Paeds 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Define infantile colic.

A

> 3 hours total crying, for > 3 days in any week or > 3 weeks

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2
Q

What are some key factors that distinguish Noonan syndrome from Turner syndrome?

A

Noonan can affect males

Noonan is associated with mental retardation and pulmonary valve stenosis

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3
Q

Describe the prognosis for patients with minimal change disease.

A

1/3 have only a single episode
1/3 have occasional relapses
1/3 have frequent relapses stopping at adulthood

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4
Q

Define global developmental delay.

A

Significant delay in 2 or more developmental domains

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5
Q

Which investigations should be requested in suspected global developmental delay?

A
Chromosomal analysis (Down, Di George, Williams)
Fragile X testing 
Creatine kinase 
U&E 
Lead level 
Urate 
Full blood count 
Ferritin 
TFTs
Biotinidase level
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6
Q

Which investigation is important to perform in any child who has had a non-febrile seizure?

A

ECG

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7
Q

List some causes of surfactant deficiency in newborns.

A
Prematurity male 
Sepsis 
Maternal diabetes 
Second twin 
Elective C-section
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8
Q

List some causes of speech delay.

A
Hearing impairment 
Expressive language disorder 
Late bloomer 
Cerebral palsy 
Autism spectrum disorder
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9
Q

List some potential first-line investigations for suspected inherited disorders of metabolism.

A
Amino acids and acylcarcinitine profile 
Ammonia
Lactate 
Organic acids 
Very long chain fatty acids
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10
Q

Which diseases are tested for in the Guthrie test?

A
Sickle cell anaemia 
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroidism
MCAD deficiency 
PKU 
Maple syrup urine disease 
Isovaleric acidaemia 
Homocystinuria
Glutaric aciduria type I
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11
Q

Which acid-base features would raise suspicion of an inborn error of metabolism?

A

Acidosis out of keeping with clinical picture
Abnormalities persist despite standard treatment
Raised anion gap

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12
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of lysosomal storage disorders and describe the clinical manifestations.

A

The lysosome is the recycling centre of the cell
Deficiency of enzymes within the lysosome leads to the accumulation of toxic proteins resulting in hepatosplenomegaly and CNS involvement

This can manifest with developmental regress and seizures

Examples: mucopolysaccharidoses, oligosaccharidoses, mucolipidoses, sphingolypidoses (Fabry disease)

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13
Q

What are mucopolysaccharidoses?

A

Most common of the lysosomal storage disorders
Characterised by defective breakdown of glycosaminoglycans
Causes developmental regression, skeletal abnormalities, coarse facies, cardiomyopathy

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14
Q

Briefly outline the pathophysiology of lipid storage disorders.

A

Enzyme deficiency leads to lipid accumulation in cells and tissues
Excessive fat storage leads to permanent cellular and tissue damage

NOTE: Gaucher disease is the most common

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15
Q

What blood glucose level defines hypoglycaemia?

A

< 2.6 mmol/L

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16
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

NOTE: 21a-hydroxylase deficiency is most common

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17
Q

Describe the presenting features of an adrenal salt losing crisis.

A

Vomiting
Weight loss
Hypotonia
Circulatory collapse

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18
Q

List some causes of global developmental disorders.

A
Chromosomal (e.g. Down, fragile X)
Congenital hypothyroidism
Inborn errors of metabolism (e.g. PKU)
Congenital infection (e.g. rubella, CMV) 
Hypoxic brain injury 
Kernicterus
Meningitis
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19
Q

List some causes of abnormal motor development.

A
Central motor deficit (e.g. cerebral palsy)
Congenital myopathy (e.g. DMD)
Neural tube defect 
Global developmental delay
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20
Q

Which children are most vulneralbe to periventricular leukomalacia?

A

Preterm babies

NOTE: periventricular leukomalacia is particularly associated with diplegic cerebral palsy

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21
Q

Describe the main features of dyskinetic cerebral palsy.

A

Characterised by the presence of involuntary, uncontrolled movements that are more obvious on active movement or stress
May feature chorea, athetosis or dystonia
Usually due to damage to the basal ganglia

22
Q

Describe the main features of ataxic (hypotonic) cerebral palsy.

A

Most are genetically determined
Characterised by trunk and limb hypotonia, poor balance and delayed motor development
Later features include intention tremor and ataxic gait

23
Q

List some tests that may be used to assess language development.

A

Symbolic toy test (e.g. Kendall or McCormick)

Reynell test

24
Q

What are the three main features of autism spectrum disorders?

A

Impaired social interaction
Speech and language disorder
Imposition of routines and ritualistic and repetitive behaviours

25
Q

Name some formalised tests that may be used to diagnose autism.

A

Autism diagnostic interview (ADI)

Autism diagnostic observation schedule (ADOS)

26
Q

At what point in a child’s life would a squint be considered pathological?

A

3 months

Usually due to a refractive error

27
Q
What are the limit ages for:
Head control 
Sits unsupported 
Stands independently 
Walks independently
A

Head control - 4 months
Sits unsupported - 9 months
Stands independently - 12 months
Walks independently - 18 months

28
Q

What are the limit ages for:
Fixes and follows
Pincer grip

A

Fixes and follows - 3 months

Pincer grip - 12 months

29
Q

What are the limit ages for:
Saying 6 words with meaning
Joining words
3-word sentences

A

Saying 6 words with meaning - 18 months
Joining words - 2 years
3-word sentences - 2.5 years

30
Q

Name the primitive reflexes.

A
Moro
Grasp
Rooting 
Stepping
Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

NOTE: these will be replaced by postural reflexes (e.g. parachute)

31
Q

Which intelligence tests may be used in children?

A

WPPSI (2-7 years)

WISC (6-16 years)

32
Q

How is meconium ileus treated?

A

Gastrograffin enema (or N-acetylcysteine)

33
Q

How should a congenital diaphragmatic hernia be managed?

A

Insert a large NG tube and apply suction to prevent distension of the intrathoracic bowel

34
Q

How should neonatal hypoglycaemia be managed?

A

Early and frequent milk feeding
IV dextrose in refractory cases (and consider glucagon and hydrocortisone)
Aim for blood glucose > 2 mmol/L

35
Q

How is a Meckel’s diverticulum diagnosed?

A

Technetium 99 pertechnetate scan

36
Q

Which causes of gastroenteritis should be reported to the health protection unit?

A
  • Campylobacter
  • Listeria
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
37
Q

Which blood tests may be considered at a coeliac disease review

A
Coeliac serology
FBC 
TFT
LFT
Vitamin D, B12, folate and serum calcium
U&E
38
Q

Describe the clinical features of congenital varicella syndrome.

A
Dermatomal skin scarring 
Neurological defects 
IUGR
Limb hypoplasia 
Hydrops fetalis
39
Q

Describe the clinical features of congenital CMV infection.

A

Mental handicap
Visual impairment
Progressive hearing loss
Psychomotor retardation

At birth: hydrops, IUGR, exomphalos, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopaenia

40
Q

Which organism most commonly causes septic arthritis in children?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

NOTE: in sickle cell patients, salmonella is also common but S. aureus is still the most common

41
Q

What is the most common site of septic arthritis in children?

A

Hip

NOTE: plain film changes are apparent after 2-3 weeks

42
Q

At what age can babies roll over?

A

4 months

43
Q

What does the child protection team do once they have been informed about a case of suspected NAI?

A

Convene a case conference (includes parents, police officer, paediatrician, GP, health visitor and social worker)

Place the child’s name on the child protection register

Give support to the parents

Ensure regular monitoring by health visitor/social worker

Arrange regular follow-up with paediatrician (especially growth and development)

44
Q

What is the most common site of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Lower femur or upper tibia (around the knee)

Tends to affect the metaphysis

45
Q

When should an MCUG and DMSA be performed in a child who has had an atypical UTI?

A

MCUG can be done as soon as the current infection is under control
DMSA should be performed 3-4 months after the infection

46
Q

Outline the definitive management of VUR.

A

Often improves with time
May require surgical corrections
Patients may receive prophylactic antibiotics

47
Q

Which investigations are used to identify DDH?

A

< 5-6 months = ultrasound

> 6 months = X-ray

48
Q

What is the typical blood gas picture that is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease?

A

Metabolic acidosis

Hypoxia

49
Q

Describe the appearance of a rash caused by parvovirus in adults.

A

Lacey rash

50
Q

What is Gaucher disease?

A

Glycogen storage disease that is prevalent in Ashkanazi jews

NOTE: Tay Sachs is also common in this population