paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Paediatric basic life support - algorithm

A
unresponsive?
shout for help
open airway
look, listen, feel for breathing
give 5 rescue breaths
check for signs of circulation
15 chest compressions:2 rescue breaths 

compression:ventilation ratio: lay rescuers should use a ratio of 30:2. If there are two or more rescuers with a duty to respond then a ratio of 15:2 should be used

age definitions: an infant is a child under 1 year, a child is between 1 year and puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What score if used to assess the health of a new-born baby?

A

Apgar score

A score of 0-3 is very low score, between 4-6 is moderate low and between 7 - 10 means the baby is in a good state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In a newborn who hasn’t cried irate when should you airway suction? What could happen if you do?

A

Airway suction should not be performed unless there is obviously thick meconium causing obstruction, as it can cause reflex bradycardia in babies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should CPR be performed on a newborn who hasn’t cried?

A

CPR should only be commenced at a HR < 60bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to reduce risk of getting chest infections in a CF patient?

A

Patients with cystic fibrosis should minimise contact with each other due to the risk of cross-infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CF management

A

Management of cystic fibrosis (CF) involves a multidisciplinary approach

Key points

  • regular (at least twice daily) chest physiotherapy and postural drainage. Parents are usually taught to do this. Deep breathing exercises are also useful
  • high calorie diet, including high fat intake
  • patients with CF should try to minimise contact with each other to prevent cross infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • vitamin supplementation
  • pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals
  • heart and lung transplant

Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi)

  • is used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation
  • lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface
  • ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface, increasing the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes chronic diarrhoea in infants?

A
  • most common cause in the developed world is cows’ milk intolerance
  • toddler diarrhoea: stools vary in consistency, often contain undigested food
  • coeliac disease
  • post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gastroenteritis in children

A

Gastroenteritis

  • diarrhoea
  • main risk is severe dehydration
  • most common cause is rotavirus - typically accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first 2 days. The diarrhoea may last up to a week
  • treatment is rehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a common complication of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Transient lactose intolerance is a common complication of viral gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common cause of inherited neurodevelopment delay?

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fragile X syndrome - features and diagnosis

A

Fragile X syndrome is a trinucleotide repeat disorder.
Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion

Features in males

  • learning difficulties
  • large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
  • macroorchidism (abnormally large testes)
  • hypotonia - joint laxity
  • learning difficulties - autism is more common, and ADHD
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • past history of recurrent otitis media

Features in females (who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome) range from normal to mild

Diagnosis

  • Fragile X syndrome tends to present around the time of puberty.
  • can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
  • analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy? features and diagnosis

A

Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) occurs in around 3-6% of all children and typically presents in the first 3 months of life in FORMULA-FED infants, although rarely it is seen in exclusively breastfed infants.

Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions are seen. The term CMPA is usually used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions.

Features

  • regurgitation and vomiting
  • diarrhoea
  • urticaria, atopic eczema
  • ‘colic’ symptoms: irritability, crying
  • wheeze, chronic cough
  • rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis may occur

Diagnosis is often clinical (e.g. improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination). Investigations include:

  • skin prick/patch testing
  • total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy- Management

A

If the symptoms are severe (e.g. failure to thrive) refer to a paediatrician.

Management if formula-fed

  • extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula for infants with mild-moderate symptoms
  • amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA or if no response to eHF
  • around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk

Management if breastfed

  • continue breastfeeding
  • eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet. Consider prescribing calcium supplements for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have, or are suspected to have, CMPI, to prevent deficiency whilst they exclude dairy from their diet
  • use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6 months

CMPI usually resolves in most children

  • in children with IgE mediated intolerance around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years
  • in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance most children will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years
  • a challenge is often performed in the hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Pyloric stenosis typically presents in the second to fourth weeks of life with vomiting, although rarely may present later at up to four months. It is caused by hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus.

Epidemiology
incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births
4 times more common in males
10-15% of infants have a positive family history
first-borns are more commonly affected

Features

  • ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed
  • constipation and dehydration may also be present
  • a PALPABLE MASS may be present in the upper abdomen
  • hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to persistent vomiting

Diagnosis is most commonly made by ultrasound.

Management is with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the commonest cyanotic congenital heart condition after birth?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

-a few weeks to months after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

It typically presents at around 1-2 months, although may not be picked up until the baby is 6 months old

TOF is a result of anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. The four characteristic features are:

  1. ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  2. right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, pulmonary stenosis
  4. overriding aorta

The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity

Other features

  • cyanosis - hypercyanotic spells with episodic, increasing cyanosis which typically occurs when the baby is crying and breathing deeply and rapidly
  • causes a right-to-left shunt
  • ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis (the VSD doesn’t usually cause a murmur)
  • a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients
  • chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy

Management

  • surgical repair is often undertaken in two parts
  • cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

right parasternal heave reflects what?

A

right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Biliary atresia - types, signs, investigations, management, complications

A

Biliary atresia is a paediatric condition involving either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system, which results in an OBSTRUCTION IN FLOW OF BILE. This results in a neonatal presentation of CHOLESTASIS in the first few weeks of life. The pathogenesis of biliary atresia is unclear, however, infectious agents, congenital malformations and retained toxins within the bile are all contributing factors.

Epidemiology

  • Extrahepatic biliary atresia is more common in females than males
  • Biliary atresia is unique to neonatal children: The perinatal form presents in the first two weeks of life, and the postnatal form presents within the first 2-8 weeks of life
  • Biliary atresia occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births

Types:

  • Type 1: The proximal ducts are patent, however, the common duct is obliterated
  • Type 2: There is atresia of the cystic duct and cystic structures are found in the porta hepatis
  • Type 3: There is atresia of the left and right ducts to the level of the porta hepatis, this occurs in >90% of cases of biliary atresia

Patients typically present in the first few weeks of life with:

  • Jaundice extending beyond the physiological two weeks
  • Dark urine and pale stools
  • Appetite and growth disturbance, however, may be normal in some cases

Signs:

  • Jaundice (present > 14 days of age)
  • Hepatomegaly with splenomegaly
  • Abnormal growth
  • Cardiac murmurs if associated cardiac abnormalities present

Investigations:

  • Serum bilirubin including differentiation into conjugated and total bilirubin: Total bilirubin may be normal, whereas conjugated bilirubin is abnormally high
  • Liver function tests (LFTs) including serum bile acids and aminotransferases are usually raised but cannot differentiate between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis
  • Serum alpha 1-antitrypsin: Deficiency may be a cause of neonatal cholestasis
  • Sweat chloride test: Cystic fibrosis often involves the biliary tract
  • Ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver: May show distension and tract abnormalities
  • Percutaneous liver biopsy with intraoperative cholangioscopy
Management:
- Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia: Intervention may include dissection of the abnormalities into distinct ducts and anastomosis creation
A hepatoportoenterostomy (HPE) can be performed. This is also known as Kasai portoenterostomy and it allows bile drainage
- Medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery
Ursodeoxycholic acid may be given as an adjuvant following surgical intervention

Complications:

  • Unsuccessful anastomosis formation
  • Progressive liver disease
  • Cirrhosis with eventual hepatocellular carcinoma

Prognosis:

  • Prognosis is good if surgery is successful
  • In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is roseola infantum and the features?

A
COMMON VIRAL ILLNESS
Roseola infantum (also known as exanthem subitum, occasionally sixth disease) is a common disease of infancy caused by the human HERPES virus 6 (HHV6). It has an incubation period of 5-15 days and typically affects children aged 6 months to 2 years.

Features:
- high fever: lasting a few days (3 days), followed later by a maculopapular rash (4th day, - typically starts on the trunk and limbs- which is different to chickenpox which is usually central), following the resolution of the fever (the fever is typically rapid onset and can often predispose to febrile convulsions)
- Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
rash appears erythematous with small bumps that are merging together.

  • febrile convulsions occur in around 10-15%
  • diarrhoea and cough are also commonly seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are possible complications of HHV6 infection?

A

Aseptic meningitis

Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can biliary atresia lead to if left untreated?

A

liver failure and death if left untreated, caused by fibrous obstruction of the extra-hepatic biliary tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the pertinent blood tests findings in biliary atresia?

A

Raised conjugated bilirubin, and can also show deranged liver function tests with elevated GGT more prominent than AST or ALT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are growing pains and what are the features?

A

A common presentation in General Practice is a child complaining of pain in the legs with no obvious cause. Such presentations, in the absence of any worrying features, are often attributed to ‘growing pains’. This is a misnomer as the pains are often not related to growth - the current term used in rheumatology is ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’

Growing pains are equally common in boys and girls and occur in the age range of 3-12 years.

Features of growing pains
- never present at the start of the day after the child has woken
- no limp
- no limitation of physical activity
systemically well
- normal physical examination
- motor milestones normal
- symptoms are often intermittent and worse after a day of vigorous activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Meningitis B vaccine

A

Children in the UK have been routinely immunised against serotypes A & C of meningococcus for many years. As a result meningococcal B became the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the UK. A vaccination against meningococcal B (Bexsero) has recently been developed and introduced to the UK market.

The Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) initially rejected the use of Bexsero after doing a cost-benefit analysis. This descision was eventually reversed and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation.

Three doses are now given at:
2 months
4 months
12-13 months

If given outside of the schedule, doses should be at least 2 months apart. When given in children over the age of one, only two doses are required.

Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as people with asplenia, splenic dysfunction or complement disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis: pauciarticular - features?

A

Describes arthritis occurring in someone who is less than 16 years old that lasts for more than 6 weeks. Pauciarticular JIA refers to cases where 4 OR LESS JOINTS ARE AFFECTED. It accounts for around 60% of cases of JIA

Features of pauciarticular JIA (most common type of JIA)

  • joint PAIN, stiffness and swelling: usually medium sized joints (larger joints) e.g. knees, ankles, elbows
  • limp
  • fatigue
  • associated symptoms may include rash, fever, dry or gritty eyes
  • Family history of autoimmune disease (e.g.SLE) is a risk factor.
  • ANA may be positive in JIA - associated with anterior uveitis
  • have normal blood results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Features of systemic-onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A
  • Often anaemia, thrombocytosis, and leucocytosis
  • High spiking fevers-there must be 1 or 2 spikes of fever a day occurring daily for at least 2 weeks
  • Non-pruritic salmon coloured erythematous rashes are common also, usually on the trunk and proximal extremities -The rash often co-occurs with the fever.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis? features, ix , mx

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is rare HIP condition seen in children, classically seen in OBESE BOYS. It is also is known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

Basics

  • typically age group is 10-15 years
  • More common in obese children and boys
  • Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
  • May present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms

Features

  • hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
  • loss of INTERNAL ROTATION of the leg in flexion
  • bilateral slip in 20% of cases

Investigation
- AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic

Management
- internal fixation: typically a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the key features of William’s syndrome?

A
  • Short stature
  • Learning difficulties
  • characteristic like affect -Friendly, extrovert personality
  • Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
  • Supravalvular aortic stenosis
    Associated with elfin facies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the key features of Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

A

Micrognathia ( lower jaw is undersized)
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an umbilical granuloma?

A
  • An overgrowth of tissue which occurs during the healing process of the umbilicus.
  • It is most common in the first few weeks of life.
  • On examination, a small, red growth of tissue is seen in the centre of the umbilicus.
  • It is usually wet and leaks small amounts of clear or yellow fluid.
  • It is treated by regular application of salt to the wound, if this does not help then the granuloma can be cauterised with silver nitrate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Omphalitis?

A
  • This condition consists of an infection of the umbilicus.
  • Infection with Staphylococcus aureus is the commonest cause.
  • The condition is potentially serious as infection may spread rapidly through the umbilical vessels in neonates with a risk of portal pyaemia (collection of pus in the portal venous system due to inflammation), and portal vein thrombosis.
  • Treatment is usually with a combination of topical and systemic antibiotics.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a persistent vitello-intestinal duct?

A
  • This will typically present as an umbilical discharge that discharges SMALL BOWEL CONTENT.
  • Complete persistence of the duct is a rare condition.
  • Much more common is the persistence of part of the duct (Meckel’s diverticulum).
  • Persistent vitello-intestinal ducts are best imaged using a contrast study to delineate the anatomy and are managed by laparotomy and surgical closure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 3 months?

A
  • Little or no head lag on being pulled to sit
  • Lying on abdomen, good head control
  • Held sitting, lumbar curve
  • Reaches for object
  • Holds rattle briefly if given to hand
  • Visually alert, particularly human faces
  • Fixes and follows to 180 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 6 months?

A
  • Lying on abdomen, arms extended
  • Lying on back, lifts and grasps feet
  • Pulls self to sitting
  • Held sitting, back straight
  • Rolls front to back
  • Holds in palmar grasp
  • Pass objects from one hand to another
  • Visually insatiable, looking around in every direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 7-8 months?

A

Sits without support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 9 months?

A
  • Pulls to standing
  • Crawls
  • Points with finger
  • Early pincer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 12 months?

A

Cruises
Walks with one hand held
Good pincer grip
Bangs toys together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 13-15 months?

A

Walks unsupported
(15 months) - makes a tower of 2
(15 months)- looks at book, pats page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 18 months?

A

Squats to pick up toy
Drawing - circular scribble
Book - turns pages, several at time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 2 years?

A
Runs 
Walks upstairs and downstairs holding on to rail
Makes a tower of 6 
Drawing - copies vertical line
Book - turns pages, one at a time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 3 years?

A

Rides a tricycle using pedals
Walks up stairs without holding on to rail
Makes a tower of 9
Drawing - copies circle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the developmental milestones at 4 years?

A

Hops on one leg

Drawing - copies cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is breech presentation put a baby at risk of?

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

The Department of Health advises that all babies that were breech at any point from 36 weeks (even if not breech by time of delivery), babies born before 36 weeks who had breech presentation, and all babies with a first degree relative with a hip problem in early life, should be referred for ultrasound of the hips.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A
  • female sex: 6 times greater risk
  • breech presentation
  • positive family history
  • firstborn children
  • oligohydramnios
  • birth weight > 5 kg
  • congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

(usually detected in neonates)

The following infants require a routine ultrasound examination

  • first-degree family history of hip problems in early life
  • breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery
  • multiple pregnancy

All infants are screened at both the newborn check and also the six-week baby check using the Barlow and Ortolani tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What would you find on clinical examination of developmental dysplasia of the hip and what is the management?

A

Clinical examination

  • Barlow test: attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head
  • Ortolani test: attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

Other important factors include:

  • symmetry of leg length
  • level of knees when hips and knees are bilaterally flexed
  • restricted abduction of the hip in flexion

Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected

Management

  • most unstable hips will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age
  • Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis) in children younger than 4-5 months
  • older children may require surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome and its features?

A

Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder affecting around 1 in 2,500 FEMALES. It is caused by either the presence of only one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. Turner’s syndrome is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

Features

  • short stature
  • shield chest, widely spaced nipples
  • WEBBED NECK
  • bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%)
  • primary amenorrhoea
  • cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally)
  • high-arched palate
  • short fourth metacarpal
  • multiple pigmented naevi
  • lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet)
  • gonadotrophin levels will be elevated
  • hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s
  • horseshoe kidney: the most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome associated with?

A
  • Bicuspid aortic valve and aortic coarctation

- There is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Name some causes of constipation?

A
  • idiopathic
  • dehydration
  • low-fibre diet
  • medications: e.g. Opiates
  • anal fissure
  • over-enthusiastic potty training
  • hypothyroidism
  • Hirschsprung’s disease
  • hypercalcaemia
  • learning disabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the first line for constipation?

A

Advice on diet/fluid intake

MOVICOL paediatric plain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the red flags in constipation?

A
  • Reported from birth or first few weeks of life
  • Passage of meconium >48 hours
  • ‘ribbon’ stools
  • Previously unknown or undiagnosed weakness in legs, locomotor delay
  • distended abdomen

AMBER signs:

  • Faltering growth
  • Disclosure or evidence that raises concerns over possibility of child maltreatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of constipation - If faecal impaction is present:

A
  • movicol paediatric plain (1st line)
  • Add Stimulant laxative if disimpaction not occurred in 2 weeks
  • substitute a stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative such as lactulose if Movicol Paediatric Plain is not tolerated
  • inform families that disimpaction treatment can initially increase symptoms of soiling and abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Management of constipation – maintenance therapy

A

very similar to the faecal impaction regime, with obvious adjustments to the starting dose, i.e.

  • first-line: Movicol Paediatric Plain
  • add a stimulant laxative if no response
  • substitute a stimulant laxative if Movicol Paediatric Plain is not tolerated. Add another laxative such as lactulose or docusate if stools are hard
  • continue medication at maintenance dose for several weeks after regular bowel habit is established, then reduce dose gradually
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

For children aged 5 to 16 - what is given to if asthma is not being controlled by SABA + low dose ICS?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management of asthma for children and young aged 5 to 16 (BTS)

A
  1. SABA
  2. SABA + low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
  3. SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
  4. SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
  5. SABA + switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a paediatric low-dose ICS
  6. SABA + paediatric moderate-dose ICS MART
    OR consider changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA
  7. SABA + one of the following options:
    increase ICS to paediatric high-dose, either as part of a fixed-dose regime or as a MART (maintenance and reliever therapy)
    a trial of an additional drug (for example theophylline)
    seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Management of asthma for children aged less than 5

A
  1. SABA
  2. SABA + an 8-week trial of paediatric MODERATE-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

After 8-weeks stop the ICS and monitor the child’s symptoms:
if symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, review whether an alternative diagnosis is likely
if symptoms resolved then reoccurred within 4 weeks of stopping ICS treatment, restart the ICS at a paediatric low dose as first-line maintenance therapy
if symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond 4 weeks after stopping ICS treatment, repeat the 8‑week trial of a paediatric moderate dose of ICS
3. SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
4. Stop the LTRA and refer to an paediatric asthma specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is MART? (asthma)

A

Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)

  • a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment in which a single inhaler, containing both ICS and a fast-acting LABA, is used for both daily maintenance therapy and the relief of symptoms as required
  • MART is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component (for example, formoterol)

It should be noted that NICE does not advocate changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Croup- what is it, features, management

A

Croup is a form of upper respiratory tract infection seen in infants and toddlers. It is characterised by stridor which is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses account for the majority of cases.

Epidemiology:

  • peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years
  • more common in autumn

Features:

  • stridor
  • barking cough (worse at night)
  • fever
  • coryzal symptoms
  • Mild:Occasional barking cough
    No audible stridor at rest
    No or mild suprasternal and/or intercostal recession
    The child is happy and is prepared to eat, drink, and play
  • Moderate: Frequent barking cough
    Easily audible stridor at rest
    Suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest
    No or little distress or agitation
    The child can be placated and is interested in its surroundings
  • Severe: Frequent barking cough
    Prominent inspiratory (and occasionally, expiratory) stridor at rest
    Marked sternal wall retractions
    Significant distress and agitation, or lethargy or restlessness (a sign of hypoxaemia)
    Tachycardia occurs with more severe obstructive symptoms and hypoxaemia

CKS suggest admitting any child with moderate or severe croup. Other features which should prompt admission include:

  • < 6 months of age
  • known upper airway abnormalities (e.g. Laryngomalacia, Down’s syndrome)
  • uncertainty about diagnosis (important differentials include acute epiglottitis, bacterial tracheitis, peritonsillar abscess and foreign body inhalation)

Management

  • CKS recommend giving a single dose of oral DEXAMETASONE (0.15mg/kg) to all children regardless of severity
  • prednisolone is an alternative if dexamethasone is not available

Emergency treatment

  • high-flow oxygen
  • nebulised adrenaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Newborn resuscitation - what is the compressions to ventilation breaths ratio?

A

3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Osteochondritis dissecans?

A
  • chronic knee problem
  • Pain after exercise
  • Intermittent swelling and locking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What most commonly causes acute epiglottis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are lesser common causes of acute epiglottis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the features of acute epiglottitis?

A

rapid onset
high temperature, generally unwell
stridor
drooling of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What causes bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Developmental milestones - to run?

A

16 months - 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Developmental milestones - sits without support, with a straight back

A

7-8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A young boy with learning difficulties, macrocephaly, large ears and macro-orchidism?

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
What is intussusception 
features  
how does it present? 
investigations
How to treat?
A

Intussusception describes the invagination of one portion of bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel (telescoping bowel), most commonly proximal or at the level of the ileo-caecal region.

Intussusception usually affects infants between 6-18 months old. Boys are affected twice as often as girls

Features:

  • paroxysmal abdominal colic pain (colicky pain)
  • during paroxysm the infant will characteristically draw their knees up and turn pale
  • vomiting
  • bloodstained stool - ‘red-currant jelly’ - is a late sign
  • sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant

Investigations:
ultrasound is now the investigation of choice and may show a target-like mass

Management:

  • the majority of children can be treated with reduction by AIR INSUFFLATION under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema
  • if this fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease? And how to treat?

A

Is caused by absence of ganglion cells (aganglionic segment of bowel) from myenteric and submucosal plexuses. Occurs in 1/5000 births (rare).
It is an important DD in childhood CONSTIPATION.

Possible presentations:
Hirschsprungs may present either with features of bowel obstruction in:
1. the neonatal period e.g. failure or delay to pass meconium
2. More insidiously during childhood. - constipation, abdominal distention

  • After the PR there may be an improvement in symptoms.
  • Full-thickness rectal biopsy for diagnosis
  • Treatment is with rectal washouts initially
  • After that an anorectal pull through procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is commonly associated with malrotation?

A

Exomphalos

Diaphragmatic herniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is malrotation and how to treat?

A
  • High caecum at the midline
  • Feature in exomphalos, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, intrinsic duodenal atresia
  • May be complicated by the development of volvulus, an infant with volvulus may have bile stained vomiting
  • Diagnosis is made by upper GI contrast study and USS
  • Treatment is by laparotomy, if volvulus is present (or at high risk of occurring then a Ladd’s procedure is performed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is meconium ileus? How to treat?

A
  • Usually delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension
  • The majority have cystic fibrosis
  • X-Rays will not show a fluid level as the meconium is viscid, PR contrast studies may dislodge meconium plugs and be therapeutic
  • Infants who do not respond to PR contrast and NG N-acetyl cysteine will require surgery to remove the plugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis? Tx?

A
  • Prematurity is the main risk factor
  • Early features include abdominal distension and passage of bloody stools
  • X-Rays may show pneumatosis intestinalis and evidence of free air
  • Increased risk when empirical antibiotics are given to infants beyond 5 days
  • Treatment is with total gut rest and TPN, babies with perforations will require laparotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are features and associations of oesophageal atresia?

A
  • Associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios
  • May present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration
  • VACTERL associations (VACTERL association is a disorder that affects many body systems. VACTERL stands for vertebral defects, anal atresia, cardiac defects, tracheo-esophageal fistula, renal anomalies, and limb abnormalities.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the initial Mx fro Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation (to allow the baby to pass meconium”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease associated with?

A

Males

Down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum : pathophysiology, presentation, management

A

Pathophysiology:

  • normally, in the foetus, there is an attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac. This disappears at 6 weeks gestation
  • the tip is free in the majority of cases
  • associated with enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphaloileal fistulas.
  • arterial supply: omphalomesenteric artery.
  • typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric mucosa can occur, with the risk of peptic ulceration. Pancreatic and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine. It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitellointestinal duct) and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa

Rule of 2s
occurs in 2% of the population
is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve
is 2 inches long

Presentation (usually asymptomatic)
- abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis
- rectal bleeding: Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring a transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years
- intestinal obstruction
secondary to an omphalomesenteric band (most commonly), volvulus and intussusception

Management:
- removal if narrow neck or symptomatic. Options are between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Urinary tract infection in children: features, diagnosis and management

A

Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age (due to more congenital abnormalities) after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood

Presentation in childhood depends on age:

  • infants: poor feeding, vomiting, irritability
  • younger children: abdominal pain, fever, dysuria
  • older children: dysuria, frequency, haematuria
  • features which may suggest an upper UTI include: temperature > 38ºC, loin pain/tenderness

NICE guidelines for checking urine sample in a child

  • if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive or a UTI
  • with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest)
  • with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest)

Urine collection method:

  • clean catch is preferable
  • if not possible then urine collection pads should be used
  • cotton wool balls, gauze and sanitary towels are not suitable
  • invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible

Management

  • infants LESS THAN 3 MONTHS OLD SHOULD BE REFERRED IMMEDIATELY TO A PAEDIATRICIAN
  • children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to hospital. If not admitted oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days
  • children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours
  • antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Nocturnal enuresis

A

The majority of children achieve day and night time continence by 3 or 4 years of age.
Enuresis may be defined as the ‘involuntary discharge of urine by day or night or both, in a child aged 5 years or older, in the absence of congenital or acquired defects of the nervous system or urinary tract’

Nocturnal enuresis can be defined as either primary (the child has never achieved continence) or secondary (the child has been dry for at least 6 months before)

Management:
- look for possible underlying causes/triggers (e.g. Constipation, diabetes mellitus, UTI if recent onset)
- advise on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour
reward systems (e.g. Star charts). NICE recommend these ‘should be given for agreed behaviour rather than dry nights’ e.g. Using the toilet to pass urine before sleep
- NICE advises: ‘Consider whether an alarm or drug treatment is appropriate, depending on the age, maturity and abilities of the child or young person, the frequency of bedwetting and the motivation and needs of the family’.

Generally:

  • an enuresis alarm is first-line for children under the age of 7 years
  • desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age 7 years, particularly if short-term control is needed or an enuresis alarm has been ineffective/is not acceptable to the family
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

consent - when can they refuse?

A

‘those over 16 can consent to treatment, but cannot refuse treatment under 18 unless there is one consenting parent, even if the other disagrees’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What murmur is associated with Turner’s syndrome? Why?

A

Ejection systolic murmur - due to bicuspid aortic valve, aortic valve stenosis and/or aortic coarctation - those with Turner’s are prone to have these
(Loudest over the aortic valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How are new-born babies hearing screened?

A

Automated otoacoustic emission test/ evoked otoacoustic emissions test

  • Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. A computer generated click is played through a small earpiece. The presence of a soft echo indicates a healthy cochlea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A history of stridor and cough points towards?Systemically well

A

Croup

Systemically well- therefore rules out epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the features of necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis is one of the leading causes of death among premature infants.

Initial symptoms can include FEEDING INTOLERANCE, abdominal DISTENSION and BLOODY STOOLS, which can quickly progress to abdominal discolouration, perforation and peritonitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does the abdominal X-ray show if someone has necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Abdominal x-rays are useful when diagnosing necrotising enterocolitis, as they can show:

  • dilated bowel loops (often asymmetrical in distribution)
  • bowel wall oedema
  • pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas- gas in the gut wall)
  • portal venous gas
  • pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation
  • air both inside and outside of the bowel wall (Rigler sign)
  • air outlining the falciform ligament (football sign)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What age do children have intussusception?

A

5 months - 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is likely to be the initial investigation for intussusception? What would it show?

A

Ultrasound scan

Shows a target sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Name some differential diagnosis of biliary atresia

A

Alphas -1 antitrypsin deficiency

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the management of biliary atresia?

A

Early surgical intervention (a Kasai procedure- hepatoportoenterostomy)- attempts to restore bile flow from the the liver to the proximal small bowel. It decreases hepatic damage, and avoids or delays the need for subsequent liver transplantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Prolonged jaundice - effect on urine and stool

A

The cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant is biliary atresia, a condition involving either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system. Biliary atresia results in an obstruction in the flow of bile and the presentation of a cholestatic picture, including pale stools and dark urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Features which may be present in a sexually abused child

A
pregnancy
sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs
sexually precocious behaviour
anal fissure, bruising
reflex anal dilatation
enuresis and encopresis
behavioural problems, self-harm
recurrent symptoms e.g. headaches, abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Before what age is it considered to be precocious puberty?

A

Before 8 years in females and 9 years in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cephalohaematoma - what is it?

A

Acephalohaematoma may occur after a spontaneous vaginal delivery or following a trauma from the obstetric forceps or the ventouse. A haemorrhage results after the presidium is sheared from the parietal bone.

  • A swelling on the newborns head. It typically develops SEVERAL HOURS AFTER DELIVERY and is due to bleeding between the periosteum and skull.
  • The most common site affected is the parietal region.
  • Doesn’t cross suture lines - the tense swelling is limited to the outline of the bone.

Jaundice may develop as a complication.

Takes up to 3 months to resolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the similarities between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma

A
  • Swelling on the head of a newborn.
  • More common following prolonged, difficult deliveries
  • Managed conservatively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

Caput succedaneum is a subcutaneous, extraperiosteal, collection of fluid caused by pressure on the fatal scalp during the birthing process.

  • results in a large oedematous swelling and bruising over the scalp.
  • Present at birth
  • typically forms over the vertex and crosses suture lines
  • Resolves within days (therefore treatment not required)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Intraventricular haemorrhage - what is it and Tx?

A

Intraventricular haemorrhage is a haemorrhage that occurs into the ventricular system of the brain. It is relatively rare in adult surgical practice and when it does occur, it is typically associated with severe head injuries. In PREMATURE neonates it may occur spontaneously. The blood may clot and occlude CSF flow, hydrocephalus may result.

In neonatal practice the vast majority of IVH occur in the first 72 hours after birth, the aetiology is not well understood and it is suggested to occur as a result of birth trauma combined with cellular hypoxia, together the with the delicate neonatal CNS.

Treatment

  • Is largely supportive
  • Hydrocephalus and rising ICP is an indication for shunting.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Is an extradural haemorrhage likely to occur during the birthing process?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is a subaponeurotic haemorrhage?

A

aka subgaleal haemorrhage

- rare and is due to a traumatic birth. It may result in the infant losing large amounts of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Kawasaki disease-features, management and complications

A

Kawasaki disease is a type of VASCULITIS which is predominately seen in children. Whilst Kawasaki disease is uncommon it is important to recognise as it may cause potentially serious complications, including coronary artery aneurysms.

Features

  • high-grade fever which lasts for > 5 days. Fever is characteristically resistant to antipyretics
  • conjunctival injection
  • bright red, cracked lips
  • strawberry tongue
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • red palms of the hands and the soles of the feet which later peel

Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis as there is no specific diagnostic test.

Management

  • high-dose aspirin= Kawasaki disease is one of the few indications for the use of aspirin in children. Due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome aspirin is normally contraindicated in children
  • intravenous immunoglobulin
  • echocardiogram (rather than angiography) is used as the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms

Complications:
coronary artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Neonatal hypoglycaemia causes?

A
  • maternal diabetes mellitus
  • prematurity
  • IUGR
  • hypothermia
  • neonatal sepsis
  • inborn errors of metabolism
  • nesidioblastosis
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Transient hypoglycaemia in a new born normal?

A

transient hypoglycaemia in the first few hours to days after birth is very common.

This is usually monitored and does not need any intervention or escalation. Mothers should be encouraged to feed their child early and at regular intervals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

10 week baby feeling not himself. not smiling much and feeding less. Examination unremarkable apart form a temperature of 38.5. What would be the most appropriate initial step in management?

A

Refer for same-day paediatric assessment (admit to hospital)

A child aged < 3 months with a fever > 38ºC should be assessed as high risk of serious illness.
(3 months old with a temperature > 38ºC is regarded as a ‘red’ feature in the new NICE guidelines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis? Basics, features, investigation, management

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is rare hip condition seen in children, classically seen in obese boys. It is also is known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

Basics

  • typically age group is 10-15 years
  • More common in obese children and boys
  • Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
  • May present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms

Features
hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
bilateral slip in 20% of cases

Investigation
AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic

Management
internal fixation: typically a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the Apgar score?

A

The Apgar score is used to assess the health of a newborn baby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does the Apgar score contain?

A
Pulse 
RR
Colour
Muscle tone
Reflex irritability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is Palivizumab?

A

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody which is used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at increased risk of severe disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Who is at risk of developing RSV?

A

Those at risk of developing RSV include
Premature infants
Infants with lung or heart abnormalities
Immunocompromised infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

At what time is the baby at a high risk of developing severe hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

Less than 24 hours old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Jaundice in the first 24 hours - serious or not?

A

Jaundice in the first 24 hrs is always pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

If a baby is jaundiced less than 24 hours of being born, what is the next most appropriate action to take?

A

Measure bilirubin within 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Causes of jaundice in the first 24 hrs:

A

Pathological jaundice is due to physiological problems in the red blood cells or a cross-reaction with the maternal blood

  • rhesus haemolytic disease
  • ABO haemolytic disease
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Is jaundice in babies normal?

A

Jaundice in the first 24 hrs is always pathological.

Jaundice in the neonate from the c. 2-14 days is common (up to 40%) and usually physiological. It is more commonly seen in breast fed babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

If there are signs of jaundice after 14 days - what investigations would you do?

A

Jaundice screen is performed including:

  • conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin: the most important test as a RAISED CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN could indicate BILIARY ATRESIA which requires urgent surgical intervention
  • direct antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)
  • TFTs
  • FBC and blood film
  • urine for MC&S and reducing sugars
  • U&Es and LFTs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Causes of prolonged jaundice? (after 14 days)

A
  • biliary atresia
  • hypothyroidism
  • galactosaemia
  • urinary tract infection
  • breast milk jaundice
  • congenital infections e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease - clinical features, management?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease is a self-limiting condition affecting children. It is caused by the intestinal viruses of the Picornaviridae family (most commonly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71). It is very contagious and typically occurs in outbreaks at nursery

Clinical features:

  • mild systemic upset: sore throat, FEVER
  • oral ulcers
  • followed later by VESICLES on the PALMS and SOLES of the feet

Management:

  • symptomatic treatment only: general advice about hydration and analgesia
  • reassurance no link to disease in cattle
  • children do not need to be excluded from school
    • the HPA recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better
    • they also advise that you contact them if you suspect that there may be a large outbreak.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

When is a congenital cataract likely to be detected?

A

At with during routine baby -checks. detect loss of red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is retinoblastoma? Pathophysiology, possible features, management , prognosis

A

Retinoblastoma is the most common ocular malignancy found in children. The average age of diagnosis is 18 months.

Pathophysiology

  • autosomal dominant
  • caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 13
  • around 10% of cases are hereditary

Possible features:
- absence of red-reflex, replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria) - the most common presenting symptom
- strabismus- cross-eyed
visual problems

Management

  • enucleation (the removal of the eye that leaves the eye muscles and remaining orbital contents intact) is not the only option
  • depending on how advanced the tumour is other options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy and photocoagulation

Prognosis
- excellent, with > 90% surviving into adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is montelukast?

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the features of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Baby may show symptoms of alcohol withdrawal at birth e.g. irritable, hypotonic, tremors

Features:

  • short ­palpebral fissure- (small eye opening)
  • thin vermillion border/hypoplastic upper lip - (thin)
  • smooth/absent philtrum
  • learning difficulties
  • microcephaly- (small head)
  • growth retardation
  • epicanthic folds - (An epicanthic fold is a skin fold of the upper eyelid that covers the inner corner (medial canthus) of the eye.)
  • cardiac malformations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can cause:

A

Increased risk of miscarriage, stillbirth, pre-term labour and intrauterine growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is Roseola infantum? Features and other possible consequences ? School?

A
Roseola infantum (also known as exanthem subitum, occasionally sixth disease) is a common disease of infancy caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). 
It has an incubation period of 5-15 days and typically affects children aged 6 months to 2 years.

Features

  • high fever: lasting a few days, followed later by a
  • maculopapular rash (the high grade fever resolves before the onset of the rash. The rash typically starts abruptly after the temperature subsides, and usually starts on the trunk before spreading to the limbs. The rash is not itchy)
  • Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
  • febrile convulsions occur in around 10-15%
  • diarrhoea and cough are also commonly seen

Other possible consequences of HHV6 infection

  • aseptic meningitis
  • hepatitis

School exclusion is not needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Chicken pox - rash?

A

typically starts as an itchy red papular rash which becomes vesicular in nature. This can occur on any part of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Measles - features of rash

A

Measles rash occurs alongside other systemic symptoms. It typically starts on the face before spreading to other parts of the body.
The characteristic ‘koplik spots’ are classical of this illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Newborn hearing test is called?

A

Otoacoustic emission test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What test is conducted if otoacoustic emission test is abnormal ?

A

Auditory Brainstem Response test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the hearing tests done after a being the newborn stage?

A

6-9 months= Distraction test
18 months - 2.5 years = Recognition of familiar objects
> 2.5 years =Performance testing
> 2.5 years= Speech discrimination tests
> 3 years=Pure tone audiometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Roseola infantum - when does the rash occur?

A

the fever is followed later by rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

When is Croup common?

A

Late autumn but can occur throughout the year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the first line treatment in children with nocturnal enuresis following initial lifestyle and behavioural measures?

A

A enuresis alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How is Haemophilia A inherited?

A

X-linked recessive condition

They are only passed on from mothers (carriers) to sons.

A father with haemophilia A can only pass on the gene to his daughters who will become carriers and he cannot pass on the gene to his sons as they inherit the Y-chromosome from him.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Innocent murmurs heard in children include- (types)

A
  1. Ejection murmurs- Due to turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart
  2. Venous hums- Due to the turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Heard as a continuous blowing noise heard just below the clavicles
  3. Still’s murmur-Low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Characteristics of an innocent ejection murmur include:

A
  • soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or short buzzing murmur in the aortic area
  • may vary with posture
  • localised with no radiation
  • no diastolic component
  • no thrill
  • no added sounds (e.g. clicks)
  • asymptomatic child
  • no other abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Meningitis in children: investigation and management

A
Investigations=
Contraindication to lumbar puncture (any signs of raised ICP):
-focal neurological signs
-papilloedema
-significant bulging of the fontanelle
-disseminated intravascular coagulation
-signs of cerebral herniation

For patients with meningococcal septicaemia a lumbar puncture is contraindicated - blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained.

Management=
1. Antibiotics
< 3 months: IV amoxicillin + IV cefotaxime
> 3 months: IV cefotaxime

  1. Steroids
    - NICE advise against giving corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months
    - dexamethsone should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals any of the following:
    - -frankly purulent CSF
    - -CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre
    - -raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre
    - -bacteria on Gram stain
  2. Fluids
    treat any shock, e.g. with colloid
  3. Cerebral monitoring
    - mechanical ventilation if respiratory impairment
  4. Public health notification and antibiotic prophylaxis of contacts
    - ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does a child grunting indicate?

A

respiratory distress

this is a red flag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Bronchiolitis: epidemiology, basics, features , investigations m management

A

Bronchiolitis is a condition characterised by acute BRONCHIOLAR INFLAMMATION.
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the pathogen in 75-80% of cases.

Epidemiology

  • most common cause of a serious lower respiratory tract infection in < 1yr olds (90% are 1-9 months, with a peak incidence of 3-6 months). Maternal IgG provides protection to newborns against RSV
  • higher incidence in winter

Basics

  • respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the pathogen in 75-80% of cases
  • other causes: mycoplasma, adenoviruses
  • may be secondary bacterial infection
  • more serious if bronchopulmonary dysplasia (e.g. Premature), congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis

Features

  • coryzal symptoms (including mild fever) precede:
  • dry cough
  • increasing breathlessness
  • wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)
  • feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea are often the reason for hospital admission

NICE recommend immediate referral (usually by 999 ambulance) if they have any of the following:

  • apnoea (observed or reported)
  • child looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional
  • severe respiratory distress, for example grunting, marked chest recession, or a respiratory rate of over 70 breaths/minute
  • central cyanosis
  • persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air.

NICE recommend that clinicians ‘consider’ referring to hospital if any of the following apply:

  • a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute
  • difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake (50-75% of usual volume ‘taking account of risk factors and using clinical judgement’)
  • clinical dehydration.

Investigation
- immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

Management is largely supportive

  • humidified oxygen is given via a head box and is typically recommended if the oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%
  • nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth
  • suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Infantile spasms- features, investigation, management

A

Infantile spasms, or West syndrome, is a type of childhood epilepsy which typically presents in the first 4 to 8 months of life and is more common in male infants. They are often associated with a serious underlying condition and carry a poor prognosis

Features

  • characteristic ‘salaam’ attacks: flexion of the head, trunk and arms followed by extension of the arms
  • this lasts only 1-2 seconds but may be repeated up to 50 times
  • progressive mental handicap

Investigation

  • the EEG shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants
  • CT demonstrates diffuse or localised brain disease in 70% (e.g. tuberous sclerosis)

Management

  • poor prognosis
  • vigabatrin is now considered first-line therapy
  • ACTH is also used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Cleft lip and palate - commonest variants, pathophysiology, problems, management?

A

Cleft lip and palate affect around 1 in every 1,000 babies. They are the most common congenital deformity affecting the orofacial structures. Whilst they may be an isolated developmental malformation they are also a recognised component of more than 200 birth defects.

Orofacial clefts are a common malformation with many associated risk factors which can be split into those due to events in pregnancy (smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic use, rubella infection) and syndromic disorders affecting the baby (trisomies 18, 13 and 15).

The commonest variants are:

  • isolated cleft lip (15%)
  • isolated cleft palate (40%)
  • combined cleft lip and palate (45%)

Pathophysiology

  • polygenic inheritance
  • maternal antiepileptic use increases risk
  • cleft lip results from failure of the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes to fuse
  • cleft palate results from failure of the palatine processes and the nasal septum to fuse

Problems

  • feeding: orthodontic devices may be helpful
  • speech: with speech therapy 75% of children develop normal speech
  • increased risk of otitis media for cleft palate babies

Management

  • cleft lip is repaired earlier than cleft palate, with practices varying from repair in the first week of life to three months
  • cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Scaphoid abdomen and bilious vomiting is suggestive of…? What investigations are required?

A

Intestinal malrotation

An urgent upper GI contrast study and ultrasound is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

History of projective vomiting, weight loss, non bilious. What would confirm the diagnosis?

A

A history of projective vomiting and weight loss is a common story suggestive of pyloric stenosis. The vomit is often not bile stained. Diagnosis is further suggested by hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis and a palpable tumour on test feeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Displaced apes beat and decreased air entry. Abdominal examination - scaphoid abdomen. Diagnosis?

A

Displaced apex beat and decreased air entry are suggestive of diaphragmatic hernia. The abdomen may well be scaphoid in some cases. The underlying lung may be hypoplastic and this correlates directly with prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus -overview, features, management?

A

Overview

  • a form of congenital heart defect
  • generally classed as ‘acyanotic’. However, uncorrected can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, termed differential cynaosis.
  • connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta
  • usually the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow which enhances prostaglandins clearance
  • more common in premature babies, born at high altitude or maternal rubella infection in the first trimester

Features

  • left subclavicular thrill
  • continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
  • large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
  • wide pulse pressure
  • heaving apex beat

Management

  • indomethacin (inhibits prostaglandin synthesis) closes the connection in the majority of cases
  • if associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Bordetella pertussis - causes what condition ?

A

whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Ebstein’s anomaly- what is it, features ? and what are its associations? caused by?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect characterised by low insertion of the tricuspid valve resulting in a large atrium and small ventricle. It is sometimes referred to as ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle.

Features
-the posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve are displaced anteriorly towards the apex of the right ventricle.
- The creates tricuspid regurgitation (pan-systolic murmur) and tricuspid stenosis (mid-diastolic murmur).
There is also enlargement of the right atrium.
- present days after birth

Associations

  • tricuspid incompetence (pan-systolic murmur, giant V waves in JVP)
  • Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome - This may lead to tricuspid regurgitation and in 50% of patients Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is seen, which is a pre-excitation syndrome caused by an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and the ventricles which may lead to an irregular heart rate

Ebstein’s anomaly may be caused by exposure to lithium in-utero - mother taking lithium during the first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What murmur is heard with ventricular septal defects?

A

pan-systolic but not diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

At what age does Tetralogy fo Fallot present?

A

at 1-2 months of age rather than in the days after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What murmur is heard with mitral valve prolapse?

A

Mitral valve prolapse presents with a mid systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur but has no diastolic element.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Congenital heart disease -types: acyanotic - common causes ?

A
  • ventricular septal defects (VSD) - most common, accounts for 30%
  • atrial septal defect (ASD)
  • patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
  • coarctation of the aorta
  • aortic valve stenosis

VSDs are more common than ASDs. However, in adult patients ASDs are the more common new diagnosis as they generally presents later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Congenital heart disease -types: cyanotic - common causes ?

A
  • tetralogy of Fallot
  • transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
  • tricuspid atresia

Fallot’s is more common than TGA. However, at birth TGA is the more common lesion as patients with Fallot’s generally presenting at around 1-2 months

The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends very much on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are complications of Fragile X?

A

Mitral valve prolapse, pes planus, autism, memory problems and speech disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Flat feet? What in a child does this mean?

A
Flat feet (pes planus)
Normal lower limb variants in children. 
Typical age of presentation - all ages
- Typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years
- Orthotics are not recommended
- Parental reassurance appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

In toeing? What are the possible causes?

A

Normal lower limb variants in children
Typically 1st year of life.
Possible causes:
- metatarsus adductus: abnormal heel bisector line. 90% of cases resolve spontaneously, severe/persistent cases may require serial casting
- internal tibial torsion: difference the thigh and foot ankle: resolves in the vast majority
-femoral anteversion: ‘W’ sign resolves in around 80% by adolescence, surgical intervention in the remaining not usually advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Out toeing? What are the possible causes?

A

Can occur at all ages
- Common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years
Usually due to external tibial torsion
Intervention may be appropriate if doesn’t resolve as increases risk of patellofemoral pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Bow legs (genu varum)?

A

Typically occurs in the 1st to 2nd year of life.

  • Normal lower limb variants in children
  • Typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Knock knees (genu valgum) ?

A

Typically occurs in the 3rd to 4th year of life.

  • Normal lower limb variants in children
  • Typically resolves spontaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Threadworms- features and management?

A

Infestation with threadworms (Enterobius vermicularis, sometimes called pinworms) is extremely common amongst children in the UK. Infestation occurs after swallowing eggs that are present in the environment.

Threadworm infestation is asymptomatic in around 90% of cases, possible features include:

  • perianal itching, particularly worse at night
  • It is also possible to see threadworms, described as small threads of slowly-moving white cotton either around the anus or in the stools.
  • girls may have vulval symptoms

Diagnosis may be made by the applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

Management

  • CKS recommend a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household
  • mebendazole is used first-line for children > 6 months old. A single dose is given unless infestation persists. The risk of transmission in families is as high as 75%, and asymptomatic infestation is common. For this reason an anthelmintic drug (mebendazole) should be given as a single dose to all household members.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in children?

A

Hypothyroidism in children (juvenile hypothyroidism) is autoimmune thyroiditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Causes for hypothyroidism in children?

juvenile hypothyroidism

A
  • autoimmune thyroiditis
  • post total-body irradiation (e.g. in a child previous treated for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia)
  • iodine deficiency (the most common cause in the developing world)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Edward’s syndrome? Features ?

A

Micrognathia
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Ultrasound markers of Edwards syndrome?

A
There are several ultrasound markers which are suggestive of Edwards syndrome and should prompt further investigation. 
These include:
- Cardiac malformations
- Choroid plexus cysts
- Neural tube defects
- Abnormal hand and feet position: clenched hands, rocker bottom feet and clubbed feet
- Exomphalos
- Growth restriction
- Single umbilical artery
- Polyhydramnios
- Small placenta

Whilst these are not specific to Edwards syndrome, they are highly suggestive and together increase the likelihood of diagnosis. In fetal medicine these are known as ‘soft markers’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the confirmation of diagnosis for Edward’s syndrome?

A

karyotype analysis of placental (chorionic villus sampling) or amniotic fluid (amniocentesis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are febrile convulsions? Clinical features? Types of febrile convulsions? Management?

A

Febrile convulsions are seizures provoked by fever in otherwise normal children. They typically occur between the ages of 6 months and 5 years and are seen in 3% of children.

Clinical features

  • usually occur early in a viral infection as the temperature rises rapidly
  • seizures are usually brief, lasting less than 5 minutes
  • are most commonly tonic-clonic

Types of febrile convulsion:
1. simple = <15 mins, generalised seizure, typically no recurrence within 24 hours, Should be complete recovery within an hour

  1. complex =15 - 30 minutes,Focal seizure,May have repeat seizures within 24 hours
  2. febrile status epilepticus = >30 mins

Management following a seizure
- children who have had a first seizure OR any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Causes of snoring in children?

A
  • obesity
  • nasal problems: polyps, deviated septum, hypertrophic nasal turbinates
  • recurrent tonsillitis
  • Down’s syndrome (This is due to the low muscle tone in the upper airways and large tongue/adenoids. There is also an increased risk of obesity which in people with Down’s syndrome which is another predisposing factor to snoring.)
  • hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Is a cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the investigation of choice for intussusception?

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Hypotonia- causes?

A

Hypotonia, or floppiness, may be central in origin or related to nerve and muscle problems. - An acutely ill child (e.g. septicaemic) may be hypotonic on examination. Hypotonia associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period is most likely caused by HYPOXIC ISCHAEMIC ENCEPHALOPATHY

Central causes:

  • Down’s syndrome
  • Prader-Willi syndrome
  • hypothyroidism
  • cerebral palsy (hypotonia may - precede the development of spasticity)

Neurological and muscular problems:

  • spinal muscular atrophy
  • spina bifida
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • myasthenia gravis
  • muscular dystrophy
  • myotonic dystrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Does CF cause hypotonia?

A

Cystic fibrosis is NOT a cause of hypotonia in infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Wilms’ tumour - associations, features, histological features, referral, mx

A

Wilms’ nephroblastoma is one of the most common childhood malignancies. It typically presents in children under 5 years of age, with a median age of 3 years old.

Associations

  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • as part of WAGR syndrome with Aniridia, Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation
  • hemihypertrophy
  • around one-third of cases are associated with a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11

Features

  • abdominal mass (most common presenting feature) - palpable non tender mass
  • distended abdomen
  • PAINLESS haematuria
  • FLANK PAIN
  • other features: anorexia (reduction in appetite), fever
  • unilateral in 95% of cases
  • metastases are found in 20% of patients (most commonly lung)
  • Histological features include epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema

Referral
- children with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children - possible Wilm’s tumour - arrange paediatric review with 48 hours

Management

  • nephrectomy
  • chemotherapy
  • radiotherapy if advanced disease
  • prognosis: good, 80% cure rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Are renal cysts painful?

A

Depending on their size often give rise to pain on palpation similar with polycystic kidney disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are potential treatments for pathological jaundice in a. newborn?

A

Phototherapy

Exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What management is required if necrotising enterocolitis deteriorates?

A

Laparotomy

is often initially managed medically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What sign is seen on ultrasound when one has intussusception?

A

A target sign - is the side on view of multiple layers of bowel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the first line management of intussceception?

A

Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance (reduction using fluoroscopy with air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Does a cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy ever resolve?

A

The majority resolve by the age of 2. 90% of cases resolve by age 1, the rest resolve by age 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the most common presentation of JIA?

A

Pauciarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) - is defined as affecting up to four joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

How to screen for the complications of Kawasaki disease?

A

Echocardiogram - as coronary artery aneurysms are a complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis if a cyanotic congenital heart disease presents at 1-2 months?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Laryngomalacia -what is it?How present?

A

Laryngomalacia should be suspected in an otherwise well infant with noisy breathing.

Congenital abnormality of the larynx. It is caused by a congenital softening of the cartilage of the larynx, causing collapse during inspiration.

Infants typical present at 4 weeks of age with:
STRIDOR.
(is the cause of stridor in approx 50% of neonatal cases)
Laryngomalacia can present at birth, and worsens in the first few weeks of life. It usually self-resolves before 2 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease- what is it ?features? Mx?

A

AKA tibial apophysitis

It is a traction apophysitis thought to be caused by repeated avulsion of the apophysis into which the patellar tendon is inserted

  • Seen in sporty teenagers
  • Pain, tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle
  • Unilateral (but may be bilateral in up to 30% of people).
  • Gradual in onset and initially mild and intermittent, but may progress to become severe and continuous.
  • Relieved by rest and made worse by kneeling and activity, such as running or jumping

Management is supportive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Fragile X syndrome - does it cause macrocephaly or microcephaly?

A

Whilst not a classic cause of macrocephaly, children with Fragile X syndrome tend to have a head larger than normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Causes of microcephaly?

A

Microcephaly may be defined as an occipital-frontal circumference < 2nd centile

Causes include

  • normal variation e.g. small child with small head
  • familial e.g. parents with small head
  • congenital infection
  • perinatal brain injury e.g. hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
  • fetal alcohol syndrome
  • syndromes: Patau
  • craniosynostosis
182
Q

Perthes’ disease- features, diagnosis, complications, staging, management, prognosis?

A

Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, specifically the femoral epiphysis. Impaired blood supply to the femoral head causes bone infarction.

Perthes’ disease is 5 times more common in boys. Around 10% of cases are bilateral

Features
hip pain: develops progressively over a few weeks (can last for months)
limp
stiffness and reduced range of hip movement
x-ray: early changes include widening of joint space, later changes include decreased femoral head size/flattening

Diagnosis
plain x-ray
technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging if normal x-ray and symptoms persist

Complications
osteoarthritis
premature fusion of the growth plates

Catterall staging
Stage 1-Clinical and histological features only
Stage 2- Sclerosis with or without cystic changes and preservation of the articular surface
Stage 3- Loss of structural integrity of the femoral head
Stage 4-Loss of acetabular integrity

Management
To keep the femoral head within the acetabulum: cast, braces
If less than 6 years: observation
Older: surgical management with moderate results
Operate on severe deformities

Prognosis
Most cases will resolve with conservative management. Early diagnosis improves outcomes.

183
Q

Neonatal death is defined as…?

A

babies dying between 0-28 days of birth

184
Q

What is Meconium aspiration syndrome?

A

Meconium aspiration syndrome refers to respiratory distress in the newborn as a result of meconium in the trachea. It occurs in the immediate neonatal period. It is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. It causes respiratory distress, which can be severe. Higher rates occur where there is a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking or substance abuse.

185
Q

Thyroglossal cyst

A

Located in the anterior triangle, usually in the midline and below the hyoid (65% cases)
Derived from remnants of the thyroglossal duct
Thin walled and anechoic on USS (echogenicity suggests infection of cyst)

186
Q

Branchial cyst

A
  • Six branchial arches separated by branchial clefts
  • Incomplete obliteration of the branchial apparatus may result in cysts, sinuses or fistulae
  • 75% of branchial cysts originate from the second branchial cleft
  • Usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid near the angle of the mandible
  • Unless infected the fluid of the cyst has a similar consistency to water and is anechoic on USS
187
Q

What would an abdominal film show if one has intussusception?

A

large soft tissue opacity -

Sausage -shaped opacity

188
Q

What are the ultrasound findings if one has intussusception?

A

Target sign

189
Q

When is. it considered that there is a delayed passage of meconium?

A

delayed passage - specifically >48 hours (is a red flag associated with Hirschsprung’s disease)

-Meconium normally passes within the first 24 hours.

190
Q

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in the newborn period. It is caused by delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs

It is more common following Caesarean sections, possibly due to the lung fluid not being ‘squeezed out’ during the passage through the birth canal

Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure

Supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturations. Transient tachypnoea of the newborn usually settles within 1-2 days

191
Q

At what age can children legally be able to consent to sex?

A

Legally, children under the age of 13 are unable to consent to sex.
Therefore - you should disclose that this child has even sexually active to the relevant authority

192
Q

Potential causes of napkin rashes?

A

Causes of a napkin (‘nappy’) rash include the following:

  • Irritant dermatitis
  • Candida dermatitis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Psoriasis
  • Atopic eczema
193
Q

Features os irritant dermatitis - napkin rash

A

nappy rash

  • The most common cause, due to irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces
  • Creases are characteristically spared
194
Q

Features of candid dermatitis - napkin rash

A

Typically an erythematous rash which involve the flexures and has characteristic satellite lesions

195
Q

Features of seborrhoeic dermatitis- napkin rash?

A

Erythematous rash with flakes. May be coexistent scalp rash

196
Q

Features of Psoriasis- napkin rash?

A

A less common cause characterised by an erythematous scaly rash also present elsewhere on the skin

197
Q

Features of atopic Eczema - napkin rash?

A

Other areas of the skin will also be affected

198
Q

General management points for napkin rashes?

A
  • disposable nappies are preferable to towel nappies
  • expose napkin area to air when possible
  • apply barrier cream (e.g. Zinc and castor oil)
  • mild steroid cream (e.g. 1% hydrocortisone) in severe cases
  • management of suspected candidal nappy rash is with a topical imidazole. Cease the use of a barrier cream until the candida has settled
199
Q

Child presents with anaemia, neutropaenia and thrombocytopaenia, purpuric rash - diagnosis?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

200
Q

ALL - features, types, poor prognostic factors

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common malignancy affecting children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. The peak incidence is at around 2-5 years of age and boys are affected slightly more commonly than girls

Features may be divided into those predictable by bone marrow failure:

anaemia: lethargy and pallor
neutropaenia: frequent or severe infections
thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechiae

And other features
bone pain (secondary to bone marrow infiltration)
splenomegaly
hepatomegaly
fever is present in up to 50% of new cases (representing infection or constitutional symptom)
testicular swelling

Types
common ALL (75%), CD10 present, pre-B phenotype
T-cell ALL (20%)
B-cell ALL (5%)

Poor prognostic factors
age < 2 years or > 10 years
WBC > 20 * 109/l at diagnosis
T or B cell surface markers
non-Caucasian
male sex
201
Q

What is pertussis?

A

whooping cough

202
Q

Whooping cough - features, diagnostic features, diagnosis, management, complications

A

Whooping cough (pertussis) is an infectious disease caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It typically presents in children. There are around 1,000 cases are reported each year in the UK.

Immunisation
infants are routinely immunised at 2, 3, 4 months and 3-5 years. Newborn infants are particularly vulnerable, which is why the vaccination campaign for pregnant women was introduced
neither infection nor immunisation results in lifelong protection - hence adolescents and adults may develop whooping cough despite having had their routine immunisations

Features, 2-3 days of coryza precede onset of:

  • coughing bouts: usually worse at night and after feeding, may be ended by vomiting & associated central cyanosis
  • inspiratory whoop: not always present (caused by forced inspiration against a closed glottis)
  • infants may have spells of apnoea
  • persistent coughing may cause subconjunctival haemorrhages or even anoxia leading to syncope & seizures
  • symptoms may last 10-14 weeks* and tend to be more severe in infants
  • marked lymphocytosis

Diagnostic criteria
Whooping cough should be suspected if a person has an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and has one or more of the following features:
Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

Diagnosis
per nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis - may take several days or weeks to come back
PCR and serology are now increasingly used as their availability becomes more widespread

Management
infants under 6 months with suspect pertussis should be admitted
in the UK pertussis is a notifiable disease
an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread
household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis
antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness
school exclusion: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics )

Complications

  • subconjunctival haemorrhage
  • pneumonia
  • bronchiectasis
  • seizures
203
Q

Management of umbilical hernias

A

Usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age. If small and asymptomatic peform elective repair at 4-5 years of age - due to the risk of incarceration .

204
Q

Development problems - referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, speech and language problems

A

Referral points

  • doesn’t smile at 10 weeks
  • cannot sit unsupported at 12 months
  • cannot walk at 18 months

Fine motor skill problems
- hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy

Gross motor problems
- most common causes of problems: variant of normal, cerebral palsy and neuromuscular disorders (e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy)

Speech and language problems

  • always check hearing
  • other causes include environmental deprivation and general development delay
205
Q

What is the most likely causative agent of bacterial pneumonia in children?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

206
Q

Management of CAP?

A
  • Amoxicillin is first-line for all children with pneumonia
  • Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first line therapy
  • Macrolides should be used if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected
  • In pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended
207
Q

What is early-onset neonatal sepsis is in the UK most likely caused by?

A

Group B streptococcus infection

208
Q

Neonatal sepsis - epidemiology, causes, risk factors, investigations, management

A

Neonatal sepsis occurs when a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood affects babies within the first 28 days of life. Neonatal sepsis is categorised into early onset (within 72 hours of birth) and late onset (between 7-28 days of life) sepsis, with each category tending to have a distinct group of causes and common presentations. Neonatal sepsis account for 10% of all neonatal mortality and therefore must be promptly identified and managed to prevent significant consequences, as untreated, the mortality can be as high as 100%.

Epidemiology
Male:female incidence 1:1
Incidence of neonatal sepsis: 1-5 per 1000 live births
Term neonates: 1-2 per 1000 live births
Late pre-term infants: 5 per 1000 live births
Birth weight <2.5kg: 0.5 per 1000 live births
Black race is an independent risk factor for group B streptococcus-related sepsis

Causes

  • Neonatal infection is present in 8 per 1000 live births (note: this is the incidence of neonatal infection, not yet necessarily progressed to neonatal sepsis), and is the key factor which leads to subsequent life-threatening neonatal sepsis
  • The overall most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two thirds of neonatal sepsis cases
  • Early-onset sepsis in the UK is primarily caused by GBS infection (75%)
    • -Infective causes in early-onset sepsis are usually due to transmission of pathogens from the mother to the neonate during delivery
  • Late-onset sepsis usually occurs via the transmission of pathogens from the environment post-delivery, this is normally from contacts such as the parents or healthcare workers
    • -Infective causes are more commonly coagulase-negative staphylococcal species such as Staphylococcus epidermidis, Gram-negative bacteria such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella and Enterobacter, and fungal species
Other less common causes include:
Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus
Listeria monocytogenes
Viruses including herpes simplex and enterovirus

Risk factors

  • Mother who has had a previous baby with GBS infection, who has current GBS colonisation from prenatal screening, current bacteruria, intrapartum temperature ≥38ºC, membrane rupture ≥18 hours, or current infection throughout pregnancy
  • Premature (<37 weeks): approximately 85% of neonatal sepsis cases are in premature neonates
  • Low birth weight (<2.5kg): approximately 80% are low birth weight
  • Evidence of maternal chorioamnionitis

Patients typically present with a subacute onset of:

  • Respiratory distress (85%)
    • -Grunting
    • -Nasal flaring
    • -Use of accessory respiratory muscles
    • -Tachypnoea
  • Tachycardia: common, but non-specific
  • Apnoea (40%)
  • Jaundice (35%)
  • Seizures (35%): if cause of sepsis is meningitis
  • Poor/reduced feeding (30%)
  • Abdominal distention (20%)
  • Vomiting (25%)
  • Temperature: not usually a reliable sign as the temperature can vary from being raised, lowered or normal
    • -Term infants are more likely to be febrile
    • -Pre-term infants are more likely to be hypothermic
  • The clinical presentation can vary from very subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock
  • Frequently, the symptoms will be related to the source of infection (e.g. pneumonia + respiratory symptoms, meningitis + neurological symptoms)

Investigations:

  • Blood culture: this will usually establish the diagnosis, as the sensitivity for septicaemia is around 90%. Should usually obtain two blood cultures if possible to distinguish from contamination, however one culture is still sufficient depending on hospital protocol
  • Full blood examination: neonatal sepsis is often associated with abnormal neutrophil counts (both neutrophilia and neutropenia), however in neonates, parameters on full blood examination are usually not always useful for diagnosis, rather may help to exclude healthy neonates
  • C-reactive protein: not useful for diagnosis, but sequential assessment will help to guide management and patient progress with treatment. CRP will usually be raised, and a persistently normal level is likely to exclude neonatal sepsis
  • Blood gases: metabolic acidosis is particularly concerning for neonatal sepsis, particularly a base deficit of ≥10 mmol/L
  • Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity: will show signs of infection (e.g. raised leukocytes, positive culture, haematuria, proteinuria) if urinary tract infection is the source of sepsis
  • Lumbar puncture: particularly if there is concern of meningitis as the source of sepsis based on clinical features, however many hospitals will require lumbar puncture as part of a septic screen in any baby below the age of 28 days

Management

  • In neonatal sepsis, the most important part of management to improve outcomes is early identification and treatment
  • The NICE guidelines recommend use of intravenous benzylpenicillin with gentamicin as a first-line regimen for suspected or confirmed neonatal sepsis
    • -The exception to this is if microbiological surveillance data reveal local bacterial resistance patterns, in which case an alternative antibiotic should be considered
    • -CRP should be re-measured 18–24 hours after presentation in babies given antibiotics to monitor ongoing progress and guide duration of therapy
    • -The evidence suggests that antibiotics can be ceased at 48 hours in neonates who have CRP of <10 mg/L and a negative blood culture at presentation and at 48 hours
    • -In all other neonates, the duration of antibiotic treatment will depend on the ongoing investigations and clinical picture, this will involve specialist decision making. Normally, in neonates with culture-proven sepsis, duration will be approximately 10 days
  • Other important management factors to consider include:
    • -Maintaining adequate oxygenation status
    • -Maintaining normal fluid and electrolyte status: severely ill neonates may require volume and/or vasopressor support. Body weight needs to be measured daily for accurate assessment of fluid status
    • -Prevention and/or management of hypoglycaemia
    • -Prevention and/or management of metabolic acidosis
209
Q

By what age should children have a vocabulary between 20-50 words and be able to join 2 words with meaning?

A

23-24 months

210
Q

What is the first line therapy for treatment of threadworm?

A

Oral mebendazole

211
Q

Prader- Willi syndrome - inheritance, features?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father:

  • Prader-Willi syndrome if gene deleted from father
  • Angelman syndrome if gene deleted from mother

Prader-Willi syndrome is associated with the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on the long arm of chromosome 15. This may be due to:

  • microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases)
  • maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15

Features

  • hypotonia during infancy
  • dysmorphic features
  • short stature
  • hypogonadism and infertility
  • learning difficulties
  • childhood obesity
  • behavioural problems in adolescence
212
Q

Before what age is hand preference abnormal?

A

before 12 months

May indicate cerebral palsy

213
Q

A15 year old with capacity refusing treatment - what do you do?

A

Therefore, they have the right to agree to a treatment without a parent’s consent, but if they choose to refuse it, you must weigh up their best interests.
e.g. if the patient has diabetic ketoacidosis, the decision to leave would most likely be fatal and so it would be fair to make the decision that it is in her best interests.

(The General medical council’s ethical guidance states: ‘Parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person to treatment that you consider is in their best interests. But you can rely on parental consent when a child lacks the capacity to consent.)

214
Q

What would an MRI show for Perthes’ disease ?

A

reduced perfusion to the hip

215
Q

What is the management for a 4 year year old that has Perthes’ disease?

A

Age <6, the prognosis is good with no intervention - only observation

216
Q

What is the management for a 7 year old that has Perthes’ disease?

A

Surgical repair of Perthes’ disease is only indicated in children age >6.

217
Q

Down’s syndrome -clinical features?

A
  • face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small low-set ears, round/flat face
  • flat occiput
  • single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ between big and first toe
  • hypotonia
  • congenital heart defects (40-50%, see below)
  • duodenal atresia
  • Hirschsprung’s disease
218
Q

Downs syndrome - Cardiac complications

A
  • multiple cardiac problems may be present
  • endocardial cushion defect (most common, 40%, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects)
  • ventricular septal defect (c. 30%)
  • secundum atrial septal defect (c. 10%)
  • tetralogy of Fallot (c. 5%)
  • isolated patent ductus arteriosus (c. 5%)
219
Q

Downs syndrome - later complications

A
  • subfertility: males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females are usually subfertile, and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour
  • learning difficulties
  • short stature
  • repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  • hypothyroidism
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • atlantoaxial instability
220
Q

What complication of Down’s syndrome is of immediate concern for a child that plays sports ?

A

Atlantoaxial instability
- people with Down syndrome who participate in sports that may carry an increased risk of neck dislocation (e.g. trampolining, gymnastics, boxing, diving, rugby and horse riding)

221
Q

How can a barium enema be helpful in diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

it demonstrates a cone with dilated ganglionic proximal colon and the distal aganglionic bowel failing to distend.

222
Q

What would an AXR show if someone has Hirschsprung’s; disease?

A

A plain abdominal x ray will demonstrate dilated loops of bowel with fluid levels

223
Q

What would an AXR show if one has necrotising enterocolitis?

A

X -Ray of the abdomen shows distended loops of intestine and gas bubbles may be seen in the bowel wall.

224
Q

Who more commonly has necrotising enterocoltitis ?

A

Premature infants

225
Q

90% of newborns with meconium ileus have…?

A

CF

226
Q

What does an AXR of someone with meconium ileus look like?

A

x Ray of the abdomen shows distended coils of bowel and typical mottled ground glass appearance. Fluid levels are scarce as the meconium is viscid.

227
Q

Normal pCO2 in asthma?

A

Indicative of reduced respiratory effort in asthma as is, therefore, a life-threatening sign

228
Q

Severe attack - asthma - features

A
SpO2 < 92%
PEF 33-50% best or predicted
Too breathless to talk or feed
Heart rate
>125 (>5 years)
>140 (1-5 years)
Respiratory rate 
>30 breaths/min (>5 years)
>40 (1-5 years)
Use of accessory neck muscles
229
Q

Life-threatening attack - asthma - features?

A
SpO2 <92%
PEF <33% best or predicted
Silent chest
Poor respiratory effort
Agitation
Altered consciousness
Cyanosis
230
Q

Antibiotics for meningitis - <3 months

A

IV amoxicillin + IV cefotaxime

give IV amoxicillin in addition to cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

231
Q

Achondroplasia - features and treatment

A

Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with short stature. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene. This results in abnormal cartilage giving rise to:

  • short limbs (rhizomelia) with shortened fingers (brachydactyly)
  • large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum
  • midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge
  • ‘trident’ hands
  • lumbar lordosis

In most cases (approximately 70%) it occurs as a sporadic mutation. The main risk factor is advancing parental age at the time of conception. Once present it is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

Treatment
There is no specific therapy. However, some individuals benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These usually involve application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. A clearly defined need and end point is the cornerstone of achieving success with such procedures.

232
Q

CF - features?

A

Presenting features

  • neonatal period (around 20%): meconium ileus, less commonly prolonged jaundice
  • recurrent chest infections (40%)
  • malabsorption (30%): steatorrhoea, failure to thrive
  • other features (10%): liver disease

Whilst many patients are picked up during newborn screening programmes or early childhood, it is worth remembering that around 5% of patients are diagnosed after the age of 18 years.

Other features of cystic fibrosis

  • short stature
  • diabetes mellitus
  • delayed puberty
  • rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools)
  • nasal polyps
  • male infertility, female subfertility
233
Q

A child with CF develops diabetes , was else may she develop as a result?

A

steatorrhoea due to fat malabsorption
-usually due to insufficiency of pancreatic enzymes once the disease process has affected the pancreas

Development of diabetes is evidence of pancreatic disease involvement as insulin production has been affected.

234
Q

Ifthe ‘Newborn Hearing Screening Programme’ is abnormal they go on to have which hearing test?

A

auditory brainstem response test as a newborn/infant

This involves three small sensors being placed on the baby’s head and neck, and soft headphones are used to play quiet clicking sounds; the sensors detect how your baby’s brain and hearing nerves respond to the sound and a computer analyses the results.

235
Q

a baby born with microcephaly, small eyes, low-set ears, cleft lip and polydactyly - diagnosis ?

A

Patau syndrome

236
Q

Key features of Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

  • Microcephalic, small eyes
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Polydactyly
  • Scalp lesions

Like many of the chromosomal defects, physical and mental disability is common, in this case key distinguishing features to separate Patau’s from other trisomy disorders include polydactyly, cleft lips and palates, microcephaly and microphthalmia.

Many children die before within a year of birth but those who survive will often go on to show intellectual and motor disability.

237
Q

Alpha-thalassaemia- severity

A

Alpha-thalassaemia is due to a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin

Overview
2 separate alpha-globulin genes are located on each chromosome 16

Clinical severity depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected:
If 1 or 2 alpha globulin alleles are affected then the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the Hb level would be typically normal
If are 3 alpha globulin alleles are affected results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly. This is known as Hb H disease
If all 4 alpha globulin alleles are affected (i.e. homozygote) then death in utero (hydrops fetalis, Bart’s hydrops)

238
Q

Mesenteric adenitis - what is it ?

A

Mesenteric adenitis is inflamed lymph nodes within the mesentery. It can cause similar symptoms to appendicitis and can be difficult to distinguish between the two. It often follows a recent viral infection and needs no treatment

239
Q

What is the seizure pattern in West’s syndrome?

A

The seizure pattern in west’s syndrome are known as infantile spasms, and to the family they can appear to look like colic.

In this case, it is important to understand there is a definitive pathology due to the abnormal EEG and MRI, with hypsarrhythmia being classical of west’s syndrome.

240
Q

Sudden infant death syndrome - major risk factors

A

Sudden infant death syndrome is the commonest cause of death in the first year of life. It is most common at 3 months of age.

Major risk factors

  • putting the baby to sleep prone: the relative risk or odds ratio varies from 3.5 - 9.3. If not accustomed to prone sleeping (i.e. the baby usually sleeps on their back) the odds ratio increases to 8.7-45.4
  • parental smoking: studies suggest this increases the risk up to 5 fold
  • prematurity: 4-fold increased risk
  • bed sharing: odds ratio 5.1
  • hyperthermia (e.g. over-wrapping) or head covering (e.g. blanket accidentally moves)

Following a cot death siblings should be screened for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

241
Q

Other risks of sudden death syndrome

A
  • male sex
  • multiple births
  • social classes IV and V
  • maternal drug use
    incidence increases in winter
242
Q

Protective factors for sudden infantile death

A
  • breastfeeding
  • room sharing (but not bed sharing, which is a significant risk factor)
  • the use of dummies (pacifiers)
243
Q

What investigations should be performed in infants younger than 3 months with a fever?

A
  • Full blood count
  • Blood culture
  • C-reactive protein
  • Urine testing for urinary tract infection
  • Chest radiograph only if respiratory signs are present
  • Stool culture, if diarrhoea is present
244
Q

Measles- features, Ix, Mx, complications, management of contacts

A

Measles is now rarely seen in the developed world following the adoption of immunisation programmes. Outbreaks are occasionally seen, particularly when vaccinations rates drop, for example after the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

Overview

  • RNA paramyxovirus
  • spread by droplets
  • infective from prodrome until 4 days after rash starts
  • incubation period = 10-14 days

Features

  • prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
  • Koplik spots (before rash): white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
  • rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent

Investigations
- IgM antibodies can be detected within a few days of rash onset

Management
mainly supportive
admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients
notifiable disease → inform public health

Complications

  • otitis media: the most common complication
  • pneumonia: the most common cause of death
  • encephalitis: typically occurs 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness)
  • subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness
  • febrile convulsions
  • keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration
  • diarrhoea
  • increased incidence of appendicitis
  • myocarditis

Management of contacts

  • if a child not immunized against measles comes into contact with measles then MMR should be offered (vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection)
  • this should be given within 72 hours
245
Q

ADHD- diagnostic features

A

DSM-V defines ADHD as a condition incorporating features relating to inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity that are persistent. Like many paediatric conditions, there has to be an element of developmental delay. For children up to the age of 16 years, six of these features have to be present; in those aged 17 or over, the threshold is five features.

Diagnostic features :
INATTENTION : doesn’t follow through on instructions, reluctant to engage in mentally- intense tasks, easily distracted, finds it difficult ti organise tasks or activities. often forgetful in daily activities, often loses things necessary for tasks to activities, often does not seem to listen when spoken to directly

HYPERACTIVITY/IMPULSIVITY - unable to play quietly, talks excessively, dos not wait their turn easily, will spontaneously leave their seat when expect to sit, if often ‘on the go’, often interruptive or intrusive to others, will answer prematurely - before a question has been finished, will run and climb in situations where it is not appropriate

246
Q

Management of ADHD

A

NICE stipulates a holistic approach to treating ADHD that isn’t entirely reliant on therapeutics. Following presentation, a ten-week ‘watch and wait’ period should follow to observe whether symptoms change or resolve. If they persist then referral to secondary care is required. This is normally to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders, or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). Here, the needs and wants of the patient, as well as how their condition affects their lives should be taken into account, to offer a tailored plan of action.

Drug therapy should be seen as a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or more. Patients with mild/moderate symptoms can usually benefit from their parents attending education and training programmes. For those who fail to respond, or whose symptoms are severe, pharmacotherapy can be considered:

  • Methylphenidate is first line in children and should initially be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant which primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side-effects include abdominal pain, nausea and dyspepsia. In children, weight and height should be monitored every 6 months
  • If there is inadequate response, switch to lisdexamfetamine;
  • Dexamfetamine should be started in those who have benefited from lisdexamfetamine, but who can’t tolerate its side effects.

In adults:

  • Methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are first-line options;
  • Switch between these drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other.

All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic. Perform a baseline ECG before starting treatment, and refer to a cardiologist if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

Like most psychiatric conditions, whether adult or paediatric, a thorough history and clinical examination are key, especially given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and physical conditions.

247
Q

How to differentiate between a cephalhaematoma and a Caput succedaneum?

A

Distinguishing features of a cephalhaematoma are that they usually develop AFTER birth and do not cross the suture lines of the skull as the blood is confined between the skull and periosteum.

Caput succedaneum is an extraperiosteal collection of blood therefore can cross over the suture lines and can be present AT birth.

248
Q

About the rotavirus vaccine

A

Rotavirus is an oral, live attenuated vaccine

  • is given orally at 2 and 3 months of age
  • Two doses are required.
249
Q

What are the differentials fir meconium ileus?

A

(means not passed meconium)

  • CF
  • Hirschsprung’s disease
  • meconium plug syndrome.
250
Q

What is a common neonatal feature of CF?

A

Meconium ileus (in 20% of babies with CF)

251
Q

Willms’ tumour - features , referral and management

A

Wilms’ nephroblastoma is one of the most common childhood malignancies. It typically presents in children under 5 years of age, with a median age of 3 years old.

Associations

  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • as part of WAGR syndrome with Aniridia, Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation
  • hemihypertrophy
  • around one-third of cases are associated with a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11

Features
- abdominal mass (most common presenting feature)
- painless haematuria
flank pain
- other features: anorexia, fever
- unilateral in 95% of cases
- metastases are found in 20% of patients (most commonly lung)

Referral
- children with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children - possible Wilm’s tumour - arrange paediatric review with 48 hours

Management

  • nephrectomy
  • chemotherapy
  • radiotherapy if advanced disease
  • prognosis: good, 80% cure rate
252
Q

Rocker- bottom feet - what is a characteristic of?

A

trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome

253
Q

Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

A

Newborn babies are relatively deficient in vitamin K. This may result in impaired production of clotting factors which in turn can lead to haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). Bleeding may range from minor brushing to intracranial haemorrhages

Breast-fed babies are particularly at risk as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Maternal use of antiepileptics also increases the risk

Because of this all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K, either intramuscularly or orally

254
Q

infantile colic

A

Infantile colic describes a relatively common and benign set of symptoms seen in young infants. It typically occurs in infants less than 3 months old and is characterised by bouts of excessive crying and pulling-up of the legs, often worse in the evening.

Infantile colic occurs in up to 20% of infants. The cause of infantile colic is unknown.

NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries do not recommend the use of simeticone (such as Infacol®) or lactase (such as Colief®) drops.

255
Q

Hypospadias - characteristics and treatment

A

Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality of the penis which occurs in approximately 3/1,000 male infants

Hypospadias is characterised by:

  • a distal ventral urethral meatus
  • a hooded prepuce
  • chordee (ventral curvature of the penis) in more severe forms
  • the urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants. However, 75% of the openings are distally located.

Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder. Associated urological abnormalities may be seen in up to 40% of infants, of these cryptorchidism is the most frequent (10%).

Corrective surgery is performed before 2 years of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease no treatment may be needed.

256
Q

What is the most common complication of measles?

A

Otitis media

257
Q

What immunisations occur at 2 months?

A

‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
Oral rotavirus vaccine
Men B

258
Q

If threes murmur on the the second intercostal space lateral to the left sternal edge that is not audible when patient lies flat - what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Innocent murmur

They are Soft, Systolic, Short, Symptomless, Standing/Sitting (vary with position)

259
Q

Ventricular septal defect presents as what of murmur?

A

pansystolic murmur

260
Q

Shaken baby syndrome

A

triad of:

  1. retinal haemorrhages, 2.subdural haematoma
  2. encephalopathy

This is caused by the intentional shaking of a child (0-5 years old). The diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome has often made the headlines due to the controversy amongst physicians as to whether the mechanism of injury is definitely an intentional shaking of a child. This has often resulted in difficulty for the courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child.

261
Q

What is a venous hum ?

A

A benign murmur heard in children and sounds like a continuous blowing noise heard below the clavicles

Due to the turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart

262
Q

A continuous blowing noise heard below the clavicles is…

A

Venous hum

263
Q

When do you give steroids in Croup?

A

A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) is to be taken immediately regardless of severity

264
Q

A child still being drowsy 2 hours after the seizure - what is this a sign of?

A

A child still being drowsy after 1 hour is not consistent with a ‘simple’ febrile convulsion.

should prompt referral to paediatrics

265
Q

When is the MMR vaccine first given?

A

At 12 - 13 months

266
Q

What is the most appropriate first line investigation for slipped upper femoral epiphysis ?

A

Plain X ray of BOTH hips (AP and frog-leg views)

Since SUFE is bilateral in 20% of cases, both hips should be imaged to exclude involvement of the other hip, even if there are no suggestive symptoms currently.

The diagnosis can be confirmed and graded if Klein’s line (drawn along the superior edge of the femoral neck) intersects less of the femoral head.

267
Q

Choanal atresia

A

Congenital disorder with an incidence of 1 in 7000 births.

  • Posterior nasal airway occluded by soft tissue or bone.
  • Associated with other congenital malformations e.g. coloboma
  • Babies with unilateral disease may go unnoticed.
  • Babies with bilateral disease will present early in life as they are obligate nose breathers.
  • In choanal atresia the episodes of cyanosis are usually worst during feeding. Improvement may be seen when the baby cries as the oropharyngeal airway is used.
  • Treatment is with fenestration procedures designed to restore patency.
268
Q

What is the first line treatment for a 3 year old boy with a whooping cough?

A

if admission is not needed should prescribe Abx Azithromycin or clarithromycin if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days (for for children aged 1 month or older, and non-pregnant adults)

As well as the antibiotics, patients should be advised to rest, take adequate fluid intake, and use paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptomatic relief

269
Q

When does a patient with a whooping cough need to be admitted?

A

Younger than 6 months of age
Have significant breathing difficulties (for example apnoea episodes, severe paroxysms, or cyanosis)
Have significant complications (for example seizures or pneumonia).

270
Q

The prognosis of a patient with congenital diaphragmatic hernia is based on?

A

2 factors

(1) Liver position
(2) Lung-to-head ratio

If the liver has herniated into the chest, the disease is more severe and there is lower chance of survival.
The lung-to-head ratio is a numeric estimate of the size of the foetal lungs, dependent on the amount of lung visible. A ratio >1.0 reflects a better outcome.

271
Q

Congential diaphragmatic hernia?

A

It is characterised by the herniation of abdominal viscera into the chest cavity due to incomplete formation of the diaphragm. This can result in pulmonary hypoplasia and hypertension which causes respiratory distress shortly after birth.

Pathophysiology
usually represents a failure of the pleuroperitoneal canal to close completely

The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia which accounts for around 85% of cases.

Only around 50% of newborns with CDH survive despite modern medical intervention.

272
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for meningitis in a neonate?

A

Group B streptococcus
usually acquired from the mother at birth. More common in low birth weight babies and following prolonged rupture of the membranes

Other causative organisms for a neonatal are:
E. coli and other Gram -ve organisms
Listeria monocytogenes

273
Q

Scarlet fever - symptoms, diagnosis, managent, complications

A

Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes). It is more common in children aged 2 - 6 years with the peak incidence being at 4 years.

Scarlet fever is spread via the respiratory route by inhaling or ingesting respiratory droplets or by direct contact with nose and throat discharges, (especially during sneezing and coughing).

Scarlet fever has an incubation period of 2-4 days and typically presents with:

  • fever: typically lasts 24 to 48 hours
  • malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting
  • sore throat
  • ‘strawberry’ tongue
  • rash
    • -fine punctate erythema (‘pinhead’) which generally appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles
    • -children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. The rash is often more obvious in the flexures
    • -it is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture
    • -desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes

Diagnosis
- a throat swab is normally taken but antibiotic treatment should be commenced immediately, rather than waiting for the results

Management

  • oral penicillin V for 10 days
  • patients who have a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin
  • children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics
  • scarlet fever is a notifiable disease

Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness but may be complicated by:

  • otitis media: the most common complication
  • rheumatic fever: typically occurs 20 days after infection
  • acute glomerulonephritis: typically occurs 10 days after infection
  • invasive complications (e.g. bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotizing fasciitis) are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness
274
Q

Which best describes the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 10-month-old child?

A

Face and trunk

275
Q

8 year old - Fever that is not settling with regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. He has had the fever for 7 days now.
On examination, he has a widespread erythematous rash on his torso and arms. In particular, his palms and soles of his feet are very red. There is conjunctival injection with no discharge. Tender cervical lymphadenopathy is palpated. You measure his temperature at 38ºC. What is the diagnosis ?

A

Kawasaki disease

276
Q

Presentation:
A 16-year-old girl attends your GP surgery due to concerns about delayed menarche. On history, you note that there have been no developmental concerns. She is at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. On examination, you note that she has a short webbed neck and a broad chest. You perform karyotype analysis, which is abnormal. Diagnosis ?

A

Turner syndrome

277
Q

What are the cyanotic congenital heart diseases?

A

(5Ts)

  • Tetralogy of fallot
  • Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
  • Tricuspid atresia
  • Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
  • Truncus arteriosus
278
Q

When does Transposition of great vessels (TGA) tend to present?

A

TGA generally presents within hours to days of the neonate’s birth

279
Q

What is given in ductant dependent cyanotic heart disease - before surgery?

A

prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil)

  • is infused to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until a surgical correction can be carried out.
  • This will allow mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood so as to provide adequate systemic circulation.

Antibiotics should also be given as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis.

280
Q

What is indomethacin?

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)

281
Q

What test can be done in the neonatal period to differentiate cardiac from non -cardiac causes of cyanosis?

A

Peripheral cyanosis, for example of the feet and hands, is very common in the first 24 hours of life and may occur when the child is crying or unwell from any cause

Central cyanosis can be recognised clinically when the concentration of reduced haemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl

The NITROGEN WASHOUT TEST (also known as the hyperoxia test) may be used to differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes. The infant is given 100% oxygen for ten minutes after which arterial blood gases are taken.

A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease !!

282
Q

Initial mangament of suspected congenital heart disease?

A
  • supportive care
  • prostaglandin E1
    • -used to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defect
283
Q

What is acrocyanosis?

A

Acrocyanosis is often seen in healthy newborns and refers to the peripheral cyanosis around the mouth and the extremities (hands and feet) (picture 1). It is caused by benign vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction and is a benign condition.
Acrocyanosis is differentiated from other causes of peripheral cyanosis with significant pathology (eg, septic shock) as it occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants. It is a common finding and may persist for 24 to 48 hours.

284
Q

Do antipyretics prevent febrile convulsions?

A

No

There is no evidence that giving a pyrexial child antipyretics reduces the chance of a febrile convulsion

285
Q

Transient synovitis?

A

Acute onset
Usually accompanies viral infections, but the child is well or has a mild fever
More common in boys, aged 2-12 years

286
Q

A 2-year-old boy is taken to his GP with a 1 day history of right-sided limp. His parents report him being otherwise fit and well apart from a recent cold and his nursery deny observing any physical trauma. On examination, he is afebrile and evidently in pain however has a normal range of movement in the right hip. What would be the most appropriate management at this stage?

A

Urgent hospital assessment

Urgent assessment should be arranged for a child < 3 years presenting with an acute limp.
they are at higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment. ‘transient synovitis is rare in this age-group and the diagnosis should be made with extreme caution after excluding serious causes of limp. Urgent referral for assessment is advised because examination may be difficult and clinical signs subtle.’

287
Q

Hearing problems in children

A

CONDUCTIVE

  • secretory otitis media
  • Down’s syndrome* - (*may have elements of sensorineural loss as well)

SENSORINUERAL

  • hereditary - Usher syndrome, Pendred syndrome, Jervell-Lange-Nielson syndrome, Wardenburg syndrome
  • congenital infection e.g. rubella
  • acquired - meningitis, head injury
  • cerebral palsy
  • perinatal insult
288
Q

Ambiguous genitalia

A

Basic physiology

  • initially gonads in fetus are undifferentiated
  • on the Y chromosome there is a sex-determining gene (SRY gene) which causes differentiation of the gonad into a testis
  • if absent (i.e. in a female) then the gonads differentiate to become ovaries

Most common cause in newborns is CONGENITAL ADRENAL HYPERPLASIA Other causes include:

  • true hermaphroditism
  • maternal ingestion of androgens
289
Q

What is the first stop in newborn resuscitation?

A

Following birth, the first step is to DRY THE BABY maintain temperature and start the clock.

290
Q

A man with a X-linked recessive condition, what is the chance his son will develop the disease?

A

No increased risk

no male-to-male transmission on X-linked recessive conditions

291
Q

How to manage chickenpox?

A

Management is through supportive measures, including calamine lotion to soothe the itch and paracetamol to control the fever.

292
Q

What tends to precede ITP?

A

glandular fever

293
Q

What can bruising at birth lead to ?

A

Bruising at birth can lead to elevated bilirubin levels (due to hemolysis)

294
Q

Whooping cough - school return?

A

Whooping cough is infectious.

A child with whooping cough should be excluded from school for 48 hours following commencement of antibiotics

295
Q

What is the first line treatment for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate (ritalin)
- he first-line treatment for ADHD, to be initiated following a period of watchful waiting, behavioural advice and educational programme for the parents/carers.

296
Q

Non - bilious vomiting in first few weeks of life is consistent with…

A

pyloric stenosis

297
Q

What electrolyte changes will occur in non-bilious vomiting?

A

Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

298
Q

Head lice - diagnosis, management

A

Head lice (also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’) is a common condition in children caused by the parasitic insect Pediculus capitis, which lives on and among the hair of the scalp of humans.

Head lice are small insects that live only on humans, they feed on our blood. Eggs are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead. The eggs are glued to the hair, close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.

Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and therefore tend to be more common in children because they play closely together. They cannot jump, fly or swim! When newly infected, cases have no symptoms but itching and scratching on the scalp occurs 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.

Diagnosis
- fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair

Management

  • treatment is only indicated if living lice are found
  • a choice of treatments should be offered - malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate and cyclomethicone
  • household contacts do not need to be treated unless they too are affected

School exclusion is not advised for children with head lice

299
Q

Surfactant deficient lung disease - risk factors, clinical features, management

A

Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD, also known as respiratory distress syndrome and previously as hyaline membrane disease) is a condition seen in premature infants. It is caused by insufficient surfactant production and structural immaturity of the lungs

The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation

  • 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks
  • 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks

Other risk factors for SDLD include

  • male sex
  • diabetic mothers
  • Caesarean section
  • second born of premature twins

Clinical features are those common to respiratory distress in the newborn, i.e. tachypnoea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting and cyanosis

Chest x-ray characteristically shows ‘ground-glass’ appearance with an indistinct heart border

Management

  • prevention during pregnancy: maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation
  • oxygen
  • assisted ventilation
  • exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube
300
Q

A strawberry tongue is seen in…

A

A strawberry tongue can be seen in both scarlet fever and Kawasaki disease.

301
Q

What are the diagnostic features for Kawasaki:

A

Diagnostic features for Kawasaki disease requires a fever >5d with 4 of the following criteria:
A) Conjunctival injection
B) Mucous membrane changes (dry cracked lips, strawberry tongue)
C) Cervical lymphadenopathy D) Polymorphous rash
E) Red and oedematous palms/soles, peeling of fingers and toes.

302
Q

What is associated with Perthes disease?

A

Hyperactivity and short stature are associated with Perthes disease.

303
Q

What immunisations are done at 4 months?

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B + Men B (no rotavirus)

(The immunisation schedule was changed in 2020 so that infants now receive 2 doses of the PCV vaccine at 3 months and 12 months, instead of the previous 3 doses at 2, 4 and 12 months.)

304
Q

Rubella - features

A
  • Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
  • Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular
305
Q

Chickenpox - features

A
  • Fever initially
  • Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
  • Systemic upset is usually mild
306
Q

Measles - features

A
  • Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
  • Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
  • Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent
307
Q

Mumps - features

A
  • Fever, malaise, muscular pain

- Parotitis (‘earache’, ‘pain on eating’): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%

308
Q

Erythema infectiosum - infection

A
  • Also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome’
  • Caused by parvovirus B19
  • Lethargy, fever, headache
  • ‘Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces
309
Q

Scarlet fever - features

A
  • Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci
  • Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
  • ‘Strawberry’ tongue - which is when the tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae may be seen. Later, the white covering disappears, leaving the tongue with a beefy red appearance
  • Rash - fine punctate erythema sparing the area around the mouth (circumoral pallor)
310
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease

A
  • Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus
  • Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
  • Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet
311
Q

Criteria for immediate request for CT scan of the head (children) :

A
  • Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
  • Amnesia (antegrade or retrograde) lasting more than 5 minutes
  • Abnormal drowsiness
  • Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
  • Clinical suspicion of non-accidental injury
  • Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
  • GCS less than 14, or for a baby under 1 year GCS (paediatric) less than 15, on assessment in the emergency department
  • Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
  • Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
  • Focal neurological deficit
  • If under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head
  • Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident either as pedestrian, cyclist or vehicle occupant, fall from a height of greater than 3 m, high-speed injury from a projectile or an object)
312
Q

Exomphalos- how to repair?

Gastroschisis how to repair?

A

Exomphalmos should have a gradual repair (over 6-12 months) to prevent respiratory complications. The prognosis is good if operated on as soon as possible and whilst waiting the bowel should be protected with cling-film. Intestinal function will take time to normalise and thus the child may require TPN for a few weeks.

Gastroschisis requires urgent correction

313
Q

Gastroschisis and exomphalos?

A

Gastroschisis describes a congenital defect in the anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilical cord

In exomphalos the abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall but are covered in an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum

314
Q

What is hand, foot and mouth disease caused by?

A

most commonly caused by coxsackie A16 and enterovirus

315
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease is a self-limiting condition affecting children. It is caused by the intestinal viruses of the Picornaviridae family (most commonly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71). It is very contagious and typically occurs in outbreaks at nursery

Clinical features

  • mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
  • oral ulcers
  • followed later by vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet

Management

  • symptomatic treatment only: general advice about hydration and analgesia
  • reassurance no link to disease in cattle
  • children do not need to be excluded from school
    • -the HPA recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better
    • -they also advise that you contact them if you suspect that there may be a large outbreak.
316
Q

What is roseola infantum called?

A

Herpes virus 6

317
Q

What type of rash is present in roseola infantum?

A

Maculopapular rash which starts on the chest and spreads to the limbs

318
Q

What us a common cause of pulmonary hypoplasia?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

  • Pulmonary hypoplasia in CDH occurs alongside the hernial development rather than as a direct result of it, as part of a sequence
319
Q

What is pulmonary hypoplasia? And causes?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia is a term used for newborn infants with underdeveloped lungs

Causes include

  • oligohydramnios ( It is believed that oligohydramnios decreases the size of the intrathoracic cavity, thus preventing foetal lung growth. )
  • congenital diaphragmatic hernia
320
Q

Intraventricular haemorrhage- neonates? Treatments

A

In neonatal practice the vast majority of IVH occur in the first 72 hours after birth, the aetiology is not well understood and it is suggested to occur as a result of birth trauma combined with cellular hypoxia, together the with the delicate neonatal CNS.

Is largely supportive, therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic CSF drainage have been trialled and not demonstrated to show benefit. Hydrocephalus and rising ICP is an indication for shunting

321
Q

What murmur occurs in patent ductus arteriosus ?

A

Diastolic Machinery murmur at the upper left sternal edge

322
Q

If a murmur doesn’t vary with position - what is it?

A

The murmur does not vary with position and hence is not an innocent murmu

323
Q

What is nasal polyps associated with?

A

cystic fibrosis

324
Q

How is William’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

FISH studies

325
Q

Precocious puberty in males is defined as…

A

the development of secondary sexual characteristics before 9 years of age

326
Q

At what age is the meningitis C vaccine first given?

A

12-15 months

327
Q

When is the Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine given?

A

Receive PCV at 3 months and 12 months (it has changed in 2020)

328
Q

Desquamated palms and soles, diagnosis?

A

Kawasaki disease

Desquamated - means peeling

329
Q

School exclusion advice - roseola?

A

No exclusion

330
Q

Fever -risk stratification - high risk features

A
Colour:
-Pale/mottled/ashen/blue
 No response to social cues
Activity:
- Appears ill to a healthcare professional
- Does not wake or if roused does not stay awake
- Weak, high-pitched or continuous cry
Respiratory:
- Grunting
- Tachypnoea: respiratory rate >60 breaths/minute
- Moderate or severe chest indrawing
Circulation and hydration:
- Reduced skin turgor
Other:
- Age <3 months, temperature
>=38°C
- Non-blanching rash
- Bulging fontanelle
- Neck stiffness
- Status epilepticus
- Focal neurological signs
- Focal seizures
331
Q

Who does Haemophilia normally affect ?

A

Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder and would hence be expected only to occur in males. As patients with Turner’s syndrome only have one X chromosome however, they may develop X-linked recessive conditions

332
Q

Corticosteroids and bacterial meningitis?

A

Do not use corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis

333
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children? Management?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a relatively common skin disorder seen in children. It typically affects the scalp (‘Cradle cap’), nappy area, face and limb flexures.

Cradle cap is an early sign which may develop in the first few weeks of life. It is characterised by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

Management depends on severity

  • mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils
  • severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age

334
Q

What is the treatment for whooping cough?

A

Treated with oral azithromycin within the first 21 days of symptoms.
If the patient had presented later than this, then no antibiotic therapy would have been needed
Report to Public Health England - is a notifiable disease

335
Q

When is the neonatal blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

A

Between fifth and ninth day of life

336
Q

Neonatal blood spot screening - screens for?

A

The following conditions are currently screened for:

  • congenital hypothyroidism
  • cystic fibrosis
  • sickle cell disease
  • phenylketonuria
  • medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
  • maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  • isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
  • glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
  • homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU)
337
Q

What is ITP usually preceded by?

A

A viral illness

338
Q

Precocious puberty: males. Classification?

A
Precocious puberty in males
definition: development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years
much less common than in females
usually organic cause
testicular size often provides a clue

May be classified into:

  1. Gonadotrophin dependent (‘central’, ‘true’)
    - due to premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
    - FSH & LH raised
    - testes enlarged

Causes of gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty in males

  • CNS lesions: craniopharyngioma, hydrocephalus, neurofibroma, tuberous sclerosis
  • hCG secretion hepatoblastoma
  • primary hypothyroidism (increased TSH stimulates FSH receptors)
  1. Gonadotrophin independent (‘pseudo’, ‘false’)
    - due to excess sex hormones
    - FSH & LH low
    - testes may be small (e.g. adrenal tumour or hyperplasia) or unilaterally enlarged e.g. Leydig cell tumour

Testes

  • bilateral enlargement = gonadotrophin release from intracranial lesion
  • unilateral enlargement = gonadal tumour
  • small testes = adrenal cause (tumour or adrenal hyperplasia)

Females - usually idiopathic or familial and follows normal sequence of puberty

Organic causes

  • are rare, associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs and dissonance
  • e.g. McCune Albright syndrome
339
Q

BCG vaccine?

A

BCG vaccination against TB should be offered to babies with family history of TB or from high risk region/country with TB (defined as >40 cases/100000) as defined by WHO

BCG vaccination is recommended for babies up to one year of age who:
are born in areas of the UK with high rates of TB
have a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with high rates of TB

340
Q

Causes of stridor ?

A

Croup
Acute epiglottitis
Inhaled foreign body
Laryngomalacia

341
Q

What immunisations can you receive between 13-18 years

A

Diphtheria, tetanus, polio + Men ACWY

342
Q

How to remember. caput succedaneum?

A

(C)aput (S)uccedaneum= (C)rosses (S)uture lines

343
Q

What can cause bronchiolitis to be more severe?

A
  • bronchopulmonary dysplasia (e.g. Premature)
  • congenital heart disease
  • cystic fibrosis
344
Q

How to test for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Barlow manoeuvre: attempted dislocation of a newborns femoral head

345
Q

A patient is in clinical shock rather than just clinical dehydration as he has the following signs…

A
  • pale and cold extremities

- prolonged capillary refill time

346
Q

Signs differentiating between early (compensated) shock and late (decompensated) shock:

A
EARLY  shock
blood pressure -normal	
heart rate - tachycardia	
respiration -tachypnoea	
extremities -pale or mottled
urine output -reduced
LATE shock 
BP- hypotension
Heart rate-  bradycardia
respiration -acidotic (Kussmaul)
extremities -blue
urine output -absent
347
Q

Is hypotension a sign of shock? If yes, then what sign?

A

Hypotension is a late sign of shock. In early, compensated shock the blood pressure is maintained by increased heart rate and respiratory rate, redistribution of blood from venous reserve volume and diversion of blood flow from non-essential tissues (which explains why the peripheries will be cold and pale). In late or uncompensated shock, the compensatory mechanism fails, blood pressure falls and lactic acidosis increases.

348
Q

Who does bronchopulmonary most often affect?

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia most often affects preterm infants who were treated with supplemental oxygen and ventilation.

349
Q

What investigation confirms biliary atresia ?

A

Conjugated bilirubin is elevated

Liver transaminases and bile acids are both raised in biliary atresia, but this cannot distinguish biliary atresia from other causes of neonatal cholestasis.

350
Q

What is a common presentation in babies born via Caesarean section? How to manage it?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
In most cases, if the baby is well, no further investigations or treatment is required. TTN will frequently resolve on its own and parents should be reassured.

351
Q

What murmur would you hear in atrial septal defect?

A

On examination you would typically hear a ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.

352
Q

How do atrial septal defect present?

A

The majority of atrial septal defects (ASDs) are asymptomatic in children. If these congenital hearts defects are not picked up prenatally then symptomatic patients with severe ASD may experience shortness of breath, lethargy, poor appetite and growth and increased susceptibility to respiratory infections.

353
Q

Murmur - pulmonary stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur in the upper left sternal border

354
Q

Coarctation of the aorta - murmur?

A

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border

355
Q

Common causes of epistaxis in children?

A
  • nose picking (most common cause)
  • foreign body
  • upper respiratory tract infection
  • allergic rhinitis
356
Q

When should a child be referred due to epistaxis?

A

Children under the age of 2 years as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be secondary to trauma or bleeding disorders.

357
Q

first line management for recurrent epistaxis

A

prescribe a short course of topical chlorhexidine and neomycin (is to reduce crusting and vestibulitis), and discourage the child from picking his nose.

358
Q

Vesicoureteric reflux- pathophysiology, grade, investigations

A

Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is the abnormal backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. It is relatively common abnormality of the urinary tract in children and predisposes to urinary tract infection (UTI), being found in around 30% of children who present with a UTI. As around 35% of children develop renal scarring it is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI

Pathophysiology of VUR

  • ureters are displaced laterally, entering the bladder in a more perpendicular fashion than at an angle
  • therefore shortened intramural course of ureter
  • vesicoureteric junction cannot therefore function adequately

The table below summarises the grading of VUR

Grade:
I -Reflux into the ureter only, no dilatation
II -Reflux into the renal pelvis on micturition, no dilatation
III -Mild/moderate dilatation of the ureter, renal pelvis and calyces
IV -Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces with moderate ureteral tortuosity
V -Gross dilatation of the ureter, pelvis and calyces with ureteral tortuosity

Investigation

  • VUR is normally diagnosed following a micturating cystourethrogram
  • a DMSA scan may also be performed to look for renal scarring
359
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Nephrotic syndrome is classically defined as a triad of

  1. proteinuria (> 1 g/m^2 per 24 hours)
  2. hypoalbuminaemia (< 25 g/l)
  3. oedema

In children the peak incidence is between 2 and 5 years of age. Around 80% of cases in children are due to a condition called minimal change glomerulonephritis. The condition generally carries a good prognosis with around 90% of cases responding to high-dose oral steroids.

Other features include hyperlipidaemia, a hypercoagulable state (due to loss of antithrombin III) and a predisposition to infection (due to loss of immunoglobulins)

360
Q

Methylphenidate - what to monitor?

A

monitor weight and height every 6 months

Methylphenidate, a stimulant, may suppress appetite and cause growth impairment in children. It is advised to monitor growth as well as blood pressure and pulse in these patients on a regular basis.

361
Q

What is the treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

A macrolide e.g. erythromicin should be used for children with pneumonia if mycoplasma is suspected

362
Q

Projectile vomiting after every feed in a young baby should increase the index of suspicion for…

A

pyloric stenosis.

Diagnosis is most commonly made by abdominal ultrasound.

363
Q

What treatments should be offered to try and improve symptoms of spasticity?

A

oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopaedic surgery and selective dorsal rhizotomy
(for cerebral palsy)

364
Q

The most common heart lesion associated with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is..

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

365
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  • progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years
  • calf pseudohypertrophy
  • Gower’s sign: child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position
  • associated with dilated cardiomyopathy
  • 30% of patients have intellectual impairment
366
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome- features, diagnosis and management

A

Disordes of sex hormones

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome

Features
- ‘primary amenorrhoea’
- undescended testes causing groin swellings
- breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol
(The key symptom here is the groin swellings, which combined with ‘primary amenorrhoea’ and no pubic hair points towards a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity (previously testicular feminisation syndrome). The groin swellings here are undescended testes. This is a condition in which the patient is genetically male (46XY), but phenotypically female. Feminisation is a result of increased oestradiol levels, which lead to breast development)

Diagnosis
buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal 46XY genotype

Management

  • counselling - raise child as female
  • bilateral orchidectomy (increased risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes)
  • oestrogen therapy
367
Q

Kallman’s syndrome

A

Disorder of sex hormones

Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.

The clue given in many questions is lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

Features

  • ‘delayed puberty’
  • hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
  • anosmia
  • sex hormone levels are low
  • LH, FSH levels are inappropriately low/normal
  • patients are typically of normal or above average height

Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects are also seen in some patients

368
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Disorder of sex hormones

Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with karyotype 47, XXY

Features
often taller than average
lack of secondary sexual characteristics
small, firm testes
infertile
gynaecomastia - increased incidence of breast cancer
elevated gonadotrophin levels

Diagnosis is by chromosomal analysis

369
Q

Disorders of sex hormones- LH and Testosterone ?

A
1. Primary hypogonadism (Klinefelter's syndrome)	LH- High	
Testosterone - Low
2. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (Kallman's syndrome)
LH- Low
Testosterone - Low
3. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
LH- High
Testosterone Normal/high
4. Testosterone-secreting tumour
LH- Low
Testosterone - High
370
Q

When are APGAR scores assessed?

A

APGAR scores are assessed at 1, 5 and 10 minutes of age

371
Q

APGAR is an mnemonic for the assessment of:

A
Appearance (colour)
Pulse (heart rate)
Grimace (reflex irritability)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiratory effort
372
Q

Viral-induced wheeze- mx

A

First-line treatment is short-acting bronchodilator therapy. If this is not successful then either oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids should be tried.

373
Q

Skull problems in children

A
  1. Plagiocephaly
    - parallelogram shaped head. Plagiocephaly is a skull deformity producing unilateral occipital flattening, which pushes the ipsilateral forehead ear forwards producing a ‘parrallelogram’ appearance.
    - the incidence of plagiocephaly has increased over the past decade. This may be due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign -encourage babies to sleep on their back to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
    - The vast majority improve by age 3-5 due to the adoption of a more upright posture
  2. Craniosynostosis
    - premature fusion of skull bones
374
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease- exclusion

A

does not require exclusion from a childcare setting or school

375
Q

What should be used to maintain duct dependant congenital disease?

A

Maintenance of the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins (such as alprostadil) to promote duct patency ) is the initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease

Note, ibuprofen should be avoided as it promotes duct closure and would worsen the condition.

The initial action here is to prevent duct closure to allow the child to survive long enough to allow investigations to confirm the diagnosis and a subsequent attempt at surgical correction.

376
Q

Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration?

A
jittery movements
increased muscle tone
hyperreflexia
convulsions
drowsiness or coma
377
Q

What are the characteristic hallmarks of intussusception on physical examination?

A
  • sausage-shaped mass in the right hypochondrium

- emptiness in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign)

378
Q

Causes of hypertension in children?

A
  • renal parenchymal disease
  • renal vascular disease
  • coarctation of the aorta
  • phaeochromocytoma
  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • essential or primary hypertension (becomes more common as children become older)

In younger children secondary hypertension is the most common cause, with renal parenchymal disease accounting for up to 80%

379
Q

Bartter’s syndrome - what is it, features?

A

Bartter’s syndrome is an inherited cause (usually autosomal recessive) of severe hypokalaemia due to defective chloride absorption at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. It should be noted that it is associated with normotension (unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia such as Conn’s, Cushing’s and Liddle’s syndrome which are associated with hypertension)

Features

  • usually presents in childhood, e.g. Failure to thrive
  • polyuria, polydipsia
  • hypokalaemia
  • normotension
  • weakness
380
Q

Does one with bronchiolitis have a fever?

A

A low-grade fever is typical in bronchiolitis
Consider a diagnosis of pneumonia instead if the child has:
- high fever (over 39°C) and/or
- persistently focal crackles.

381
Q

How to differentiate between Gastroschisis and omphalocele presentation?

A

Gastroschisis and omphalocele present similarly, but gastroschisis refers to a defect lateral to the umbilicus whereas omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.

382
Q

Scarlet fever - cause?

A

Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes).

383
Q

Children below 0.4th centile for height- how to manage?

A

should be reviewed by a paediatric specialist

384
Q

Contraindications to MMR

A
  • severe immunosuppression
  • allergy to neomycin
  • children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
  • pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination
  • immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)
385
Q

what is micrognathia?

A

the lower jaw is undersized (small chin)

386
Q

What is an important investigation in a child with Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Echocardiogram - Coronary artery aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease

387
Q

Chicken pox -school exclusion?

A

until all the lesions are dry and have crusted over (usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash)

388
Q

At what age does a child combine two words?

A

2 years

389
Q

Meconium aspiration syndrome

A
  • Meconium aspiration syndrome refers to respiratory distress in the newborn as a result of meconium in the trachea.
  • It occurs in the immediate neonatal period. It is more common in POST-TERM DELIVERIES, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks.
  • It causes respiratory distress, which can be severe.
  • Higher rates occur where there is a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking or substance abuse
390
Q

Paediatric BLS - where do you check for circulation?

A
  • In a child under 1-year-old, the only two places to check for a pulse are brachial and femoral.
  • In a child 1 and over, the best places to check are femoral and carotid.
391
Q

Noonan syndrome - features

A
  • Webbed neck
  • Pectus excavatum
  • Short stature
  • Pulmonary stenosis
392
Q

Small testes in precocious puberty indicates…

A

an adrenal cause of the symptoms- e.g. adrenal hyperplasia

393
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease -

This condition occurs as a result of inflammation at which bony prominence?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease is a type of osteochondrosis caused by inflammation (apophysitis) at the tibial tuberosity

394
Q

Management of Kawasaki’s?

A

high-dose aspirin
- Kawasaki disease is one of the few indications for the use of aspirin in children. Due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome aspirin is normally contraindicated in children

intravenous immunoglobulin

395
Q

A 10 year old is constipated. What is the most likely cause?

A

The most likely cause for constipation developing at this age is dietary.

The most likely cause for constipation developing at this age is dietary.A laxative would also be very useful, and would be indicated due to the progressively worsening constipation. An osmotic laxative should be prescribed initially as the stool is likely to be hard. A stimulant laxative may also be required, but only once the stools are soft.

396
Q

What is a positive nitrogen (hyperoxia) test?

A

pO2 after 15 minutes of 100% oxygen is <15kPa. Therefore, this is a cyanotic heart defect

397
Q

What is the most likely cyanotic heart defect to present soon after birth ?

A

Transposition of the great arteries

398
Q

Signs of transposition of the great arteries?

A

No murmur but typically a loud single S2 is audible and a prominent right ventricular impulse is palpable on examination

399
Q

Transposition of the great arteries - basic anatomy changes, clinical features, management?

A

Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a form of cyanotic congenital heart disease. It is caused by the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral during septation. Children of diabetic mothers are at an increased risk of TGA.

Basic anatomical changes:

  • aorta leaves the right ventricle
  • pulmonary trunk leaves the left ventricle

Clinical features:

  • cyanosis
  • tachypnoea
  • loud single S2
  • prominent right ventricular impulse
  • ‘egg-on-side’ appearance on chest x-ray

Management:

  • maintenance of the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins
  • surgical correction is the definite treatment.
400
Q

Dermoid cysts

A

A cutaneous dermoid cyst may develop at sites of embryonic developmental fusion. They are most common in the midline of the neck, external angle of the eye and posterior to the pinna of the ear. They typically have multiple inclusions such as hair follicles that bud out from its walls. They may develop at other sites such as the ovary and in these sites are synonymous with teratomas.

A desmoid tumour is a completely different entity and may be classified either as low grade fibrosarcomas or non aggressive fibrous tumours. They commonly present as large infiltrative masses. They may be divided into abdominal, extra abdominal and intra abdominal. All types share the same biological features. Extra abdominal desmoids have an equal sex distribution and primarily arise in the musculature of the shoulder, chest wall, back and thigh. Abdominal desmoids usually arise in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall. Intra abdominal desmoids tend to occur in the mesentery or pelvic side walls and occur most frequently in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli syndrome.

  • Dermoid cysts occur at sites of embryonic fusion and may contain multiple cell types. They occur most often in children.
401
Q

What does a jittery and hypotonic baby suggest ?

A

neonatal hypoglycaemia.

402
Q

Risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

The use of maternal labetalol for HTN is a risk factor and these babies must have their blood glucose measured

403
Q

A side effect of methylphenidate is …

A

stunted growth

The mechanism is thought to be through a decrease in appetite. Patients under the age of 10 should have their weight and height plotted at regular intervals. Other side effects of this drug include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea and pain.

404
Q

What is the most important treatment for prevention of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Administer dexamethasone to the mother.

Natural maternal glucocorticosteroids are very important for surfactant production in the foetus, and therefore synthetic steroids are the first line agents for preventing NRDS in pregnancies at risk of pre-term birth. Tocolytics are agents that can be used to suppress pre-term labour, however they are not routinely used. Since administration of maternal steroids takes one to two days to increase surfactant levels, tocolytics can be considered in certain situations to buy time.

405
Q

Cause of obesity in children

A
growth hormone deficiency
hypothyroidism
Down's syndrome
Cushing's syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome
406
Q

Consequences of obesity in children

A
  • orthopaedic problems: slipped upper femoral epiphyses, Blount’s disease (a development abnormality of the tibia resulting in bowing of the legs), musculoskeletal pains
  • psychological consequences: poor self-esteem, bullying
  • sleep apnoea
  • benign intracranial hypertension
  • long-term consequences: increased incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and ischaemic heart disease
407
Q

VSD increases risk of …

A

endocarditis

408
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A

Increase in testicular volume

409
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a relatively common skin disorder seen in children. It typically affects the scalp (‘Cradle cap’), nappy area, face and limb flexures.

Cradle cap is an early sign which may develop in the first few weeks of life. It is characterised by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

Management depends on severity

  • mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils
  • severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age

410
Q

Undescended testis - complications and management

A

Undescended testis occurs in around 2-3% of term male infants, but is much more common if the baby is preterm. Around 25% of cases are bilateral.

Complications of undescended testis:

  • infertility
  • torsion
  • testicular cancer
  • psychological

Management
1. Unilateral undescended testis
NICE CKS now recommend referral should be considered from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age
Orchidopexy: Surgical practices vary although the majority of procedures are performed at around 1 year of age

  1. Bilateral undescended testes
    Should be reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24hours as the child may need urgent endocrine or genetic investigation
411
Q

When is intussusception more common?

A

more common between 3-12 months

412
Q

Gas cysts on ABX- diagnosis?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis (gas cyst pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas)? )

413
Q

Cyanosis in the neonatal period - causes, ix, mx

A

Peripheral cyanosis, for example of the feet and hands, is very common in the first 24 hours of life and may occur when the child is crying or unwell from any cause

Central cyanosis can be recognised clinically when the concentration of reduced haemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl

The nitrogen washout test (also known as the hyperoxia test) may be used to differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes. The infant is given 100% oxygen for ten minutes after which arterial blood gases are taken. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease

Causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease

  • tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
  • transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
  • tricuspid atresia

Initial management of suspected cyanotic congenital heart disease

  • supportive care
  • prostaglandin E1
    • -used to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defect
414
Q

Features of atypical UTI?

A
Seriously ill
Poor urine flow
Abdominal or bladder mass
Raised creatinine
Septicaemia
Failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours
Infection with non-E. coli organisms.
415
Q

Associated conditions of autism?

A

Fragile X

Rett’s syndrome

416
Q

Autism - features that have to be present ?

A

All 3 of the following features must be present for a diagnosis to be made

  • global impairment of language and communication
  • impairment of social relationships
  • ritualistic and compulsive phenomena
417
Q

After a degree of meconium, when must baby be assessed by the neonatal team?

A

As per the NICE guidelines if any of the following are observed after any degree of meconium, then baby must be assessed by the neonatal team;

respiratory rate above 60 per minute
the presence of grunting
heart rate below 100 or above 160 beats/minute
capillary refill time above 3 seconds
temperature of 38°C or above, or 37.5°C on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart
oxygen saturation below 95%
presence of central cyanosis

418
Q

What is the investigation of choice to diagnose vesicoureteric reflux?

A

micturating cystourethrogram

419
Q

Umbilical hernia in children- associations

A
  • Afro-Caribbean infants
  • Down’s syndrome
  • mucopolysaccharide storage diseases
420
Q

Reflex anoxic seizures

A

Reflex anoxic seizure describes a syncopal episode (or presyncope) that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. It is thought to be caused by neurally-mediated transient asystole in children with very sensitive vagal cardiac reflexes. It typically occurs in young children aged 6 months to 3 years

Typical features

  • child goes very pale
  • falls to floor
  • secondary anoxic seizures are common
  • rapid recovery

There is no specific treatment and prognosis is excellent

421
Q

The major risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome are:

A
  • prone sleeping
  • parental smoking
  • bed sharing
  • hyperthermia and head covering
  • prematurity
422
Q

Eczema in children- features , management

A

Eczema occurs in around 15-20% of children and is becoming more common. It typically presents before 6 months but clears in around 50% of children by 5 years of age and in 75% of children by 10 years of age

Features

  • in infants the face and trunk are often affected
  • in younger children eczema often occurs on the extensor surfaces
  • in older children a more typical distribution is seen, with flexor surfaces affected and the creases of the face and neck

Management

  • avoid irritants
  • simple emollients: large quantities should be prescribed (e.g. 250g / week), roughly in a ratio of with topical steroids of 10:1. If a topical steroid is also being used the emollient should be applied first followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments. Emollients can become contaminated with bacteria - fingers should not be inserted into pots (many brands have pump dispensers)
  • topical steroids
  • in severe cases wet wraps and oral ciclosporin may be used
423
Q

Epstein’s pearl

A

A congenital cyst found in the mouth. They are common on the hard palate, but may also be seen on the gums where the parents may mistake it for an erupting tooth. in neonates

No treatment is generally required as they tend to spontaneously resolve over the course of a few weeks.

424
Q

Coeliac disease in children

A

Coeliac disease is caused by sensitivity to the protein gluten. Repeated exposure leads to villous atrophy which in turn causes malabsorption. Children normally present before the age of 3 years, following the introduction of cereals into the diet

Genetics
incidence of around 1:100
it is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 (95% of patients) and HLA-DQ8 (80%)

Features may coincide with the introduction of cereals (i.e. gluten)

  • failure to thrive
  • diarrhoea
  • abdominal distension
  • older children may present with anaemia
  • many cases are not diagnosed to adulthood

Diagnosis

  • jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy
  • anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are useful screening tests

IgA TTG antibodies - investigation

425
Q

If developmental dysplasia of the hip was suspected - investigation to confirm?

A

ultrasound

426
Q

Screening for Developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

the following infants require a routine ultrasound
examination:
- first-degree family history of hip problems in early life
- BREECH presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery
- multiple pregnancy

all infants are screened at both the newborn check and also the six-week baby check using the Barlow and Ortolani tests

427
Q

Woman has elective c section due to breech presentation. Is screening required for dysplasia of the hip?

A

USS screening required 6 weeks after birth

All breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation require USS for DDH screening at 6 weeks regardless of mode of delivery

428
Q

When do children have similar vital signs to that of an adult?

A

Children aged over 12 have similar normal vital signs to an adult

429
Q

What is the initial management of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Initial management is through the insertion of a nasogastric tube with the aim of keeping air out of the gut. Therefore for cyanosed pt the best way to assist breathing is to intubate and ventilate. The child needs definitive management in the form of surgical repair of the diaphragm. (if they used a facemark then air would get into the NGT)

Would not do:
BIPAP and CPAP are airway adjuncts used when the problem is keeping the airway open, such as COPD or respiratory distress syndrome.

Facemask ventilation and nasal cannulae would only increase the risk of air entering the gut, the infant needs an artificial airway to ensure they are able to receive oxygen.

430
Q

A 7-month-old child is referred to clinic by her general practitioner because of asymmetrical hip creases. You suspect developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). What is the first-line investigation in this case?

A

In the UK, the vast majority of DDH is diagnosed in newborns. In this age-group, an ultrasound scan of the hip is the first-line investigation. However, there are some cases in which a diagnosis of DDH is suspected in an older child. In a child >4.5 months, an x-ray is the first-line investigation. This is because ossification of the femoral head has occurred, meaning that x-rays are better able to visualise the joint.

431
Q

What can cause diabetes?

A

CF - can CAUSE the development of diabetes

Cystic fibrosis presents in childhood with respiratory symptoms, but as the disease progresses, further features begin to develop. If the pancreas becomes affected, then diabetes mellitus can develop. It can take time for the pancreas to be affected enough to cause diabetes, which is why children with cystic fibrosis may develop diabetes later in life.

432
Q

Tx for Mesenteric adenitis

A

It often follows a recent viral infection and needs no treatment

433
Q

Typical features of whooping cough?

A

history of coryzal symptoms followed by violent coughing fits is highly suggestive of pertussis.

Infants with pertussis may present with apnoeas rather than the classic whoop. Young infants who develop whooping cough often do not have the classic whoop as they are unable to take the large breath required for this after the coughing fit. They instead may have apnoeas with cyanosis

434
Q

Acute epiglottitis- features and investigations

A

Acute epiglottitis is rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. Prompt recognition and treatment is essential as airway obstruction may develop. Epiglottitis was generally considered a disease of childhood but in the UK it is now more common in adults due to the immunisation programme. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine.

Features

  • rapid onset
  • high temperature, generally
  • unwell
  • stridor
  • drooling of saliva

Investigations

  • chest x-ray
    • -a lateral view in acute epiglottis will show swelling of the epiglottis - the ‘thumb sign’
    • -in contrast, a posterior-anterior view in croup will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the ‘steeple sign’
435
Q

Emergency treatment for croup

A

high-flow oxygen

nebulised adrenaline

436
Q

Healthy infants should have a respiratory rate between…

A

30-60 breaths

437
Q

Soft systolic murmur could be due to…

A

anaemia

soft systolic murmur and shortness of breath on exertion) - anaemia

438
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly and the presence of bruising together with the symptoms of anaemia (soft systolic murmur and shortness of breath on exertion) suggest…

A

ALL - acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

439
Q

Investigations for Perthes’?

A

Early disease can be missed on x-ray. MRI is increasingly replacing bone scans as the second line investigation of choice.

440
Q

Meconium staining is the major risk factor for…

A

aspiration pneumonia

441
Q

Neonates with NRDS usually present with…

A

Respiratory distress shortly after birth which usually worsens over the next few days.

442
Q

How does transient tachypnoea of the newborn present ?

A

Usually presents with tachypnoea shortly after birth and often fully resolves within the first day of life.

In TTN the CXR depicts a heart failure type pattern (e.g. interstitial oedema and pleural effusions) but key distinguishing features from congenital heart disease are a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the failure type pattern within days.

443
Q

What symptoms would you expect with epididymitis?

A

urinary symptoms

444
Q

Coxsackie A16 virus is caused by?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

445
Q

Crop of white spots on the inside of the mouth - are?

A

Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa

In measles

446
Q

The prodrome is characterised by fever, irritability and conjunctivitis - for what condition?

A

Measles

447
Q

first-line for children over the age 7 for Nocturnal enuresis?

A

desmopressin

Desmopressin is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Treatment can be considered in children over 5 years, though this has to be considered in line with the child’s maturity, motivation, frequency of bedwetting.

448
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus - pulse?

A

large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse

449
Q

At what age would the average child start to play alongside, but not interacting with, other children?

A

2 years

450
Q

Kawasaki disease -tx

A

high-dose aspirin

intravenous immunoglobulin