertensives may be needed to control blood pressure
  3. After an episode of HSP, children should have regular urine dips for 12 months to check for renal impairment.
  4. steroids if severe
26
Q

prognosis of HSP:

A
  1. The majority of cases of HSP recover completely
  2. 1/3 of patients have a second episode of HSP
  3. Long-term renal impairment occurs in about 1/5 patients with significant proteinuria
27
Q

A 14-year-old boy attends the GP due to ongoing joint pain. Three weeks ago he was seen in A&E for shoulder pain and stiffness following a minor fall and he was discharged with no concern. In clinic today, he reports that the pain has gotten progressively worse and he has noticed that over the last week his shoulder has become more swollen.

On examination there is a generalised, smooth, tender swelling just below the right shoulder joint, with reduced range of movement in all directions. There are no overlying skin changes. His doctor suspects that the pain and swelling may be due to malignancy.

What is the most important next step in this patient’s management?

A. X-ray within 48 hours

B. Joint aspiration

C. 2-week wait specialist referral

D. Non-urgent X-ray

E. Discharge with stronger pain relief

A

A. X-ray within 48 hours

This child has presented with an unexplained bone swelling and persistent pain, in this age group you need to make a very urgent (48-hour) referral for an X-ray to assess for bone sarcomas. Osteosarcomas are the most common non-haematological primary malignant neoplasm of the bone in children. Bone sarcomas are rare, and it is not uncommon for there to be a delay in diagnosis

28
Q

most common bone cancer in paediatric patients:

A

osteosarcoma

29
Q

presentation/diagnosis/management of osteosarcoma:

A

Presentation
1. Pain and swelling with a prolonged onset are characteristic
2. Typically occurs in the metaphyses of long bones

Diagnosis
1. The X-ray findings of new bony growth and a periosteal reaction causing a sunburnt appearance are typical of osteosarcoma

  1. Signs visualised on X-ray should prompt and urgent full body CT in order to assess for any metastases.
  2. The definitive diagnosis is confirmed using bone biopsy taking into account the clinical picture and radiological findings.

Management
1. MDT approach, which may include surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy

30
Q

what virus causes hand foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackievirus A16

31
Q

ABO incompatibility vs Rhesus incompatibility:

A

For ABO incompatibility, the effects are usually mild and go away with time, but with Rh incompatibility, the consequences can be very serious
-both cause haemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)

-The most common form of HDN is Rhesus disease, where the mother’s blood group is Rhesus negative and the baby’s is Rhesus positive.

Another common cause is ABO Incompatability, where mother’s blood group is O’ and baby’s is A,B or AB.

32
Q

Neutropenic sepsis treatment & most likely organism:

A

IV Tazocin (broad spectrum: piperacillin and tazobactam). The use of glycosides eg gentamicin (dual therapy) should be reserved for unstable patients
-thorough physical examination
-blood cultures (including sampling blood from the portacath)
-urine sample for MC&S

-Pseudomonas aeruginosa