PANCE Flashcards
(293 cards)
0
Q
philadelphia chromosome is pathognomonic of what type of leukemia
A
CML
1
Q
Auer rods and Pancytopenia with circulating blast
A
AML
2
Q
what type of lymphoma will most likely find epstein bar virus?
A
hodkins lymphoma
3
Q
Reed-Sternberg cells =
A
= Hodgkins lymphoma
4
Q
X-ray of the skull showing punched out lesions =
A
multiple myeloma
5
Q
Thiazide diuretics is contraindicated in which patients?
A
Gout
6
Q
what drugs can cause macular degeneration?
A
chloroquine or phenothazin
7
Q
patient with strep pharyngitis allergic to penicillin, which abx?
A
Azithromycin
8
Q
what is the name of a mass that develops in young adult following URI?
A
brachial cleft cyst -locateds away from the midline and anterior to the SCM
9
Q
what is the treatment for oral trush?
A
nystatin or clotrimazole troches
10
Q
what causes chronic otitits media?
A
P. aeuriginosa, H influenza, S. aureus
11
Q
which type of conjuntivitis will present with pre-auricular lymphadenopathy?
A
viral conjunctivitis
12
Q
what is the treatment for gonorrheae?
A
IM ceftriaxone or oral ceftixime
13
Q
medications that causes ototoxicity?
A
aminoglycosides (gentamycin), loop diuretics, antineoplastic agents (cisplatin)
14
Q
what is the treatment for aphthous ulcer?
A
liquid dihenhydramine
antacid
tetracycline
2% viscous xylocaine
15
Q
what is the center criteria?
A
fever, tonsilar exudates, tender anterior lymphadenopathy, lack of cough
16
Q
what is aphthous ulcer asssociated with ?
A
herper virus 6
17
Q
what is the treatmement of aphthous ulcer?
A
liquid dihenhydramine
antacid
tetracycline
2% viscous xylocaine
18
Q
what is prebyscus?
A
age related bilateral loss of high frequency hearing
19
Q
what medication will help to relieve pain in the eye due to foreign object or substance?
A
proparocaine 0.5% opthalmic solution
20
Q
sudden painless vision loss
cherry red stop on macula along with pallor to the retina, what is the DX?
A
Central retinal artery occlusion
21
Q
what is the treatment for giant cell arhtritis?
A
high dose prednisone 60mg/day
22
Q
characterized by blood and thunder fundus
mark hemmorrages
torturous vessel
A
central vein artery occlusion
23
Q
what is cholesteatoma?
A
variety of chronic ottitis media
most common cause prolongerd eusthachian tube dysfunction with resultant chronic negative middle ear pressure that draws inward the upper flacid portion of the tympanic membrane
24
how do you monitored open angle glaucoma?
tonometry
gonioscopy
monitored dics to cup ration
visual field examination when monitoring
25
what is sialodenitis?
-acute bacterial mc s aureus
affect parotid or submandibular gland
acute swelling of the gland
increased pain and swelling with meals
26
tx for sialodenitis?
nafcillin
27
inclussion conjunctivitis fro chlamydial infection?
azithromycin 1g orally
28
what is herpes simplex keratitis?
causes acute ocular morbidity, virus colonizes trigeminal ganglion
29
positive D dimer is seen in
DIC
30
bite cells and heinz body are seen in this type of anemia
G6PD
31
should not eat fava beans
G6PD deficiency
32
t/f both hemophilia A&B are both x linked recessive
true
33
what is the main treatment acute management for anxiety?
SSRI-benzodiazepine (alprozalon or lorazepam)
34
what is the main treatment for the maintenace of anxiety?
benzodiazepine are tapered.
| paroxetine is beneficial, fluoxetine, venlofaxine, sertraline
35
what is the treatment for schizoprenia?
serotonin and dopamine antagonist
36
what is clozapine and what is its side effect?
second line therapy to treat schizophrenia and can cause agranulocytosis
37
what is the difference between schizophenicform disorder and schizphrenia?
Schizophrenicform disorder last about 1-6 months
38
what is the treatment for body dysmorphic disorder?
serotonin modulator blocks (fluozetine, clomipraine), SSRI @ higher doses -treat for 10-12 weeks
39
when does pospartum depression occur and what is the tx?
4 weeks after delivery and tx is SSRI-sertraline and also hormone therapy might help
40
what should a patient be aware when started on MAOIs?
a tyramine free diet (no wine, beer, almost all cheeses, smoked meats , aged foods) to avoid side effects.
41
what is a side effect of MAOI when patient consumes foods containing tyramine?
hypertensive crisis
42
what is the treatment for mood disorder?
SSRI (fluoxetine, paraxetine, sertraline)
43
what is the treatment for atypical depression?
MAOIs
44
what is serotonin syndrome?
when MAOI are used with SSRI
45
what is the treatment for bipolar disorder?
acute mania: lithium, antipsychotics, benzos, antisz
| commonly lithium or valproate + antipsych
46
describe the different personality disorder clusters?
cluster A: mad
cluster B: Bad
Cluster C: Sad
47
what makes up cluster A?
paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal
48
what are the types of cluster B personality disorder?
Histrionic, Narcissistic, Borderline, Antisocial
49
what are the subtypes of cluster C?
avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive
50
causes measles
paromyxovirus
51
causes rubella
togavirus??
52
causes foot hand mouth disease
coxsakie virus A16
53
causes erythema infectiousum
parvovirus b19
54
causes roseola infantum
HHV6 or 7
55
HIV, deep, purple, papular lessions
kaposi's sarcoma
56
lession> 6mm
possible malignant melanoma
57
precursor of squames cell carcinoma
actinic keratosis
58
rouleaux formation seen
mutliple myeloma
59
autopsy of rabies shows
negri bodies
60
autops on alzeimers shows
neurofibrillary tangles
61
periventricular plaques is associated with
multiple sclerosis
62
slapped check
erythema infectosum
63
high fever then rash (starts on trunk spreads to face and extremeties)
Roseola
64
diagnostic test for malaria
peripheral blood smear with Giensa
65
coryza, cough, conjunctivities, koplik spots
measles-rubella
66
what is the drug of choice for cases of MRSA?
bactrum
67
what is herald patch?
salmon color -papular rash seen in pityriasis roseasea
68
what is the treatment of choice for urticaria caused by ABX
hydroxizine
69
what leukemia will present with Aeur rods?
AML
70
leukemia with CNS involvement
ALL
71
which leukemia will present with smudge cells
CLL
72
treatment for hemophilia IX
desmopresin
73
positive philadelphia chromosome seen in
CML
74
reed sterberg cells
hodkins lymphoma
75
howell-jolly bodies seen in
macrocytic anemia
76
ABX m/c to cause GERD
tetracycline
77
infectious esophagitis endoscopy with deep ulcers
CMV or HIV
78
infectious esophagitis with shallow ulcers agent
HSV
79
best initial test to visualized lession in esophagial neoplasm
biphasic barium esophagram
80
what is Budd Chiari syndrome?
may cause thrombosis of the portal vein leading to esophagial varices
81
treatment for h pilory
PPI+clarithromicin( or metronidazole) +amoxicillin or
| Bismuth subsalicylate tetracycline + metronidazole+ PPI
82
what is prophylaxis treatment for h pylori
misoprostol or ppi
83
DX for ZES
secretin test 2 u/kg
84
tx for clostridium difficile
metronidazole, vancomycin, fidoxamicin
85
dx test for malabsorption
72 hrs fecal fat test
86
diagnostic test to distinguish between malabsorption from mladigestion (e.g pancreatic insufficiency)
D Xylose test
87
diagnostic test for celiac
IgA antiendothelial (EMA) antitissue transglutaminase ( Anti-TTG)
88
how is the dx confirmed in celiac
small bowel biopsy
89
what is the treatment for refractory case of celiac
prednisone
90
what is the treatment for chrons disease
prednisone for acute attacks with or w/o amino salicylates
91
tx for perianal disease in chrons
metrinadazole or cipro
92
best tx for maintanence of Chrons
mesalamine
93
TX for refractory cases of Crohn's
infliximab
94
the tx for UC
total protecolectomy
95
currant jelly stool, sausage mass
intessuception
96
anal fissure is most likely location
posterior midlne
97
courvoiseur sign
jaundice and palpable gall bladder indicating pancreatic neoplasm
98
test to confirm dx of cholecysitis
HIDA scan
99
test to identify cause, location, extent of biliary obstruction
ERCP
100
Anti-HAV
onset of Hepatitis
101
HAV-IgG
resolved disease
102
HBs-AG
ongoin infection
103
Anti-HBs-
immunity due to past infection
104
anti-HBc
immunizatino or acute
| c=core
105
HbeAG
| e=envelope
active and contagious
106
anti-HBe
lower viral titer
107
HBsAG=
carrier or chronic infection
108
possible cause of liver abcess
entomoeba histolytica or coliform
109
direct hernia
hesselback triangle, no scrotum
110
indirect hernia
internal inguinal ring and scrotum
111
treatment for pyloric stenosis
riboflavin
112
failure to pass mecomiun first 48hrs what is the DD?
hirshsprings
113
cryptococcus causes & TX
fungal meningitis,amphoterecin B plus flucystosis
114
test for lyme disease
elisa
115
tx for lyme disease
IV ceftriaxone
116
boxer's fracture to the mouth , treat for what organism?
Eikenella corrodens-organism specific to human mouth
117
gamekeeper's thumb
sprain or tear of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb
118
compression of the median nerve
carpal tunnel
119
tennis elbow
lateral epicondylitis
120
golfer's elbow
medial epicondylitis
121
dequervains thumb
overuse repetitive gripping
| + Finkestein test
122
posterior fat pad
radial fracture
123
septic bursitis mc organism
S. aureus
124
mc complication of scaphoid fracture
avascular necrosis and non union
125
what affected joint is required for diagnosis of ankylosis spondylitis
SI joint
126
what are other associated symptoms with ankylosing spondylitis
anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency and 3rd degree heart block
127
what is found on AS in labs?
increase ESR
128
what is the treatment for AS
indomethacin #1
| TNF
129
convex curvature of the thoracic spine
kyphosis
130
Scheuermann's Disease
fixed kyphosis develops at the time of puberty
131
what are the x ray findings of Scheuermann's disease
vertebrae wedging
end plate irregularity
Schmori's nodules between T2 and T12
132
what is the most common scoliosis curvature
right thoracic turn
133
corveseur sign
seen in pancreatic cancer
| palpable non tender gallbladder
134
triangle of callot
inferior border of the liver,cystic duct, common hepatic duct
135
treatment for H pilory
omeprazole + amoxicillin+clarithromicin
or
bismuth subcitrate+metronidazole+tetracycline+omeprazole
136
intessuception treatment
air enema
137
pyloric stenosis dx test
barium swallow, upper gi series
| olive mass, string sign
138
exam findings associatedw with appendicities
```
Rovsing
mckburneys
psoas
obturator
blumberg (rebound tenderness)
```
139
histology findings of alcoholic hepatitis
mallory bodies
140
shigella infection tx
fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin)
141
complication of acute pancreatitis
pseudocyst
142
diarrhea, dermatitis,dementia which vitamin deficiency
niacin=pellagra
| niacin is b3 or should we say D3 se le pellagra la piel
143
ulcerative coltis
bloody diarhhea lost of haustral markings
144
positive drop arm test suggest
rotator cuff tear
145
what is the hawkins test for?
to evaluate impingement/bursitis
146
what test suggest inferior instability of the glenohumeral joint?
sulcus sign
147
what test is perform to evaluate anterior instability
apprehension test
148
what is the treatment for gameskeeper aka (skier thumb )
injury to the ulnar collateral ligament -immobilization for 4-6 weeks
149
what is the test is MOST SPECIFIC for detecting Sjondre syndrome?
anti-la test
150
what is the lab test used for the dx of scleroderma?
anti centromere antibody test
151
what nerve is associated with medical epicondylitis?
ulnar nerve
152
what are the findings of polyARTthritis Nodosa?
constitutional symptoms fever, anorexia, weight loss, palpable purpura , livido reticularis
related to hepatitis B
153
ANCA positive plus lungs and kidney findings suggest?
wegener's granulomatosis
| mr. WEGer is my ANCle
154
what is the hallmark of herniated disk disease
sciatica
155
what is the most SPECIFIC test to detect SLE?
anti-double stranded DNA
156
what vitamin deficiency is seen in cystic fibrosis?
vitamin A due to deficiency in fat soluble vitamins
157
diagnostic test to confirm polyarteritis nodosa
blood vessel biopsy
158
diagnostic test for polymyosistis
muscle biopsy
159
most common side effect of methotrexate
stomatitis/gastritis
160
what is the presentation of a patient with Ehlers Danlos syndrome?
type 1 varient, velvety skin, hyperflexibility of the joints, MVP
161
condition that presents with muscle weakness in upper leg muscles and hip girdle in young boy and elevated CPK and creatine
duchenne muscular dystrophy
162
what structure it is damage in gamekeeper's thumb.
the ulnal collateral ligament which causes laxity when moving the thumg into abduction
163
vitamin recomendation for risk of osteoporosis
calcium 1200-1500 mg
| vitamin D 800-1000u
164
what is the most common pathogen to cause osteomylitis
pseudomonas
165
what is the treatment for Ankylosis spondylitis
indomethacin/ NSAID
166
valgus testing it is for which ligament?
MCL
167
where is the pain felt most in polymyalgia rheumatica
girdle -
168
what lab is elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica
C reactive protein
169
describe each single Salter fracture
```
1=S=simple
2=A=above
3=L=lower
4=T=Through
5=E=egads!!
```
170
what location will most likely indicate morton's neuroma
3rd and 4th digit fracture of foot
171
what is flinklesten's test
evaluates wrist pain due to De Quervans' tensynovitis
172
laxity with valgus stress testing
MCL
173
laxity with varus stress testing
LCL
174
mc sites of herniated disc
L4-5
| L5-S1
175
the 5ps of compartemtn syndrome
```
pulseness
parasthesias
paralysis
pallor
poikilothermia
```
176
what is the treatment for epididymitis and mc agent
cipro, ecoli
177
negative prehn's sign
testicular torsion
178
positive prehn's sign
epididymitis
179
mc electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized patient
hyponatremia
180
acute bacterial prostatitis treatment
bactrum (TMX-sulfa)
| fluoroquinolones (cipro)
181
delta waves in ECG
WPW
182
HTN treatment in pregnancy
hydralazine
183
hyperkalemia findings in EKG
| hypokalemia findings in EKG
peaked T waves
| broad flat T waves
184
hypercalcemia findings in EKG
| hyppcalcemia findings in EKG
shortened QT waves
| prolonged QT interval
185
treatment for priapism
phenylephrine
186
tx for gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
187
tx for chlamydia
doxycline or azythromycin
188
which testicular problem translumilates
hydrocele
189
DIP joints nodules
henderben
190
pip joints nodules
bouchards
191
what is the tetrad for reactive arthritis
urethritis, conjunctivitis, oligoarthritis, mucosal ulcer
192
diagnostic test for scleroderma
anti-centromere antibody
193
test for achiles tendon rupture
thompson test
194
wrist drop is due to what nerve injury
radial nerve
195
what psych medication can cause agranulocytosis
clozapine
196
cryptococcosis tx
amphoterecin B plus fleucytosin for CNS infection
197
treatment for ascities
spironolactone 100 mg qd
198
where is most likely to find direct hernia
hesselback triangle does NOT go to scrotum
199
agent that can cause liver abcess
entamoeba histolytica or coliform
200
diagnostic test for malabsorption
72 hrs fecal fat test
201
what test do you do to distinguish malabsorption for pancreatic insufficiency
D xylose test
202
pleural coin lession
hartoma
203
diagnostic test for syphilis
VRDL
204
what do you use for identification of post streptococcal glomeruloneprhitis
anti-DNAse B serology
205
treatmant for tension hemothrorax
large bore needle
206
do not give fava beans to
G6pd deficiency
207
bite cells and heinz bodies seen in
G6PD
208
what are lab findings of hepatic encephalopathy and the treatment
increase levels of NH3 and tx is lactulose
209
what medication is not indicated in the treatment of corneal abrassion?
topical antihistamine e.g =olapatadine
210
t/f extraocular muscle are affected in periorbital cellulits
false. extraocular movement likely to be intact
211
m/c causative agent of meningitis in neonate
group B strep- (screning done in pregnant women)
212
dilated tortuous vein, blood and thunder fundus vitrous hemorrages
central retinal vein occlusion
213
bone conduction > air conduction
| louder sound in affected ear (weber lateralized to affected ear)
conductive hearing loss
214
air conduction> bone conduction
| sound louder in better ear (weber lateralises to unaffected ear)
sensory hearing loss
215
what is the treatment for optic neuritis?
3 day course of iv methylprednisone followed by an oral taper
216
pale retina and cherry red spot on fundoscopy
central retinal artery occlusion
217
difference between dacroadenytis and dacrocystitis
```
dacroadenitis= inflammation/ infection of lacrimal gland (eyelid area )
dacrocystitis= acute infection of the NASOlacrimal gland( nose area)
```
218
steamy cornea, fixed mid dilated pupil, crescent shadow
acute angle closure glaucoma
219
neovascularization is a fundoscopic finding of
diabetic retinopathy
220
treatment for trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureax)
carbamazepine
221
age related hearing bilateral hearing loss of high frequeancy hearing and decrease word recognition
prebyscusis
222
what other medication spiranolactone should NOT be combined for possible cause of death?
oral potasium as it could cause hyperkalemia and die
223
what are digoxin side effects?
dizziness, headaches, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, weakness, palpitations, and change in vision with yelowish to blue tint to the vision
224
what are side effect of allopurinol?
rash and fever
225
what are the side effect of hydralazine?
it is a vasodilator use to treat hypertention and SE are takycardia, headache, nausea, lupus like syndrome
226
what is the side effect of spironolactone?
hyperkalemia and gynecomastia
227
a genetic defect in fibrillin gene
marfan syndrome
228
genetic defect in collagen characterized by joint laxity and hypertensibility
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
229
major and minor criteria for rheumatic fever
```
Jones fear No1
J=joints=polyarthritis migrator
O=shape heart =carditis =new onset murmur
N=nodules=subcutaneous,extensor surface
E=erythema marginatum
S=sydenham's chorea
```
```
F=fever
E=ESR raised CRP increased
A=arthralgia
R=rheumatic fever
No-1=1st degree heart block on ECG/PR interval prolonged
```
must have 2 major or 1 major 2 minor
230
tx for patient with hypotention and bradycardia
atropine
231
what medication should be discontinued in torsade de pointes
amiodorone could cause ST segment elevation
232
treatment for hypertensive emergency
labetalol- it is a combined alpha and beta blocker and will decrease systemic vascular resistence
233
High speed Motor vehicle accident with chest pain and back pain
Aortic dissection
234
Crescendo decresendo murmur heard best at the right second intercostal space and radiates to the carotids
Aortic stenosis
235
Suspected ingestion of antifreeze , what should be the DX of choice ?
Evaluate the urine under woods lamp for fluorescense
236
Triad of ptosis,miosis,and anhydrosis in smoker patient
Horner syndrome -lung cancer
237
Medication used for benzodiazepine overdose
Flumazenil ( romazicon)
238
Medication used in opiod detoxification
Naltrexone ( revia)
239
Type ii hypersensitive reaction
Myasthenia gravis
240
Painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss
Pancreatic adenoma
241
Anti-DNA topoisomerase I ( anti-Scl-70)
Scleroderma
242
Mc type of cancer in smoker
Squamos cell carcinoma
243
Mc lung cancer in nonsmoker
Bronchogenic adenocarcinoma
244
Having mechanical ventilation with positive pressure increases the risk of what ?
Pneumothorax
245
IgM anti-HBc indicates
Actively infected with hepatitis B
246
Alcoholic presenting with dementia,ataxia, ophtalmoplegia
Wernicke encephalopathy
| Due to thiamine deficiency
247
Peripheral neuropathy,memory loss, paresthesia, gait disturbance ,and glossitis what is the deficiency ?
Vitamin b12
248
Patient on long term of isoniazid , what vitamin deficiency
B6, pyridoxine - presents with peripheral neuropathy
| Need to give pyridoxine supplementation
249
Acetomenaphen poisoning treatment
N acetylcysteine
250
Salicylates toxicity tx
Gastric lavage with airway protection
Give activated charcoal
Intravenous bicarbonate and aggressive IV fluids
251
Tx for ulcerative colitis
Mesalamine ( asacol,pestasa)
252
Treatment of choice for stress incontinence
Urethrocystometry
253
Chronic tension headache treatment
Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitriptyline
254
What is fat embolism?
History of trauma to long bones ,respiratory insufficiency,neurologic impairment ,petechial rash over the upper body
255
What does HBeAG indicates
Patient does not have active replication at this time
256
Which medication could cause torsades de pointes and should be discontinued ?
Amiodarone ( cordarone)
| Causes prolongation of the QT interval
257
What is the complications of long term corticosteroid use?
Osteopenia with vertebral compression factors , give oral calcium,vitamin d,and biphosphonate
258
What are the changes in blood gases during barbiturate overdose ?
Causes respiratory depression resulting in carbon dioxide retention and hypoxemia
Low pO2, high pCO2='respiratory acidosis
Barbituates are sedative
259
What is the initial test that should be performed when lupus is suspected?
Antinuclear antibody
260
Vitamin deficiency with poor wound healing?
Scurvy vitamin C deficiency . It presents with poor wound healing,show petechia,bleeding gums and loose teeth
261
Virchow triad
Venous stasis, hypercoagulability, vascular injury
262
Ptosis,miosis,anhydrosis, dilated vein necks related to respiratory tumor
Pancoast tumor presenting with horners syndrome
263
What is schwachmans disease
Hereditary cause of chronic pancreatitis
264
Mallory bodies in histology of liver indicates
Alcoholic hepatitis
265
Contraindications to anticoagulation therapy
Hx of ULcers, positive hemoccult test,resent surgery, HX of hemorrhagic stroke, significant active or known bleeding
266
Diagnostic test for delta waves on ecg?
Electrophysiology study
267
Hirschprungs disease dx test
Rectal biopsy
268
Foot drop due to which affected nerve
Deep peroneal
269
Triamterene could most likely cause this complications
Hyperkalemia - it is a potasium sparing diuretic
270
Where do you find pseudo polyps? Chrons or UC
UC
271
Bowell wall thickening and transmutation lession, cobblestone appearence mucosa
Chrons
272
Complication of long term use of corticosteroids
Osteopenia
273
Hypertensive emergency diastolic pressure
Greater than 130
274
What additional supplementation might be need it for patients taking thiazide diuretics
Potassium supplementation
275
Treatment for aortic disection
Nitroprusside,b blocker labetalol or esmolol and urgent surgery
276
Treatment for hypertention in setting of acute renAl failure
Fenoldopam
277
What is the role in atherosclerosis ?
Inflamation and elevation of c reactive protein
278
What are the three common patterns of UA?
Angina at rest (m/c)
New onset of angina symptoms
Incresing pattern of pain in previously stable patients
279
What is considered a positive stress test?
St depression of 1mm (0.1mV)
280
What is the definitive diagnostic procedure for angina?
Coronar you angiography and should be use selectively because of cost and invasive ness
281
What septal defect is common in Down syndrome ?
AV septal defect
282
What is holiday heart?
A fib cause by excessive alcohol use or withdrawal
283
Treatment of unstable bradycardia
Vagolytic = atropine
| Or Positive chronotropic =epinephrine or dopamine
284
Medical Treatment for psvt
Adenosine IV push
285
Preferred Treatment for chronic atrial flutter
Dofetilide
286
What is it called the condition of Erectile disfunction due to PAD in ileac artery?
Leriche syndrome
287
What is the first line of treatment for raynauds phenomenom
CCB ege nifedipine
288
When would you use inplantable cardioverter defibrillator in patient with CHF ?
When EF is less than 35
289
What is the most common symptom of tb?
Cough
290
What is the cornerstone of DX for pneumocystic jiroveci ?
CXR with diffuse and perihilar infiltrate no effusions seen
291
Pneumonia with lactase dehydrogenase and bilateral interstitial infiltrates ?
Pneumocystic jeruvici tx is bactrum
292
What is the definitive diagnosis of lung cancer ?
Cytologic examination of the sputum
