Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Developmental milestones of gross motor?

A

3 mths - neck holding
5 mths - rolls over
6 mths - sits in tripod fashion (sitting w own support)
8 mths - sitting w/o support
9 mths - stands holding on (w support)
12 mths - creeps well; walks but falls; stands without supports
15 mths - walks alone; creeps upstairs
18 mths - runs; explores drawers
2 yrs - walks up & downstairs (2 feet/steps); jumps
3 yrs - rides tricycle; alternate feet going upstairs
4 yrs - hops on one foot

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2
Q

What are the components of TOF?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding of aorta

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3
Q

What are the surface markings of liver?

A

Upper border: 4th ICS in midclavicular line
Lower border: 9th ICS in midclavicular line
Lateral border: 6th rib in midaxillary line

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4
Q

What are the functions of liver?

A

Synthetic: albumin, gluconeogenesis, coagulation factors and protein C, S and antithtombin
Metabolism: sugar, fat & protein
Excretion: bilirubin
Detoxification: drugs and hormones (estrogen)
Storage: Vitamin A (lasts for 6 mths), vitamin B12, glycogen reservoir, iron and copper
Secretory: bile - for absorption of fats
Protective: reticuloendothelial system helps in destruction of bacteria
Miscellaneous: produces heat

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5
Q

What are the indications of splenectomy?

A

S: splenic abscess, massive splenomegaly
H: hypersplenism, hemolytic anemia
I: idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (chronic)
R: rupture of spleen: trauma
T: thrombosis of splenic vein - extrahepatic portal HTN
S: staging laparotomy in Hodgkin disease & lymphoreticular malignanciea

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6
Q

What are the functions of spleen?

A

• Reservoir for platelets, factor VIII, monocytes, erythrocytes & leucocytes
• Hematopoiesis in fetus
• repair & destruction of RBCs (Graveyard of RBCs)
• Immune functions: produces IgM, properdin and tuftsin. Macrophages in seen help in phagocytosis

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7
Q

What are the indications of femoral vein cannulation/ femoral line?

A

• Secure or long-term venous access that is not available using other sites
• Inability to obtain peripheral venous access or intraosseous infusion
• IV infusion of fluids and drugs for patients in cardiac arrest
• IV infusion of concentrated or irritating fluids
• IV infusion of high flows or large fluid volumes if placement of large-bore (eg, 18 or 16 gauge) peripheral venous catheters or other CVCs is not feasible
• Hemodialysis or plasmapheresis
• Transvenous cardiac pacing (see video How to Insert a Transvenous Pacemaker) or pulmonary arterial monitoring (Swan-Ganz catheter)*
• Placement of inferior vena cava filter
• Need for central venous access in patients with superior vena cava syndrome

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8
Q

Contraindications of femoral line?

A

Absolute C/I:

• Intra-abdominal hemorrhage or regional trauma
• Femoral vein thrombosis
• Local infection at the insertion site
• Antibiotic-impregnated catheter in an allergic patient

Relative C/I:
• Coagulopathy, including therapeutic anticoagulation*
• Local anatomic distortion (traumatic or congenital), or gross obesity
• History of prior catheterization of the intended central vein
• Uncooperative patient (should be sedated if necessary)
• Ambulatory patient

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9
Q

Differentiate between simple and complex febrile seizures

A

Simple febrile seizures:
- Primary generalized
- Usually tonic-clonic attack associated with fever
- Seizure lasts for max of 15 mins
- No recurrence within 24 hrs

Complex febrile seizures:
- Focal
- More prolonged (> 15 mins)
- Reoccur within 24 hrs

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of febrile seizures?

A
  • body stiffness
  • limbs twitching, shaking and jerking
  • loss of consciousness
  • vomiting or urinate during seizure
  • frothing at mouth
  • irregular breathing
  • moan or cry
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11
Q

What are the risk factors for recurrence of seizures?

A

Major:
- Age < 1 year
- Duration of fever < 24 hrs
- Fever 38-39C (100.4-102.2F)

Minor:
- Family h/o febrile seizures
- Family h/o epilepsy
- Complex febrile seizure
- Daycare
- Male gender
- Lower serum sodium at time of presentation

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12
Q

What is acute flaccid paralysis?

A

Clinical syndrome characterized by rapid onset of weakness progressing to maximum severity within several days to weeks
Flaccid = absence of spasticity or other upper motor neurons

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13
Q

What are the common causes of acute flaccid paralysis?

A
  • Guillain-Barre Syndrome
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Traumatic neuritis
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14
Q

What is Landry Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A
  • Known as acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy. Due to hypersensitivity, there is immunological reaction directed against the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves.
  • Post-infective disease causing generalized paralysis and areflexia
  • Involves spinal root, peripheral nerve and occasionally cranial nerve
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15
Q

What are the predisposing factors of Guillain Barre Syndrome?

A
  • Infections (Epstein Barr virus, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, Hepatitis A and B, bacterial infections like Campylobacter jejuni)
  • SLE
  • Hodgkin disease
  • sarcoidosis
  • immunosuppression
  • rabies vaccine
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16
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A
  • brain damage that causes loss of muscle control
  • a neurodevelopmental disease; poor development or a part of the brain

Congenital non-progressive disorder (doesn’t get worse over time) of posture and movements often associated with movements and epilepsy and abnormalities of speech, vision and intellect.
Results from a defect or lesion of the developing brain (abnormal brain development, often before birth)

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17
Q

What are the causes of cerebral palsy?

A

Prenatal causes:
- infection
- hypoxia
- metabolic
- toxic
- genetic: chromosomal abnormalities
- cerebral infarction
- drugs: teratogenic
- anomalies of brain

Natal causes:
- hypoxia
- birth trauma of brain
- low birth weight and prematurity

Postnatal causes:
- Infections
- Toxins
- Head trauma
- Metabolic: hypoglycemia (causes brain fuel deprivation), hyperbilirubinemia (high bilirubin can cross the blood brain barrier and damage the brain and spinal cord)

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18
Q

What are the clinical features of cerebral palsy?

A
  • Delayed motor and mental milestones
  • Abnormal reflexes: persistence of primitive reflexes, failure to develop maturational/postural responses
  • Abnormal muscle tone (hypertonic/hypotonic)
  • Abnormal movements/seizures
  • Definite hand preference before 1 year (hemiplegia)
  • Skeletal deformities and joint contractures (secondary to spastic muscles)
  • Growth disturbances
  • Gait abnormalities
  • Problems with posture, balance, coordination, walking, speech, hearing, vision, swallowing, bowel and bladder
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19
Q

What are the types of cerebral palsy?

A

a) Spastic CP
- most common
- tightness/stiffness of muscles resulting from a lesion in the upper motor neuron. The ability of some of these neurons to receive GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter) impaired > neurons are overexcited > hypertonia (abnormal increase in muscle activity)
- Pt can have Windswept deformities (abduction and external rotation of one hip with adduction and internal rotation of another hip)
- Other features: hip dislocation, pelvic tilt, scoliosis and rib deformities, muscle shortening, dystonic posture, abnormal limb growth and contractures
- Associated clinical features: feeding difficulty, constipation, reflex esophagitis

b) Dyskinetic CP
- damage/injury to basal ganglia (role: initiate and prevent movements) > unable to prevent movements > involuntary extrapyramidal movements
- Child is hypotonic at birth
- At 1-3 yrs of age: abnormal movements patterns emerge (dystonia - random, slow, uncontrolled movements in limbs/trunk, chorea - random, dance-like movements, athetosis & choreoathetosis)

c) Ataxic (without order)
- damage to cerebellum (helps with coordination and fine movements) and the adjacent brainstem
Clinical features:
hypotonia in all 4 limbs
intellectual impairement
intention tremors (your hands start shaking when you reach for something)
reflexes: decreased/absent
gait: Wide-based gait
cerebellar signs: gross incoordination, impaired writing skills, dysmetria (lack of ability to judge distances correctly), hypotonia, ataxic gait, nystagmus is rare

d) Hypotonic/Atonic CP
- Rare. Lesion may be in frontal lobe and basal ganglia
- Occurs in early gestational period or soon after birth due to asphyxia neonatarum
Characteristic features:
- Hypotonia generalized o limited to lower limbs
- Hyperreflexia: Deep tendon reflex exaggerated
- Severe mental defect
- Forester’s sign: when lift the child by holding axilla, there will be flexion of hips. Later they will develop dystonia or spasticity

e) Dystonic CP
- abnormalities of posture movements
- trunk and proximal limbs are affected
- slow and persistent movement
- abnormal movements involving head and neck

f) Mixed CP
- Both pyramidal & extrapyramidal types
- Features of spasticity and choreoathetosis often coexist along with ataxic movements

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20
Q

What are the phases of dyskinetic CP?

A

Hypotonic phase: at birth
Dystonic phase: by 4 mths of life; no head control persistence of primitive reflexes, mass movements, sluggish tendon jerks)
Stage of involuntary movements: 1-3 years

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21
Q

What are the investigations to be done for cerebral palsy?

A

To rule out other disorders:
- urine screening test
- TORCH
- EEG
- CT scan of brain
- MIR
- nerve biopsy
- X-Ray spine
- X-Ray skull
- Myelogram
- Genetic evaluation: chromosome analysis
- Metabolic work-up: to rule out inborn errors of metabolism
- EMG

Diagnostic tests:
- Hip radiographs
- MRI/CT scan of brain
- Gait analysis
- EMG (electromyography)

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22
Q

What are the causes of uniform abdominal distension?

A

Fluid: ascites
Flatus
Fetus: pregnancy
Fat: obesity
Feces: intestinal obstruction

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23
Q

What are the causes of localized abdominal distention?

A

Localized ascites
Large bowel obstruction
Cyst (ovarian or peritoneal)
Tumors (kidney masses, neuroblastoma)
Fetus in early pregnancy
Lower abdomen: distended bladder
Upper abdomen: organomegaly (liver or spleen)

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24
Q

What is the normal bowel sound frequency?

A

Small bowel (10-15 per min)
Large bowel (3-5 per min)

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25
Q

What are the conditions in which there is increased/decreased bowel sound frequency?

A

Increased:
Intestinal obstruction
Hyperthyroidism
Diarrhea

Decreased/absent:
Peritonitis
Hypokalemia
Paralytic ileus

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26
Q

What are the grades of hepatomegaly?

A

Mild (<4 cm below the right subcostal margin)
Moderate (5-7 cm below the right subcostal margin)
Massive (>7 cm below the right subcostal margin)

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27
Q

What is the normal circulation of CSF?

A

Right and left lateral ventricles >
Foramen of Monro > Third ventricle > Aqueduct of Sylvius >
Fourth ventricle > 1 medial (Foramen of Magendie) and 2 lateral (Foramen of Luschka) > Cisterna magna >
Arachnoid granulations (site of reabsorption back into the venous system) > sagittal sinus > venous drainage

28
Q

What are the different types of breathing at various ages?

A

Infact: abdominal or diaphragmatic
Young children: abdominothoracic
Older children after 7-8 yrs: thoracic

29
Q

Describe the feeding of infants at various ages?

A

Birth to 6 mths: exclusive breastfeeding
From 6 mths onwards: Breast milk, complementary feeds
7-8 months: curds can be added
9 mths: egg yolk can be added
10-11 mths: egg white can be given
12 mths: can share parent’s food without spices; takes 4-5 meals a day

30
Q

How to identify that breast milk is not enough for the infant?

A
  • Baby has inadequate weight gain or the weight remains stationary
  • The baby cries soon after feeding
  • Baby has constipation
  • Baby falls sick often
31
Q

What are marasmic features?

A

Weight )decreased <60% of expected
Muscle wasting: can be seen at temporalis and scapular muscles. Measurement of MAC also indicated muscle wasting
Growth retardation: marked stunting
Loss of subcutaneous tissue: old man appearance. Loose folds of skin can be seen over the glutei and inner side of thigh

32
Q

What are the normal pulse rates at various ages groups?
<6 months: __ bpm
6-12 months: __ bpm
1-5 years: __ bpm
6-12 years: __ bpm
>12 years: __ bpm

A

<6 months: 120-160 bpm
6-12 months: 110-120 bpm
1-5 years: 95-110 bpm
6-12 years: 80-110 bpm
>12 years: 60-100 bpm

33
Q

What are the normal respiratory rates?

A

Up to 2 months: 30-50 months (normal), >60 (tachypnea)
2-12 months: 20-40 (normal), >50 tachypnea
12 mths to 5 yrs: 20-30 (normal), >40 (tachypnea)
5-10 years: 15-20 (normal), >30 (tachypnea)
>10 years: 15-18 (normal), >30 (tachypnea)

34
Q

What are the types of productive coughs?

A
  • Rusty coloured sputum: S. Pneumoniae
  • Green sputum: Pseudomonas/Hemophilus/Pneumococcal
  • Red currant jelly: Klebsiella species
  • Foul smelling/bad tasting: anaerobic species
35
Q

What are the grades of fever?

A
  • Normal (37-38 C)
  • Mild/low grade (38.1-39 C)
  • Moderate (39.1-40 C)
  • High grade (40.1-41.1 C)
  • Hyperpyrexia (>41.1 C)
36
Q

What are the conditions in which fever with night sweats are seen?

A

Infectious diseases like TB, Nocardia, Brucellosis, liver or lung abscess, subacute infective endocarditis
Non-infectious diseases like polyarteritis nodosa and cancers (lymphoma)

37
Q

In which conditions is fever with bradycardia seen?

A

Untreated typhoid
Leishmaniasis
Brucellosis
Legionnaire’s disease
Psittacosis
Yellow fever

38
Q

Breastfeeding advice

A
  • Baby should be breastfed on demand
  • During feeding, baby should be allowed to feed on one breast until the milk flow stops spontaneously. Then, the mother should offer the other breast until completely satisfied
    Proper positioning:
  • The infant’s head, neck and body should be held in a straight line
  • The whole of the baby’s body should be supported, not just the head and neck
  • The baby’s face should be directly in front of mother’s breast
  • The baby’s body should be close to the mother’s body
    Proper attachment:
  • The chin should touch the breast
  • The mouth of the baby should be wide open
  • The baby’s lower lip should be turned out
  • most areola and nipple should be in baby’s mouth. More areola should be visible above than below the baby’s mouth
39
Q

What are the causes of iron deficiency anemia?

A
  • Poor intake of dietary iron
  • Poor absorption (celiac disease, giardiasis, dug intake)
  • Poor bioavailability of iron (breastmilk iron is more bioavailable compared to cow’s milk)
  • Increased iron requirements (prematurity twins, ages 3 mths-2 years and 11-16 years, menstruating women, pregnancy and lactation)
  • Excess loss of iron
40
Q

What are the primary neonatal reflexes?
What are the reflexes in a baby?

A

1) Moro reflex. Best elicited by sudden dropping of the baby’s head in relation to trunk; response is opening of hands and extension and abduction of upper extremities, followed by anterior flexion of upper extremities with an audible cry. Hand opening is present by 28 weeks, extension and abduction by 32 weeks and anterior flexion by 37 weeks.
Disappears by 3-6 months

2) Palmar grasp clearly present at 28 weeks, strong at 32 weeks

3) Tonic neck response - rotation of the head > causes extension of upper extremity on the side to which the face is rotated and flexion of upper extremity on the side of the occiput.
Disappears by 4 months

Reflexes in a baby:
1) Rooting reflex. When cheek on the side of the mouth is touched, the baby opens its mouth and searches for the nipple. Helps the baby to find the nipple and in proper attachment to the breast

2) The suckling reflex. When the baby’s palate is touched with nipple, baby starts sucking movements

3) The swallowing reflex. When the mouth is filled with milk, the baby reflexly swallows the milk

41
Q

What is Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?
What are the key features of KMC?

A

KMC: care of preterm or LBW infants by placing the infant in skin-to-skin contact with mother or any other caregiver.

Key features:
- Started early after birth and ideally provided continuously and for prolonged period
- Exclusive breastfeeding
- Initiated in the birthing facility/hospital, the baby is discharged early and KMC continues at home

42
Q

What are the examples of live-attenuated vaccines? Killed/inactivated vaccines?

A

Live attenuated vaccines:
- BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin), oral typhoid, oral poliovirus, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, rotavirus, yellow fever, influenza (intranasal), hepatitis A

Killed/inactivated:
- Whole cell pertussis, inactivated poliovirus, rabies, Hepatitis A, Influeza

43
Q

What is transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN)?

A

Benign self-limiting disease occurring usually in term neonates and is due to delayed clearance of lung fluid.
They have tachypnea with minimal or no respiratory distress

44
Q

What are the clinical features of hypocalcemia?

A
  • Carpopedal and muscle spasms
  • Tetany
  • Laryngospasm
  • Paresthesias
  • Seizures
  • Irritability, depression, psychosis
  • Intracranial HTN
  • Prolonged QTc interval
45
Q

What is Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM)?

A

SAM among children 6-59 months of age is defined by WHO and UNICEF as any of the following three criterias:
i) Weight-for-height below -3 standard deviation (<-3SD) on the WHO Growth Standard or
ii) Presence of bipedal edema
iii) MUAC below 11.5 cm (not used in child < 6 months)

46
Q

What are the predisposing factors of UTI?

A
  • Female sex (short urethra, close approximation to anus, wiping from back to front)
  • congenital anomalies of urinary tract
  • neuropathic bladder with incomplete emptying or detrusor-bladder dyssynergia
  • obstructive uropathy
  • DM
  • voiding dysfx
  • constipation
  • immunosuppression
  • malnutrition
  • inadequate/ improper toilet training
  • iatrogenic: frequent instrumentation, catheterization
47
Q

What are the signs of meningeal irritation?

A
  • Neck stiffness (resistance of neck flexion due to spasm of extensor muscles of neck)
  • Kernig sign: Pt in supine position > examiner should flex the hip and knee > followed by passive extension of knee > straighten the pt’s leg slowly. Meningeal irritation = difficulty in straightening leg
  • Brudzinski sign:
    a) Neck sign: flexion of neck produces flexion of hips and knees
    b) Leg sign: Flexion of one lower limb causes flexion of opposite limb immediately
  • Benda sign: Turn head and chin to one side and observe shoulder. +ve = upwards and forward movements of the neck
48
Q

How is physiological jaundice different from pathological jaundice?

A

Physiological jaundice:
- physiological immaturity of neonates to handle increased bilirubin production
- visible jaundice appears at 24-72 hours of age
- Total serum bilirubin peaks at 3 days of age and then falls in term neonates
- No tx required

Pathological jaundice:
- Elevation of TSB > tx is required
- TSB level is pathological if: exceeds 15 mg/dL on first day, 10 mg/dL on second day, or 15 mg/dL thereafter in term babies
- Presence of any of the following signs indicates pathological jaundice:
> clinical jaundice detected before 24 hours of age
> rise in serum bilirubin by more than 5 mg/dL/day
> serum bilirubin more than 15 mg/dL
> clinical jaundice persisting beyond 14 days of life
> clay/white-coloured stool and/or dark urine staining the clothes yellow
> Direct bilirubin >2mg/dL at any time

49
Q

What are the risk factors for development of severe hyperbilirubinemia?

A
  • Jaundice observed in first 24 hours
  • Blood group incompatibility with positive direct antiglobulin test, other known hemolytic disease
  • Gestational age: 35-36 weeks
  • Previous sibling received phototherapy
  • Cephalohematoma or significant bruising
  • Inadequate breastfeeding, with excessive weight loss
  • East Asian race
50
Q

What are the features of marasmus?

A
  • severe wasting
  • loss of buccal pad of fat = wrinkled appearance/monkies facies
  • baggy pants appearance (loose skin of buttocks hanging down)
  • no edema
51
Q

What are the features of kwashiokor?

A

common: 1-4 yrs of age
- fat sugar baby appearance
- edema
- muscle wasting
- skin changes (skin lesions, increased pigmentation, desquamation, dyspigmentation)
- anemia
- mucous membrane lesions
- hair changes (dyspigmentation, loss of characteristic curls)
- mental changes (unhappiness, apathy/irritability with sad, intermittent cry)
- tremors
- CVS: cold, pale extremities
- reduced glomerular function & renal plasma flow

52
Q

What are the features of marasmic kwashiokor?

A
  • edema present
  • ma or may not have other signs of kwashiokor & have varied manifestations of marasmus
53
Q

What is the classification of birth weight of babies?

A
  • Low birth weight (LBW): Less than 2500 grams at birth
  • Very low birth weight (VLBW): less than 1500 g at birth
  • Extremely low birth weight (ELBW): less than 1000g at birth
54
Q

What are the gestational age groups?

A
  • Preterm: before 37 completed weeks of gestation
  • Term: between 37 and 42 weeks GA
  • Post-term: After 42 completed weeks GA
  • Post-dated: Born after expected date of delivery (EDD), after 40 weeks of gestation
55
Q

What are the neonatal and perital periods?

A

Neonatal: from birth to 28 days of life
Early neonatal: from birth to less than 7 days of life
Late neonatal: From 7-28 days of life
Perinatal period: from 28 weeks of gestation to 7 days of postnatal life
Extended perinatal period: From 22 weeks of gestation to 7 days postnatal of life

56
Q

What are the causes of shift in apical impulse?

A
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH): apex shifted downwards and outwards
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy: apex shifted outwards
  • dextrocardia
  • pseudodextrocardia
  • respiratory causes: collapse, pleural effusion, pneumothorax, fibrosis etc
  • diaphragmatic hernia
  • eventration of diaphragm
  • skeletal deformities: scoliosis, kyphosis
57
Q

What are the different shapes of skull?

A
  • Dolichocephaly or scaphocephaly (sagittal suture - boat shaped skull)
  • Brachycephaly (coronal)
  • Trigonocephaly (metopic suture - between 2 frontal sutures)
  • Oxycephaly (coronal and lambdoid sutures)
  • Plagiocephaly (irregular, asymmetrical fusion of sutures)
    a) frontal plagiocephaly (flattening of forehead)
    b) occipital plagiocephaly (occipital flattening)
  • Kleeblattschadel deformity (premature fusion of multiple sutures - trilobed skull, resembling cloverleaf)
58
Q

Name some conditions in which brachycephaly shape of skull can be seen.

A
  • Apert Syndrome
  • Carpenter Syndrome
  • Down Syndrome
  • Crouzon syndrome
59
Q

What are the phases of dengue fever?

A
  1. Febrile phase (fever for 2-7 days)
  2. Critical phase (plasma leak for 24-48 hours)
  3. Convalescence phase (Reabsorption occurs for 2-4 days)
60
Q

What is cephalic index?

A

Also known as cranial index/ length-width index
= (max cranial width or biparietal diameter/ max cranial length or occipitofrontal diameter) X 100

61
Q

What are the various sizes of skull?

A
  1. Macrocephaly
    - head circumference more than 2 standard deviations above the mean or beyond 97th percentile for normal population of same age, sex, race and religion
  2. Megalencephaly or macrencephaly
    - weight & size of brain are more than average for age and sex of child
  3. Microcephaly
    - head circumference less than 3 standard deviations of mean for age, sex, race and religion
62
Q

Name some conditions in which megalencephaly can be seen.

A
  • Normal children with extraordinary intelligence
  • Cerebral gigantism (Sotos syndrome)
  • Neurocutaneous syndromes: Tuberous sclerosis, neurofibromatosis and Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • Metabolic disorders: Leukodystrophy, lipidosis, histiocytosis and mucopolysaccharidosis
63
Q

What are the normal weights of brain at different age groups?

A
  • Newborn: 350-400 grams
  • At about 3 years: 1000/1080 grams
  • 6-12 years: 1300-1350 grams
  • Adult: 1300-1400 grams
64
Q

Name some conditions in which hoarseness of voice can be seen?

A
  • vocal nodules
  • reflux
  • hypothyroid myxedema
  • laryngotracheal cleft
65
Q

What are the various MDI (Metered dose inhalers) available and the ideal age group for the use of each?

A

MDI with spacer with face mask: children less than 4 yrs
MDI with spacer preferred: children more than 4 yrs
MDI used directly: children more than 12 yrs

66
Q

What are the first line drugs in treatment of bronchial asthma?

A
  • low dose inhaled steroids
  • short acting beta-agonists when required

other choice:
- montelukast