Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Give 4 clinical signs of bronchiolitis

A

Coryzal symptoms preceding:
Dyspnoea with feeding difficulties
Auscultation findings include widespread harsh breath sounds, wheezes and fine inspiratory crackles
Mild fever (under 39ºC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Commonest cause of bronchiolitis

A

respiratory syncytial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Investigation for bronchiolitis

A

Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

NICE immediate referral criteria for bronchiolitis

A

Apnoea
Child looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional
Severe respiratory distress (grunting, marked chest recession, RR >70)
Central cyanosis
Hypoxia <92% on air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Except for difficulty breathing, what other symptoms are associated with croup?

A

Barking cough, worse at night
Hoarseness
Stridor (laryngeal oedema + secretions) - DO NOT EXAMINE THROAT
Fever
Corzyal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Other than croup, give 2 other causes of developing stridor in a 4 year old

A

Epiglottis
Foreign body
Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the virus most commonly responsible for causing croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment prescribed for croup

A

Single dose of dexamethasone regardless of severity

Emergency:
High flow O2
Nebulised adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the most likely finding upon palpation of the abdomen in pyloric stenosis and where in the
abdomen you would expect to find it?

A

Olive-shaped mass in the RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What acid-base disturbance would you expect to find in pyloric stenosis?

A

hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis - from vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the four sections of the stomach

A

cardia
fundus
pylorus
body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Typical SUFE patient

A

obese boy aged 10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plate?

A

Hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SUFE 3 features

A

Hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
Loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
Bilateral in 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 3 differential diagnoses for hip pain in a child

A

SUFE
Perthes
Acute transient synovitis
Septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give 2 causes of jaundice within the first 24 hours of life

A

JAUNDICE IN THE FIRST 24H IS ALWAYS PATHOLOGICAL

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common cause of jaundice 2-14 days

A

Physiological (more RBC, fragile RBC, less developed liver) - more common in breastfed babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give 2 investigations (other than bilirubin) for jaundice in first 24h

A

Rhesus status
ultrasound?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pale stools and raised conjugated bilirubin

Cause of prolonged jaundice in a baby?

A

Obstructive picture: biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What complication may occur if raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin remain untreated?

A

Kernicterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give 1 methods of treating neonatal jaundice?

A

Phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What prenatal investigation can be used to detect congenital heart diseases?

A

Echocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In which direction is blood flowing in the heart in acyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

Left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 2 causes of acyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In which direction is blood flowing in cyanotic heart disease?
Right to left
26
Give 2 causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
Tetralogy of fallot Transposition of the great arteries
27
In decompensated congenital heart disease, give 2 clinical features
Poor feeding Tachycardia Cold peripheries Hepatomegaly Engorged neck veins
28
What is Eisenmenger's syndrome?
Left to right shunt causes pulmonary hypertension which leads to shunt reversal (acyanotic to cyanotic)
29
Apart from prematurity, give 2 risk factors for IRDS
Maternal diabetes C-section
30
What substance is deficient in the lungs of premature babies (<32w), giving rise to IRDS?
Surfactant produced by mature alveoli Lack of it leads to high surface tension within alveoli which leads to lung collapse
31
What prenatal medication can be given to mothers with suspected preterm labour to prevent respiratory distress syndrome?
Dexamethasone Increases production of surfactant
32
Give 2 signs of IRDS
Tachypnoea Cyanosis Inspiratory recession Grunting Nasal flaring
33
What is seen on a chest X-ray in a baby with IRDS?
Ground glass appearance
34
In what age range do febrile convulsions typically occur?
6 months to 5 years
35
Give 2 features that mean febrile seizures are classified as complex febrile convulsions
15 to 30 minutes Repeated seizures within 24 hours Focal seizure
36
Give 3 investigations in febrile convulsions
FBC Blood culture U&E Glucose Throat swab
37
Give 1 pieces of information to give to parents prior to child being discharged after febrile seizure
Advise to phone for an ambulance if seizure lasts >5 minutes
38
Medication for recurrent febrile convulsions
Benzodiazepine rescue medication
39
Define cerebral palsy
Disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of the motor pathways in the developing brain
40
Give 2 of the subtypes of cerebral palsy, using the classification system based on movement disorder
Spastic (70%) - increased muscle tone due to UMN lesion Dyskinetic - basal ganglia and substania nigra cause athetoid movements Ataxic - damage to cerebellum Mixed
41
Apart from motor complications, give 2 other clinical features that a child with cerebral palsy may have
Learning difficulties Epilepsy Squint Hearing impairment
42
Give 3 a cause of cerebral palsy from each category a) antenatal b) intrapartum c) postnatal
a) Congenital infection e.g. rubella b) Birth asphyxia c) Meningitis
43
Name 2 medications a child with cerebral palsy may be prescribed to help with muscle spasm
Diazepam Baclofen
44
In which gender are intussusceptions more common
Male
45
Describe the pathogenesis of intussusception
Invagination of one portion of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually the ileo-caecal region
46
Investigation of choice for intusseception and sign seen
Ultrasound Target-like mass
47
1st line treatment for intussuception
Air insufflation under radiological control
48
What are 2 indications for laparotomy in intussuception
Failed air insufflation Signs of peritonitis
49
3 month old baby with episodes in which he becomes irritable, struggles with his breathing, and his lips turn blue - name?
Tet spells *Tetralogy of fallot
50
Anatomical abnormalities that occur in Tetralogy of Fallot
Pulmonary stenosis RVH VSD Overriding aorta
51
Investigations to identify cause in suspected NAI
FBC Coagulation screen LFTs Cranial CT Skeletal survey Cranial ultrasound
52
3 professionals outside of hospital involved in NAI
Social workers Health visitors GP Police
53
2 clinical signs of infectious mono
Splenomegaly Petechial haemorrhages of soft palate White exudate covering tonsils Lymphadenopathy Hepatosplenomegaly Fever
54
2 complications of infectious mono
Chronic fatigue syndrome Splenic rupture GBS Encephalitis Meningitis
55
Name 2 notifiable diseases
Acute meningitis Botulism COVID-19 Diptheria Enteric fever
56
Pyloric stenosis pathophysiology
Hypertrophy of the pylorus prevents food travelling from the stomach into the duodenum as normal After feeding, there is powerful peristalsis against the narrow pylorus causing food to be ejected into the oesophagus leading to projectile vomiting
57
Investigation of choice pyloric stenosis
Abdo ultrasound
58
Definitive management pyloric stenosis
Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy (Ramstedt's)
59
2 of the 6 in 1 vaccine components
Diphtheria Hep B Whooping cough Tetanus Polio H. influenzae B
60
8 week vaccinations
6 in 1 Rotavirus Men B
61
When is jaundice pathological
first 24h of life
62
3 examples of prolonged jaundice
Biliary atresia Hypothyroidism Breast milk jaundice
63
What is the serious complication of untreated neonatal jaundice that parents should be warned about?
Kernicterus
64
Which special tests in the NIPE can detect signs of hip pathology? Follow up imaging?
Ortolani and Barlow tests Ultrasound
65
What condition are ortolani/barlow/US looking for
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
66
Name 2 criteria of Wilson and Junger screening test criteria
Important Cost-effective Simple and safe screening test Acceptable to population Agreed diagnostic investigation for positive test results
67
Epididymo-orchitis presentation
gradual onset, over minutes to hours, with unilateral: Testicular pain Dragging or heavy sensation Swelling of testicle and epididymis Tenderness on palpation, particularly over epididymis Urethral discharge (should make you think of chlamydia or gonorrhoea) Systemic symptoms such as fever and potentially sepsis
68
Examination findings in testicular torsion
Firm swollen testicle Elevated (retracted) testicle Absent cremasteric reflex Abnormal testicular lie (often horizontal) Rotation, so that epididymis is not in normal posterior position
69
Explain why trismus occurs in quinsy
The inflammation and swelling associated with the abscess can cause pain and spasm of the muscles involved in opening the mouth (masticator muscles)
70
Lymph node enlarged in quinsy
Jugulodigastric lymph node
71
What test on an ABG could help decide the urgency of treatment for pneumonia
Lactate
72
2 management options for bronchiolitis
Oxygen NG feeding
73
Investigation for SUFE
AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic
74
Management of SUFE
Internal fixation (single cannulated screw in centre of epiphysis)
75
4 complications of SUFE
Osteoarthritis Avascular necrosis of the femoral head Chrondrolysis Leg length discrepancy