Pain management Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

Learning Objectives
• At the end of the session, you will be able to
• Understand the importance of pain management
• Define, Classify and Describe different types of pain
• Describe the key steps in pain assessment
• Describe the principles of pain management

Compare and Contrast the different types pain
medications, including basic dose conversion and titration
- key features of drugs, specific dosage forms
- what to note when starting doses
- some dose titrations are key
- management of side effects as a whole class (N/V/Constipation)

A

1

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2
Q

The total concept of pain involves 4 key factors which are __, __, __ and __.

A

Physical
Psychological
Social
Spiritual

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3
Q

A poor __ or __ of pain can cause patients to over-report pain.

A
  1. past experience

2. anticipation

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4
Q

Pain is a __ and __ response that varies daily between individuals. It can reflect the quality of __ and may be evidence of __.

A
  1. physiologic
  2. psychological
  3. care/life
  4. under-treatment
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5
Q

Chronic pain is defined as pain that persists even after __. This duration varies depending on the __ and may last anywhere from 4-6wks to 3months.

A
  1. sufficient time provided for an insult/injury to heal

2. type of injury

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6
Q

There are 4 types of pain classified according to pathophysiology, which are __, __, __ and __.

A

Nociceptive Pain, Neuropathic Pain, Referred Pain and Ischemic Pain

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7
Q

Nociceptive pain is due to actual nociceptive input (in terms of __. It can be subdivided into __ and __.

A
  1. tissue damage

2. somatic and visceral pain

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8
Q

Somatic pain occurs when nociceptors are triggered by noxious stimuli (__, ___ or __ types). These signals are carried by small myelinated A delta fibers (__ stimuli) and C fibers (__) to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

A
  1. mechanical, thermal or chemical
  2. mechanical and thermal
  3. all three stimulus types
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9
Q

Somatic pain can be subdivided into __ and __ somatic pain. Somatic pain is __ to the site of injury, is constant and sometimes feels like it is __.

A
  1. cutaneous
  2. deep
  3. tender and localized
  4. throbbing or aching
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10
Q

Visceral pain is mediated by __ receptors. It is poorly __ and often referred to a __ which may be tender. Patients may find it difficult to pinpoint the exact location.

A
  1. stretch
  2. localized
  3. distant cutaneous site
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11
Q

Patients may describe it as __, __ and __ (eg, appendicitis, cholecystitis). It is a good idea to relate to __ to find possible pressing forces on viscera.

A
  1. deep, dull, and cramping

2. patient history

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12
Q

Neuropathic pain is caused by __ in either the peripheral or central region. It may be due to __ or its __ (diabetes, infection, cancer, drugs, radiation).

A
  1. injury to the nerves
  2. disease
  3. treatment
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13
Q

Neuropathic pain is often described as prolonged, severe, __, __ , or squeezing , and is often
associated with __. If severe, neuropathic pain may be accompanied by weakness.

A
  1. burning
  2. lancinating
  3. focal neurologic deficits
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14
Q

In neuropathic pain, there may be no __, but areas of __ (allodynia). It is also characterized by its relative __, making it the most challenging type of pain to treat.

A
  1. area of tenderness
  2. exquisite sensitivity to normally innocuous stimuli
  3. resistance to opioids
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15
Q

__ neuropathic pain results from abnormal nerve generation while __ neuropathic pain results from reorganization of central somatosensory processing.

A
  1. Peripheral

2. central

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16
Q

Referred pain is pain __. It may occur because signals from different part of body travel along the __ going to the spinal cord and the brain.
• i.e. Obstructed bile duct produces pain near right side of scapula
• i.e. Hip injury pain referred to the knee

A
  1. located away from its point of origin

2. same pathways

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17
Q

Ischaemic pain is caused by __ to tissue (poor/no perfusion to area), leading to tissue hypoxia and damage. This causes a release of inflammatory mediators and chemicals that stimulate nociceptors
• i.e. Angina Pain

A

loss of blood flow

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18
Q

Pain that feels aching, stabbing, throbbing, or pressure is likely to be __ pain, originating from __.

A
  1. Somatic (Nociceptive)

2. skin, muscle, bone

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19
Q

Gnawing, cramping, aching, or sharp pain is likely to be __ pain, originating from __.

A
  1. Visceral

2. Organs or viscera

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20
Q

Burning, tingling, shooting, or electric /shocking pain is likely to be __ pain, originating from __.

A
  1. Neuropathic

2. nerve damage

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21
Q

Pain evaluation of patients can be subjective via __ (even if tissue damage cannot be observed) or objective via autonomic signs associated with acute pain, (increase __) especially in unconscious patients.

A
  1. signs of distress

2. RR, HR, BP, diaphoresis

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22
Q

When taking pain history, the usage of __ can help elicit more details. History should be __ and we have to look out for __ (consider total concept).

A
  1. open-ended questions
  2. taken separately for each pain
  3. signs of psychological distress
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23
Q

The SOCRATES framework can help get a good pain history:
• S__: Where is it?
• O__: When did it start? How did it start?
• C__: How does it feel? (look for neuropathic pain)
• R__: Does it run anywhere?
• A__: A ny other symptoms?
• T__: How long have you had it?
• E__: What makes it worse/better?
• S__: How bad is it? (using 1-10 subjective scores)

A
  1. site
  2. Onset
  3. Character
  4. Radiation
  5. Associations
  6. Time course
  7. Exacerbating/relieving factors
  8. Severity
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24
Q
The goal of pain assessment is to:
• \_\_ the pain
• Identify pain syndrome (Acute/chronic/breakthrough, Cancer/Non cancer related)
• Infer \_\_ (Nociceptive/Neuropathic)
• Evaluate physical and psychosocial \_\_
• Assess degree and nature of \_\_
• Develop a therapeutic strategy
A
  1. Characterize and Quantify
  2. pathophysiology
  3. comorbidities
  4. disability
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25
General tool for quantifying pain intensity is via the __. When assessing pain for children and elderly who do not verbalize well, the __ tool is preferable (ensure the score is patient-reported and not by healthcare professionals!!).
1. Numerical rating scale | 2. Wong-Baker Faces Rating Scale
26
For patients who cannot self-report pain (i.e. < 3 years old), the FLACC scale (f_, L_, A_, C_, C_) is recommended. Each factor is scored 0-2, and the sum is reported on a scale of 0-10.
1. face, legs, activity, cry, consolability
27
The __ assessment tool is based on a 10cm line where patient can make a marking on the line to indicate where their pain is. It is mainly used in the research setting to attempt a more 'objective' measure of pain.
visual analog scale
28
The __ assessment tool allows patients to assess their pain using various adjectives i.e. annoying, dreadful, agonizing etc..
adjective rating scale
29
The __ pain questionnaire is often used to measure effectiveness of analgesics. It measures 3 dimensions of pain: 1. Sensory (location, temporal pattern, quality) 2. Affective (emotional response) 3. Evaluative (perceived intensity)
McGill-Melzack
30
Pharmacotherapy options for pain management include: - __ (opioids and non-opioids) - __ blocks - Adjuvant analgesics (neurophatic, musculoskeletal)
1. Analgesics | 2. Nerve
31
Alternative methods for pain management include: 1. Electric stimulation (TENS/PENS) 2. a__ 3. __ therapy 4. c__ 5. Surgery
1. Acupuncture 2. Physical 3. Chiropractics
32
The 3 key principles of pain management: 1. Treat the __ where possible 2. Ask what is the __ behind the pain 3. Pharmacological Treatments via __
1. underlying cause 2. Pain Mechanism(s) 3. WHO LADDER
33
WHO treatment guide for cancer recommends: 1. __ ROA recommended 2. Regular __ of analgesia 3. __ regimen 4. Treat according to __ 5. Constant __ (attention to detail)
1. PO 2. intervals 3. Individualize 4. patient's perception 5. monitoring
34
We should match analgesic choice to severity of pain and titrate to response. • __ titration for severe pain. • __ titration for moderate pain. • __ titration for mild pain.
1. Rapid 2. Slower 3. Even slower
35
20% of cancer pain requires multi dimensional approach: | - __ of pain syndrome, use of 2nd line agents and/or __ interventions.
1. reassessment | 2. non-pharmacological
36
Based on WHO pain ladder, a pain score of 1-3 (mild pain) should be treated using: 1. __ if patient is not on analgesics (aspirin generally avoided due to __ effect) 2. __ and __ if patient is already on analgesics (i.e. max dose)
1. Paracetamol/NSAIDs 2. irreversible anti-platelet 3. Short-acting opioid and bowel regimen
37
Paracetamol is dosed 500-1000mg doses every 6 to 8 hourly; Max dose: __. It is the most commonly used non-opioid but we have to be cautious of overdose from using different __.
1. 4g/day | 2. combination products
38
Paracetamol has a low incidence of _(1)_, high oral/rectal _(2)_, multi-preparations available and is __(3)_____ with opioids. However, it lacks ___(4)______ and can cause __(5)____ with large doses (avoid > 3 grams/day for elderly).
1. ADR 2. bioavailability 3. synergistic 4. anti-inflammatory action 5. hepatotoxicity
39
Paracetamol is metabolized in the __ and eliminated in the __. We should watch out for patients with compromised __ function.
1. liver 2. kidney 3. liver and kidney
40
When choosing NSAIDs, there is no preference and any cost-effective NSAID __ by patient can be used. Alternatively, we may consider the PO equivalent of max tolerated __ dose.
1. tolerated | 2. ibuprofen
41
If two NSAIDs are tried in succession without efficacy, we should __.
use another approach to analgesia
42
COX‐2 selective NSAIDs are associated with lower incidence of __ side effects and do not inhibit __. However, they are more __ than traditional NSAIDs.
1. GI 2. platelet aggregation 3. expensive
43
NSAIDs are extensively protein bound and excreted mainly in __. They can appear in __ and cross the __.
1. urine 2. milk 3. placenta
44
NSAIDs can cause __ side effects and reversible platelet inhibition. They should be avoided if patients are on chemotherapy (may develop __). Coxibs would be preferable in this case.
1. GI | 2. thrombocytopenia
45
NSAIDs can cause: • __ effects: edema, HTN, renal failure • CNS: headache, dizziness, nervousness and visual disturbance • Cardiovascular effects: edema, cerebrovascular accident, hypertension, MI • __ (esp classical NSAIDs i.e. indomethacin & mefanamic acid, diclofenac) • __ : hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia Other SE: ________ platelet inhibition, ____
1. Renal 2. Hypersensitivity reaction 3. Hematological 4. reversible 5. GI SE
46
``` NSAIDs should be avoided in: • Elderly (>65 years) • __ disorder • __, bronchospasm • __ disease (ulcers, bleeding) • Cardiovascular disease • __ or Hepatic dysfunction • Receiving __ ```
1. Bleeding 2. Asthma 3. GI 4. Renal 5. anticoagulants
47
NSAIDs DRUG INTERACTIONs 1. Increased risk of bleeding (Anticoagulants and Antiplatelet drugs) 2. Increased risk of __ (ACE inhibitors, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, or diuretics) 3. Increased risk of GI ulceration (__) 4. Reduced __ effects (ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and diuretics)
1. nephrotoxicity 2. corticosteroids 3. antihypertensive
48
Adjuvants for neuropathic pain includes: __, __, antidepressants, antiepileptics and topical lidocaine.
1. Gabapentin | 2. pregabalin
49
__ can be used as an adjuvant for: Bone pain, neuropathic pain, raised intracranial pressure, liver capsule stretch pain
Corticosteroids
50
NSAIDs and bisphosphonates are adjuvants for __ pain.
Bone
51
Muscle relaxants e.g. __ and __ are useful adjuvants for Cramps or muscle spasm
1. baclofen | 2. benzodiazepines
52
Hyoscine butylbromide are useful adjuvants for __.
Intestinal colic
53
Based on the WHO ladder, a patient with a pain score of 4-6 (moderate pain) should be started on a __ agonist. A patient with a pain score of 7-10 (severe pain) should be started on a __ agonist.
1. weak opioid | 2. strong opioid
54
Opioids can have effects other than analgesia as a__, a__, s__ and for severe __ (in patients as an allergic alternative).
1. antitussives 2. antidiarrheals 3. sedatives 4. Headache
55
Codeine Phosphate has good onset of __, but a short duration of 4-6h. It can cross the placenta and enter the breast milk. Codeine is metabolized in the __ to morphine and excreted in the __.
1. 0.5-1h (PO) 2. liver 3. urine
56
The Equianalgesic dose of codeine is: 200mg (oral) codeine = __ mg(IM/SC) Morphine = __mg (IV) codeine
1. 10 | 2. 100
57
Codeine phosphate and Tramadol are major substrates of __ and may have reduced effects from __ such as chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, miconazole, paroxetine, quinidine and quinine.
1. CYP2D6 | 2. CYP2D6 inhibitors
58
Codeine causes __ but patients are expected to develop tolerance after 2 weeks. It can also cause __ (no tolerance will develop).
1. drowsiness | 2. constipation
59
Tramadol is an opioid agonist that also inhibits reuptake of __ and __, allowing it to have good __ and __ analgesic effect.
1. noradrenaline 2. serotonin 3. somatic and neuropathic
60
Tramadol is favorable clinically due to its lesser __ and __ side effects compared to other opiates along with a __ potential for abuse.
1. cardiovascular 2. respiratory 3. “Low”
61
Tramadol has a onset of action of __ with a duration of 9hrs (allowing for longer intervals). It is metabolized exclusively hepatically via __ to a active metabolite and excreted __.
1. within 1hr 2. CYP2D6 3. in the urine
62
Dosing adjustment for codeine and tramadol are necessary in patients with __ or __ impairment.
1. liver | 2. renal
63
Tramadol comes in __ and __ ROAs but regardless of ROA, has a max dose of __ (unlike other opioids who do not have ceiling doses).
1. injection 2. tablet 3. 400mg/day
64
At high doses of Tramadol, it can __ which explains why it should be avoided in patients __ i.e. patients with brain tumors or patients on drugs with __ (Neuroleptic agents, SSRIs and TCAs).
1. lower the seizure threshold 2. pre-disposed to epileptic activity 3. CNS activity
65
Tramadol can cause CNS side effects: __, headache, somnolence and GI side effects: __, ___
1. Dizziness | 2. Constipation, nausea
66
__ may increase risk of seizures if used together with Tramadol while concomitant use of warfarin and tramadol may lead to __. Carbamazepine can ______ half-life of tramadol by 33 to 50%
1. Naloxone, neuroleptic agents, SSRIs, TCAs 2. elevated prothrombin times 3. decrease
67
Morphine has a good onset of action: __ (PO) and __ (IV). It is metabolized in the __ to active metabolites and excreted mainly in the __. active metabolite: _____
1. 30min (PO) 2. 5-10min (IV) 3. liver 4. urine 5. morphine-6-glucuronide
68
The oral : parenteral ratio of morphine is __.
3 : 1
69
Morphine is available in a variety of ROAs: : Injection, mixture, tablet and capsule. Dose adjustments are required for __. Excessive sedation may occur in patients with __.
1. renal impairment | 2. cirrhosis
70
Morphine can cause GI side effects of __ (tolerance usually develops), __ (with chronic use) and __ (reason for bowel regimen).
1. Nausea 2. vomiting 3. Constipation
71
Morphine can cause __ (may be increased with antipsychotics), drowsiness, __ (secondary to histamine release) and __ (esp in epidural or intrathecal use).
1. hypotension 2. pruritis 3. urinary retention
72
Patients on morphine should avoid the following as they may increase its effects/toxicity: 1. CNS depressants 2. __ 3. __ (some manufacturers recommend 14 day wash out) 4. Herbs/nutraceuticals (Avoid valerian, St John's wort, kava kava, gotu kola) 5. _____ increase hypotensive effect of morphine
1. Alcohol 2. MAOI 3. antipsychotic
73
Fentanyl has an almost immediate onset: __ (IM), __ (IV). It is mainly metabolized hepatically via __ and excreted in __.
1. 7-15min 2. almost immediate 3. CYP3A4 4. urine
74
Fentanyl is about 100 times more potent than morphine. The equianalgesic dose is 100 mcg (IM) fentanyl = __ mg (IM) morphine
10mg
75
__ is a great opioid in the sense that it has no dose adjustments for hepatic/renal impairment (only requires monitoring in hepatic impairment).
Fentanyl
76
``` Transdermal fentanyl is used only if: • intolerable undesirable side effects from __ • __ failure • inability to __ • ‘tablet phobia’ or poor __ ```
1. morphine 2. renal 3. swallow 4. oral compliance
77
Transdermal fentanyl patches achieve steady state concentrations after __ (delayed onset) and have a duration of action of __ (48h for fast metabolizers). The elimination half life post patch removal is __.
1. 36-48h 2. 72h 3. 13-22h
78
Patients may experience withdrawal symptoms when switching from PO morphine to TD fentanyl despite satisfactory pain relief due to __. These withdrawal symptoms include: e.g. colic, diarrhoea, nausea, sweating and restlessness.
Different impact on peripheral and central µ opioid receptors.
79
The rate of absorption of TD fentanyl may be increased in __ patients or if the patch's skin area gets __ due to external heat source i.e. electric blanket/heat pad. __ may be a sign of fentanyl overdose.
1. febrile 2. vasodilated 3. A very sedated patient
80
It is preferable to place patches on __ areas. __ the hair is preferred over shaving (may shave off epithelial layers and increase absorption rate). Used fentanyl patches should be __ before disposal as it still contains some drug.
1. less hairy skin 2. Cutting 3. folded inward
81
TD fentanyl have an onset of __ and can accumulate in the __, with effects lasting 12h after the patch is removed. As such, no __ is required when switching patches. However, when switching from TD fentanyl to another opioid, __ is required to provide time for fentanyl to be excreted.
1. 6h 2. subcutaneous fat 3. break 4. a break of 12h
82
Methadone is a µ opioid receptor agonist, an __ receptor channel blocker and a presynaptic blocker of __ re-uptake. It is available as oral tablets and have an onset of __. Its duration of action increases from 4-5h to 6-12h with repeated doses.
1. NMDA 2. serotonin 3. 30min
83
Methadone is mainly metabolized in the liver via __, CYP2B6, and CYP2C19. Therefore, it makes sense that Methadone levels will be affected by __ inducers/inhibitors. It is excreted mainly in the urine.
CYP3A4
84
Avoid __ and herbs/nutraceuticals for patients on Methadone (i.e. St John's wort, valerian, kava kava, gotu kola. As Methadone is metabolized by CYP3A4 (intestinal), avoid __.
1. ethanol | 2. grapefruit juice
85
For methadone, dosage adjustment is required for __ impairment. Avoid in __.
1. renal | 2. severe liver disease
86
Generally for opioids, tolerance for adverse effects may develop over time; however, constipation and __ (especially bad for methadone) may persist. Other possible side effects of methadone include: h__, d__ and N/V.
1. sweating 2. Hypotension 3. Drowsiness
87
Oxycodone has a good onset of action: __min (PO) with a long duration of action: __ (IR) and __ (CR). It is metabolized hepatically to active metabolites and excreted in the urine.
1. 20-30 2. 4-6h 3. 12h
88
Dosage adjustment of oxycodone is required in __ impairment. Its adverse effects are similar to other opioids: d__, __ and constipation.
1. renal/liver 2. drowsiness 3. N/V
89
Oxycodone is an useful morphine alternative with about __ the potency and a longer duration of action (__ vs morphine 4h).
1. double | 2. 6h
90
Since oxycodone is metabolized to active (more potent) metabolites by __ , __ inhibitors (i.e. chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, miconazole, paroxetine, quinidine, quinine) are expected to __ effects of oxycodone. Oxycodone is also a major substrate of CYP3A4.
1. CYP2D6 2. CYP2D6 2. decrease
91
Patients on oxycodone should avoid __ and __ i.e. valerian, St John's wort, kava kava, gotu kola as they may increase CNS depression.
1. ethanol | 2. Herbs/Nutraceuticals
92
Tapentadol requires no dose adjustment in __ renal impairment and __ hepatic impairment. Dosages exceeding __ mg daily on the first day of therapy or __ mg daily on subsequent days have not been evaluated and are not recommended.
1. mild/moderate 2. mild 3. 700 4. 600
93
Pethidine requires dose adjustment in renal and hepatic impairment. The equianalgesic dose is __ mg (IV) pethidine = __ mg (IM/SC)morphine.
1. 75 | 2. 10
94
Pethidine is not commonly used in palliative care as: • Quick onset, short duration of action (2-3h). Not good for regular analgesia, and increases risk of __ • Toxic metabolite (norpethidine) which accumulates if given regularly, esp. in Renal failure • Norpethidine decreases __ • More __ than morphine
1. dependence 2. seizure threshold 3. emetogenic
95
Pethidine has a quick onset __ (IV) and __ (SC). It is indicated for __ pain and has less prominent CVS/GIT side effects compared to morphine.
1. 5min 2. 10-15min 3. acute
96
A minimal 24h morphine PO dose of __-__ mg is required before patients are candidates for conversion to __mcg/h fentanyl patch. A minimal 24h morphine PO dose of 30mg is required before patients are candidates for conversion to 12.5mcg/h fentanyl patch. (refer to manufacturer's table)
1. 45-134 | 2. 25
97
The equianalgesic dose ratio for tramadol and morphine is __ : __.
5 Tramadol : 1 Morphine
98
Conversion of morphine to methadone is complicated and done __.
stepwise over 3 days
99
When switching from 1 opioid to another, a __ is common (especially in __ patients or patients with __ dysfunction). Converting to methadone requires larger reduction (75-90%); depends on the dose of prior opioid.
1. 25-50% dose reduction 2. elderly 3. organ
100
Dose reductions when switching opioids may not be necessary when: Converting to __ (6h onset delay) Patients have __ (likely to be under-treated)
1. transdermal fentanyl | 2. severe pain
101
General principles of opioid use: 1. Choice and dose based on __ 2. Dose on a __ 3. Switch to __ to improve compliance 4. Consider alternatives if ineffective
1. severity of pain 2. regular basis 3. SR preparation
102
Breakthrough opioid doses are dosed at __. They may be dosed hourly as needed.
1/6 of the total daily dose
103
The total daily dose should be re-titrated when __. It also depends on the __ of the regimen.
1. breakthrough doses used daily exceeds 3 or 4. | 2. patient's tolerance
104
For patients previously on a weak opioid switching to morphine, give __ or modified release __. For frail, elderly and opioid naïve patients switching to morphine, give half of the standard dose (i.e. __).
1. 10mg q4h 2. 20-30mg q12h 3. 5mg q4h
105
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for treating __. It has a rapid onset of __ (IV), is metabolized in the liver and excreted in the kidney. In children, it is dosed by __ while adults follow the hospital's dosing protocol.
1. over dosage of opioids 2. within 2min 3. body weight
106
Common side effects of opioids include: • N__ (tolerance expected within 1-2wks) • C__ (unlikely to develop tolerance) • S__, mental clouding (Advise against driving, tolerance possible)
1. Nausea/Vomit 2. Constipation 3. Somnolence
107
Psychostimulants i.e. c__, d__ and m__ are used in the management of sedation and cognitive dysfunction in opioids.
1. caffeine 2. dextroamphetamine 3. methylphenidate
108
Myoclonus caused by opioids can be managed using __ and __. Pruritis can be managed using antihistamines but we should avoid __ i.e. cetirizine.
1. clonazepam 2. anti-convulsants 3. the sedating ones
109
There are 3 strategies for treating adverse effects from opioids: • Dose reduction (using __) • Changing to a different __ • __ management
1. adjuvants 2. opioid or route of administration 3. Symptomatic
110
``` Monitor the following for patients on opioid therapy: • Pain relief • Side effects • __ (physical and psychosocial) • __ behaviors ```
1. Function | 2. Drug related
111
Psuedo-addiction and addiction both lead to aberrant drug-related behaviour. However, pseudo-addiction is caused by __ and is reduced __. As the 2 can co-exist, knowing the patient well and __ are critical factors in distinguishing them.
1. uncontrolled pain 2. using improved pain control 3. having a good history
112
Addiction is unlikely to be due to pain management and is more commonly due to patients __. For such patients, __ can be drawn up to help reduce opioid abuse.
1. having a history of addiction and substance abuse | 2. opioid contracts
113
What are the two types of tolerance?
1. tolerance to SE is desirable | 2. tolerance to analgesia is *seldom*
114
tolerance does not cause ________
addiction